KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Science chapter 6 Conservation Of Plants And Animals

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Conservation Of Plants And Animals Points To Remember

Biodiversity:

Occurrence of an innumerable number of different types of organisms and the whole range of their varieties (biotypes) adapted to different climates, environments and areas.

Wildlife sanctuary, national park, and biosphere reserve are names given to the areas meant for the conservation and preservation of forests and wild animals.

Biodiversity refers to the variety of living organisms in a specific area.

Plants and animals of a particular area are known as the flora and fauna of that area.

Endemic species are found only in a particular area.

Endangered species are those which are facing the danger of extinction.

Red Data Book contains a record of endangered species.

Migration is the phenomenon of the movement of a species from its own habitat to some other habitat for a particular time period every year for a specific purpose like breeding.

We should save, reuse and recycle paper to save trees, energy, and water.

Reforestation is the restocking of destroyed forests by planting new trees.

Flora: Different types of plants belonging to an area. Example: Silver Ferns, Sal, Teak, Mango, etc.
Fauna: Animals found in an area- Example: Dog, Frog, Insects, Bull Jackal, etc.
Endemic Species: Species of plants and animals found exclusively in a particular area. These are not naturally found anywhere else.
Extinct Species: Species of plants and animals which have already been lost. Examples: Dodo, Indian Cheetah, Pink-headed Duck, etc.
Threatened Species: Species that are liable to become extinct if it is not allowed to realize their full biotic potential by removing the cause of the threat.
Type of Threatened Species:
1. Endangered Species:
A species of animal or plant that is seriously at risk of extinction. Example: Indian rhinoceros, Asiatic ion, Asiatic wild ass, etc
2. Vulnerable Species: A vulnerable species is a species of animals or plants which are likely to become endangered unless something changes.
Example: Chinkara deer and Black buck, Golden Langur, etc
3. Rare Species: Species whose populations are originally scarce and scattered in the world.
4. National Parks: Protective areas reserved exclusively for the betterment of wildlife. These are established with the approval of the legislature.
Examples: Hazaribagh National Park in Jharkhand, Desert National Park in Rajasthan, etc
5. Sanctuaries: Hunting prohibited areas set up by the government are known as sanctuaries. These are only for the protection of wild animals. Example: Jaldapara in Madarihat, West Bengal), Keoladeo Ghana in Bharatpur (Rajasthan)
6. Migration: The regular, periodic, two-way movements of birds and some animals from their place of residence to some other place along well-defined routes. It is linked to seasonal factors, breeding, shortage of foods, etc. The Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary is known for its migratory birds.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Conservation Of Plants And Animals

Class 8 Science Conservation of Plants And Animals KSEEB Questions 

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Ncert Textbook Exercises

Question 1. Fill in the blanks :
1. A place where animals are protected in their natural habitats is called a wildlife sanctuary.
2. Species found only m a particular area is known as biodiversity.
3. Migratory birds fly to faraway places because of climate changes.

Question 2. Differentiate between the following.
1. Wildlife Sanctuary and Biosphere reserve
2. Zoo and Wildlife sanctuary
3. Endangered and Extinct Species
4. Flora and Fauna
Answer:
1. Wildlife Sanctuary

  1. This is an area where wild animals are protected and preserved.
  2. It is a place found in

Biosphere reserves

  1.  It helps to maintain the biodiversity and culture of the area.
  2. Abiosphere reserves may also d areas of other protected Wildlife Sanctuary

2. Zoo

  1. It is a place where we protect animals.
  2. Here artificial surroundings are made for
  3. Here animals are supplied with prepared food.

Wildlife Sanctuary

  1. Here, too, wild animals are protected and preserved.
  2. They live in their natural habitat or environment.
  3. They get their food from forests themselves.

3. Endangered Species

  1. These are those species that are facing the danger of extinction.
  2. Tiger is an example of an endangered species.

Extinct Species

  1. They are the species that have already vanished from the earth.
  2. Dinosaur is an example of extinct species.

4. Flora

  1. Flora Flora is a plant found in a particular region.
  2. Sal, mango, Jamun, etc. are examples of flora. Biosphere Reserves 121/105

Fauna

  1. Fauna is the animals found in a particular region.
  2. Chinkara, blue-bell, deer, cheetah, etc. are examples of fauna.

Question 3. Discuss the effects of deforestation on the | 5. following.
1. Wild animals
2. Environment
3. Villages (rural areas)
4. Cities
5. Earth
6. The next generation
Answer:
1. Wild animals: They won’t get their natural habitat and surroundings as well as food. They will migrate to another forest.
2. Environment: Climate changes disturb the environment. Global warming is caused due to accumulation of carbon dioxide.
3. Villages: Villagers cannot grow food because of no rain. So, drought situations will prevail. Villagers will move towns and cities.
4. Cities: Cities flooded with drought-affected villagers, will affect the environment. Food grains will either not be available or if available, they will be costlier.
5. Deforestation leads to changes in soil properties. The physical properties of the soil will get affected badly. The lands will be gradually converted into deserts.

Question 4. What will happen if
1. We co on cutting trees.
2. The habitat of an animal is disturbed
3. The top layer of soil is exposed
Answer:
1. If we go on cutting trees, then the following situation will arrive Climate change will affect the environment due to global warming and there will be no rain. The soil will become unfertile due to regular flooding of the topsoil.
2. If the habitat of an animal is disturbed, the animal may not be in a position of getting its natural habitat as well as food.
3. Removal of the top layer of soil by floods and heavy winds will expose the lower hard and rocky layers. This soil has less humus and less fertility.

Question 5.Answer in brief
1. Why should we conserve biodiversity?
2. Protected forests are also not completely safe for wild animals. Why?
3. Some tribes depend on the jungle. How?
4. What are the causes and consequences of deforestation?
5. What is Red Data Book?
6. What do you understand by the term migration?
Answer:
1. If biodiversity is not conserved, the life existing on earth, its interrelationships, and its relationship with the environment will be disturbed.
2. It is because despite all these the poachers keep killing or capturing the animals in these forests. That is why protected forests are also not completely safe for animals.
3. Some tribal life in the jungle. The jungle provides them with food and protection. That is why: they are fully dependent upon the forests.

Causes of deforestation:

  1. Procuring land for cultivation.
  2. Building houses and factories.
  3. Natural Calamities like floods, drought,s and forest fires.
  4. Consequence of deforestation
  5. Global warming.
  6. Soil erosion
  7. Melting ice on poles.
  8. Red Data Book is a book that keeps a record of all endangered animals and plants.
  9. Migration is the phenomenon of movements of species from its own habitat to some other habitat for a particular time period every year for a change of climate and for the purpose of breeding.

KSEEB Science Class 8 Chapter 6 Guide 

Question 6. In order to meet the ever-increasing demand in factories and for shelter, trees are being continually cut Is it justified to cut trees for such projects?
Answer: Of course, to meet the ever-increasing demand in factories and for shelter, trees are being continually cut, which is not justified at all. fone tree is cut, a least five trees should be grown so that the reforestation process will remain continuous. But if trees are cut blindly and no trees are planted then the earth will face global warming, no rainfall, climate change, soil erosion, and deforestation. So, cutting trees for any reason at all is not justified.

Question 7. How can you contribute to the maintenance of the green wealth of your locality? Make a list of actions to be taken by you.
Answer: For the maintenance of the green wealth of my locality. I will prefer reforestation in the locality. I shall start a campaign, along with my friends, to make the people of the locality aware of the importance of trees. Once people become conscious of the importance of plants they will be requested to do the following-
Each family should plant at least one tree in the monsoon month.
During summer, they should assure the watering of the plants every day.
On the occasion of birthdays, marriage ceremonies, and other happy occasions, they should gift their friends and relatives.

Question 8. Explain how deforestation leads to reduced rainfall
Answer: Deforestation leads to the accumulation of CO, in the atmosphere which results in global warming as CO, traps the heat of the sun’s rays. The increase in the temperature of the earth will disturb the water cycle and reduce rainfall causing drought in the region.

Question 9. Find out about national parks in your state. Identify and show their location on the outline map of India.
Answer: There is not any national park in my native state but near national parks around my locality are Ranthambore, Bharatpur, and Sarika of
the nearby state of Rajasthan.
chapter 6 conservations of plants and animals

Question 10. Why should the paper be saved? Prepare a list of ways by which you can save paper.
Answer: The manufacturing of paper needs trees. By cutting trees, deforestation is caused. If the paper is saved or recycled, so many trees can be saved. To make one ton of paper17 full-grown trees are to be cut. Therefore, to stop deforestation, we should save paper. It can be saved by recycling. Paper can be recycled 5-7 times and can be used. If everyone who uses paper could save at least one sheet of paper in a day, we can save many trees in a year.

Question 11. Complete the word puzzle.
Down
1. Species on the verge of extinction.
2. A book carrying information about endangered species.
5. Consequence of deforestation.
Across
1. Species that have vanished.
3. Species found only in a particular habitat.
4. Variety of plants, animals, and microorganisms found in an area.

chapter 6 conservation of plants and animals puzzle 1chapter 6 conservation of plants and animals puzzle PNG

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Activities

Question 1. Add more causes of deforestation to your list and classify them into natural and man-made.
Answer:
Natural causes of deforestation:
1. Forest fires
2. Severe drought
Man-made causes of deforestation:
1. Wood for the manufacturing of paper.
2. Wood for fuel and the making of houses.

Question 2. Animal life is also affected by deforestation. How? List the points and discuss them in your class.
Answer:

  1. Due to deforestation, a great disturbance is caused in the food chain.
  2. Deforestation makes the animals homeless.
  3. Due to deforestation, animals become easy prey for hunters.
  4. Herbivorous animals face the scarcity of food due to deforestation.
  5. Animals face the bad effects of natural calamities.

Question 3. List the factors disturbing the biodiversity of your area. Some of these factors and human activities may disturb biodiversity unknowingly. List these human activities. How can these be checked? Discuss in your class and write a brief report in your notebook.
Answer: Cutting of trees, rising air, water, and land pollution, excessive construction, and using more resources or their products affect the biodiversity harshly.

Important Questions On Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 KSEEB 

Question 4. Try to identify the flora and fauna of your area and list them.
Answer:
Flora (trees and plants): Pipal, sal, teak, Kadam, babool, mango, guava, ferns, Arjun, Kelkar, etc., are flora present in our locality.
Fauna (animals): Blue-bull, chinkara, cheetah, deer, leopard, wolf, wild dog, etc., are the fauna present in our locality.

Question 5. Find out the endemic plants and animals of the region where you live.
Answer:

  1. Endemic plants: Mahua, wild mango, sal, Jamun, etc.
  2. Endemic animals: Bison, Indian giant squirrel, etc.

Question 6. Visit a nearby zoo. Observe the conditions provided to the animals. Were they suitable for animals? Can animals live in an artificial setting instead of their natural habitat? In your opinion, will the animals be comfortable in a zoo or in their natural habitat?
Answer:

  1. A zoo tends to provide suitable conditions for the animals to live in, similar to their natural habitat.
  2. Yes, animals can live in an artificial setting instead of their natural habitat, as they live in the natural environment and stay protected from people.
  3. In my opinion, animals are safer in the zoo in comparison with their natural environment, because special care is taken for the animals in the zoo. But I think animals feel more comfortable living in their natural habitat as no one wants to live in prison.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Additional Questions

Question 1. What is sanctuary?
Answer: An area where animals are protected from any disturbance to them and their habitat is called a sanctuary.

Question 2. Write the names of some parks and sanctuaries.
Answer: Dudhwa National Park, Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, Kaziranga National Park, Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary, etc.

Question 3. Give examples of flora.
Answer: Teak, sal, mango, Jamun, Arjun, etc.

Question 4. Give examples of fauna.
Answer: Elephant, tiger, wild bear, etc.

Question 5. Name two endemic fauna.
Answer: Giant squirrel, bison.

Question 6. Name the first Reserve Forest of India.
Answer: Satpura National Park.

Question 7. What is the name of the reserved land used to protect biodiversity?
Answer: Biosphere Reserve.

Question 8. List the names of some migratory birds.
Answer: Siberian crane

  1. Bar-headed goose
  2. Arctic tern
  3. Surkhab

Question 9. Write the names of some extinct animals.
Answer: Dodo, dinosaurs, mammoth, etc.

Question 10. What do you mean by deforestation?
Answer: The cutting of trees on a large scale is called deforestation.

Question 11. Mention the causes of deforestation.
Answer: The cause of deforestation could be:

  1. Forest fires
  2. Building houses, factories
  3. Severe droughts
  4. Using wood for some purposes
  5. Human encroachment and procuring land for cultivation

Question 12. How does deforestation lead to frequent floods and droughts?
Answer: Deforestation results in the decreased water-holding capacity of the soil. This reduces the infiltration of water into the ground which causes floods. On the other hand, deforestation leads to a higher level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere which causes global warming. The scarcity of trees disturbs the water cycle and may reduce rainfall leading to droughts.

Question 13. How can we protect wildlife?
Answer: Wildlife plays a significant role in maintaining a balance in the environment. They can be protected by establishing secured and protected areas, which are restricted for human activities that are against the protection of wildlife. Cutting trees hunting, and poaching are strictly banned there. Many of these areas are national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.

Question 14. Why is the conservation of biodiversity important?
Answer: Because of the following reasons, the conservation of biodiversity is important:

  1. It boosts tourism and thus, plays a significant role in enhancing the economy of the country.
  2. It maintains the fertility of the soil.
  3. It helps in maintaining the ecological balance on the earth.
  4. Biodiversity is a rich source for the study of genetics and evolution.
  5. It helps in maintaining the weather by regulating climatic changes, rainfall, etc.

Question 15. What are ‘rare species? Give examples.
Answer: Rare species are uncommon and scarce, that is to say, their population is very small. Major steps are to be taken for their conservation and protection so that they may not fall under the category of endangered or extinct species. Examples: wild buffalo, Bengal fox, gaur, marbled cat, etc.

Question 16. For centuries human activities such as hunting and encroachment have led to the degradation of forests and the extinction of many species of plants and animals. The government of India has taken many steps to conserve forests and wildlife. But this movement will not be a success without the involvement of all of us.
1. What products are obtained from forests and wildlife?
2. How can we help in conserving forests and wildlife?
3. Can you name some organisations that are working against the killing or poaching of animals?
4. What values of humans are shown here towards nature?
Answer:
1. From forests: Wood for fire, timber furniture, medicines, forage for livestock, gums, raisins, papers, etc. From wildlife: Horns, skin, leather, fur, ivory, meat, fin, etc.
2. By saying No’ to animal products we can at least reduce their hunting and poaching.

  1. By not cutting the trees and planting more saplings we can help in restoring the natural habitat of wild animals.
  2. By creating awareness among people about the importance of forests and wildlife.

3. World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW), World Society for the Protection of Animals (WSPA)), etc.
4. They are cruel, money-minded, selfish, reckless, etc.

KSEEB Class 8 Conservation of Plants And Animals Exercise Solutions Multiple Choice Questions

Question 17. Wild buffalo is an endangered species because
1. Its population is diminishing
2. It has become extinct
3. It is found exclusively in a particular area
4. Its poaching is strictly prohibited
Answer:
1. Its population is diminishing

Question 18. Which one of the following changes may occur due to desertification?
1. Increased chances of floods.
2. Conversion of fertile land into a desert.
3. The decrease in atmospheric temperature.
4. Increase in water holding capacity of Bihar. soil
Answer: 2. Conversion of fertile land into a desert
Explanation: Soil is carried away by the wind there are no trees as there will be no roots to hold onto the soil. Thus topsoil erodes which will turn the land into a desert.

Question 19. Which one of the following statements is true about a Biosphere Reserve?
1. It is a protected area where only endemic species live.
2. It is meant only for the conservation of
3. It is meant to conserve both, the biodiversity and the culture of that area.
4. There are no other protected areas within its limits.
Answer:3.It is meant to conserve both, the biodiversity and the culture of that area.
Explanation: The biosphere reserve is the protected part of the land covered with forests. It is meant for the conservation of wildlife, biodiversity, and the traditional lifestyle of tribals.

Question 20. The place meant for the conservation of biodiversity in their natural habitat are
1. Zoological garden
2. Botanical garden
3. Wildlife sanctuary
4. National park
Answer: 3. Wildlife sanctuary, 4.National park
Explanation: In botanical gardens and zoological parks species are protected outside their natural habitat and ex-situ conservation. On the other hand, Wildlife sanctuaries and National parks are in-situ conservation where the conservation of biodiversity occurs in their natural habitat.

Question 21. Which one of the following statements is true about endemic species?
1. They are found exclusively in a specific habitat.
2. Endemic species can never become endangered.
3. They are found only in zoos and botanical gardens.
4. They are not affected by the destruction of their habitat.
Answer: 1. They are found exclusively in a specific habitat.
Explanation: Endemic species are those which are found exclusively in specific habitats. Endemic species get extinct when their habitat is destroyed by human activities or by the introduction of new species are introduced to the habitat.

Question 22. Which of the following feature is correct for a wildlife sanctuary?
1. It is an artificially created protected area for animals.
2. It is a protected area for threatened and endangered wild animals.
3. It is meant for the conservation of only plant species.
4. Capturing and poaching of animals is strictly prohibited here.
Answer: 1. It is an artificially created protected area for animals.
Explanation: The wildlife sanctuary is an artificially created protected area for animals.

  1. Hence option 3. is wrong. Wildlife sanctuaries are not specific for threatened and endangered wild animals.
  2. Hence answer 2. is wrong. Capturing and poaching animals is strictly prohibited everywhere.
  3. Hence option 4. is not appropriate.

Question 23. Which statement is incorrect about endangered species?
1. Their number has decreased drastically.
2. They might become extinct in the near future.
3. They pose a danger to other animals.
4. Their natural habitat needs to be protected
Answer: 3. They pose a danger to other animals.

Question 24. What do blackbuck, elephant, python, and golden cat together represent in a forest?
1. Fauna
2. Flora
3. Ecosystem
4. Species
Answer: 1. Fauna
Explanation: Fauna is the animal’s in a particular area. Flora is a plant species in a particular area. The ecosystem includes the physical environment along with plants and animals of a particular area. A species is a group of inbreeding populations.

Question 25. The Red Data Book keeps a record of all the
1. Endemic species.
2. Extinct species.
3. Endangered plants
4. Endangered animals.
Answer: 1. Endemic species,2. Extinct species.
Explanation: Red Data book keeps a record of endangered animals and endangered plants. Different books are maintained for different species including plants, animals, and other species.

Question 26. Migratory birds fly to faraway areas during a particular time of the year. Which of the following conditions present in their habitat
during that time are responsible for this behavior?
1. Unavailability of food.
2. Extreme weather conditions.
3. Overcrowding.
4. Lack of nesting areas.
Answer: 1. Unavailability of food, 2.Extreme weather conditions.
Explanation: The migration of birds is a process of moving to different habitats due to adverse climatic conditions. Because of extreme weather
conditions, birds fail to gather food and they cannot lay their eggs.

Question 27. In our country, large patches of forests are being cleared for the cultivation of crops. The environmental impact of such a practice will lead to
1. Soil erosion
2. Soil conservation
3. Soil pollution
4. Soil fertility
Answer: 1. soil erosion
Explanation: Due to the cutting of trees, there will no roots to hold the soil, and because of this topsoil erodes by the action of wind.

Question 28. Why is it important to conserve forests?
Answer: Forest should be conserved for balance in nature and to conserve the ecosystem.

Question 29. Mention any one action that you have undertaken to conserve trees.
Answer: Donating old books and spreading awareness about deforestation.

Question 30. State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the false statements.
1. There can be a wildlife sanctuary within a biosphere reserve.
2. Plants of a particular area are collectively termed fauna.
3. Deforestation leads to an increase in the water-holding capacity of the soil.
4. Bison is an endemic fauna of the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
1. True.
2. False- Plants of a particular area are collectively termed flora.
3. False- Deforestation leads to a decrease in the water-holding capacity of the soil.
4. True.

Question 31. Can a forest regenerate naturally in a short period of time?
Answer: It takes a long period of time to regenerate the forest naturally.

Question 32. Name the first Reserve Forest of India.
Answer: Satpura National Park.

Question 33. Why are wildlife sanctuaries important for the conservation of plants and animals?
Answer: Wildlife sanctuaries are important for the conservation of plants and animals because in these areas poaching or killing animals, and disturbing animals by any means of human activity are prohibited. Moreover, in wildlife sanctuaries animals can live in their natural environment. This promotes their breeding and population increase.

Question 34. Why are endemic organisms in greater danger of becoming extinct?
Answer: Endemic organisms are those which can live in a particular geographical location. Any disturbance to their natural habitat will affect the endemic animals adversely hence they are in great danger of becoming extinct.

Question 35. How are even small animals important in an ecosystem?
Answer: Every organism forms a part of the food chain and ecosystem. Hence every organism is important to balance the ecosystem.

Question 36. A new species X is introduced in a forest. How is it likely to affect the local species of that area?
Answer: Introduction of new species in a forest leads to competition for food and place. Hence it will affect the native species present in the forest.

Question 37. Does soil erosion affect the fertility of soil? How?
Answer: Soil erosion leads to the washing out of soil fertile layer of soil. This leads to the desertification of land due to a lack of fertile soil.

Question 38. What is the unique feature of the biodiversity found in the Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve?
Answer: The biodiversity found in Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve is similar to that found in the upper Himalayan peaks and lower Western Ghats.

Question 39. Mention the aim of the Forest (Conservation) Act.
Answer: Aim of the Forest (Conservation) Act are as follows
To conserve natural forests and the animals present in the forest.
To meet the basic needs of the people living in the forest.

Question 40. What is biodiversity?
Answer: Biodiversity refers to the variety of plants and animals present in a particular habitat.

chapter 6 flow chart biosphere

Karnataka State Board Syllabus for Class 8 Textbooks Solutions

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Force And Pressure

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Force And Pressure Points To Remember

Force:

A push or a pull, that changes or tends to change the state of rest or of uniform motion of an object or changes its direction or shape.

A force arises due to the interaction between two objects.

Force has magnitude as well as direction. The SI unit of force is Newton.

A change in the speed of an object or the direction of its motion or both implies a change in its state of motion.

Force acting on an object may cause a change in its state of motion or a change in its shape.

A force can act on an object with or without being in contact with it.

Types of Forces:

Contact Forces: The forces act on a body when the source of force is in actual contact with the body. The point where the force is applied on an object is called the point of application of force
1. Muscular Force: The force exerted by the muscles of the body. We make use of the muscular force of animals like bullocks, horses, and camels to get our activities done.
2. Mechanical Force: The force produced by a machine.
3. Frictional Force: The force that opposes the motion of an object.

Non-Contact Forces: Forces that do not involve physical contact between two bodies on which they act.
1. Magnetic Force: A magnet exerts a noncontact force on objects made of iron, steel, cobalt, or nickel.
2. Electrostatic Force: The force which results due to the repulsion of similar charges or attraction of opposite charges.
3. Gravitational Forces: The force that exists between any two bodies by virtue of their mass.

Pressure:

Thrust acting per unit surface area is called pressure. Thrust s the force acting on an object perpendicular to its surface. In the SI system, pressure is measured in newton per square meter which is equal to (1) pascal (Pa).

Like solids, fluids (liquids and gases) also exert pressure. A solid exerts pressure only in the downward direction due to its weight, whereas liquids and gases exert pressure in all directions. Hence liquids and gases exert pressure on the walls of their container.

The thick blanket of air that covers the earth is termed the atmosphere. The pressure exerted by the atmosphere is called atmospheric pressure. The tremendous atmospheric pressure surrounding us is not felt by us because the fluid pressure inside our bodies counterbalances the atmospheric pressure around us.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Force And Pressure

Class 8 Science Force And Pressure KSEEB Notes 

Force And Pressure NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1. Give two examples of each of the situations in which you push or pull to change the state of motion of objects.
Answer:

If a rubber ball or marble is placed on a very smooth surface and given a small push, it starts moving with some speed.

If a child is placed on a hanging swing in the state of rest and the swing is pulled again and again by a rope, the swing will move to and fro with a speed.

Question 2. Give two examples of situations in which applied force causes a change in the shape of an object.
Answer:

If an inflated balloon is taken and pressed from two sides with a hand, its shape gets changed.

If a plate of steel is beaten up with a hammer the shape of the plate will get change.

Question 3. Fill in the blanks in the following statements.
1. To draw water from a well we have to pull at the rope.
2. A charged body attracts an uncharged body toward it.
3. To move a loaded trolley we have to pull it.
4. The north pole of a magnet repels the north pole of another magnet.

Question 4. An archer stretches her bow while taking aim at the target. She then releases the arrow, which begins to move towards the target Based on this information fill up the gaps in the statements using the following terms.
Muscular, contact, non-contact, gravity, friction, shape, attraction
1. To stretch the bow, the archer applies a force that causes a change in its______
2. The force applied by the archer to stretch the bow is an example of _______force.
3. The type of force responsible for a change in the state of motion of the arrow is an example of a _____ force.
4. While the arrow moves towards its target, the forces acting on it are due _____to ______ and that due to air.
Answer:
1. Shape
2. Muscular
3. Contact
4. Gravity, friction.

Question 5. In the following statements identify the agent exerting the force and object on which its acts. State the effect of the force in each case.
1. Squeezing a piece of lemon between the fingers to extract its juice.
2. Take out paste from a toothpaste tube.
3. A load is suspended from a spring while its other end is on a hook fixed to a wall.
4. An athlete making a high jump to clear the bar at a certain height.
Answer:

Agents exerting force

  1. Fingers
  2. Fingers
  3. A load
  4. An athlete

The object on which force acts

  1. Lemon
  2. Toothpaste tube
  3. Spring
  4. On the legs

Effect of force

  1. Lemon juice is extracted
  2. Toothpaste come out
  3. The spring expands
  4. Cleans the height

Question 6. A blacksmith hammers a hot piece of iron while making tools. How does the force due to hammering affect the piece of iron?
Answer: The shape of the hot piece of iron changes. It flattens and becomes thinner than earlier. This is the effect of force due to hammering the piece of iron.

Question 7. An inflated balloon was pressed against a wall after it has been rubbed with a piece of synthetic cloth. It was found that the balloon sticks to the wall. What force might be responsible for the attraction between the balloon and the wall?
Answer: This is an electrostatic force.

Question 8. Name the forces acting on a plastic bucket containing water held above ground level in your hand. Discuss why the forces acting on
the bucket does not bring a change in its state of motion.
Answer: The forces that act on the bucket are as follows:
1. The pressure of water contained in it, exerted on its wall and on the base of the bucket.
2. Force of gravity by the earth
3. The water is contained in a bucket and the pressure of force is exerted on the wall of the bucket, which is sufficient to take it as a force. As the bucket is held in my hand, so I overcome the force of gravity of the earth. That is why these forces do not bring a change in the state of motion.

Question 9. A rocket has been fired upwards to launch a satellite in its orbit. Name the two forces acting on the rocket immediately after leaving the launching pad.
Answer: The two forces that are acting on the rocket immediately after leaving the launching pad are:

Force of gravity of the earth acting downward and

The frictional force produced by air particles.

Question 10. When we press the bulb of a dropper with its nozzle kept in water, the air in the dropper is seen to escape in the form of bubbles. Once we release the pressure on the bulb, water gets filled in the dropper. The rise of water in the dropper is due to
1. Pressure of water.
2. Gravity of the earth.
3. Shape of a rubber bulb.
4. Atmospheric pressure.
Answer: 4. Atmospheric pressure.

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Force And Pressure Questions 

Force And Pressure Activities

Question 1. Gives some examples of familiar situations involving the motion of objects. You can add more such situations or replace those given here. Try to identify the activities involved in each case as a push and/or a pull and record your observations. One example has been given to help you. Identifying Actions as Push or Pull
Answer:

chapter 7 force and pressure table 1

Question 2. Choose a heavy object like a table or a box, which you can move only by pushing hard. Try to push it all by yourself. Can you move it? Now ask one of your friends to help you in pushing it in the same direction Is it easier to move it now? Can you explain why? Now push the same object, but ask your friend to push it from the opposite side Does the object move? If it does, note the direction in which it moves. Can you guess which one of you is applying a larger force?
Answer:
1. The box moves with difficulty when we push alone but moves easily if helped by our friend. Thus, force applied to an object in the same direction adds to one another.
2. When the object is pushed from the opposite side, it does not move. Thus, if two forces act in the opposite direction on an object the net force acting on it is the difference between the two forces.

Question 3. Take a rubber ball and place it on a level surface such as a tabletop or a concrete floor. Now, gently push the ball along the level surface Does the ball begin to move? Push the ball again while it is still moving. Is there any change in its speed? Does it increase or decrease? Next, place your palm in front of the moving ball. Remove your palm as soon as the moving ball touches it. Does your palm apply force on the ball? What happens to the speed of the ball now? Does it increase or decrease? What would happen if you let your palm hold the moving ball?
chapter 7 force and pressure 1
Answer: When we push the ball along the level surface, the ball begins to move. When we push the ball again while it is still moving, increases its speed. When we place our palm in front of the moving ball, decreases its speed. Hence, the force can change the state of motion.

Question 4. Take a ball and place it on a level surface as you did Make the ball move by giving it a push. Now place the ruler from your geometry box in its path In doing so, you would apply a force on the moving ball. Does the ball continue to move in the same direction after it strikes the ruler? Repeat the activity and try to obstruct the moving ball by placing the ruler such that it makes different angles to its path. In each case note your observations about the direction of motion of the ball after it strikes the ruler.
Answer: The ball changes direction after it strikes the ruler. Thus, a force can change the direction of motion of a moving object.

chapter 7 force and pressure 2 chapter 7 force and pressure 3

  • A ball is set in motion by pushing it along a level surface and
  • The direction of motion of the ball after it strikes the ruler placed in its path

Question 5. Some situations have been given in Column in which objects are not free to move. Column 2 of the Table suggests the manner in which a force can be applied to each object while Column 3 shows the action. Try to observe the effect of the force in as many situations as possible. You can also add similar situations using available material from your environment. Note your observations in Columns 4 and 5.
force and pressure studying the effect of force on object
Answer: From the above actions, we can conclude that force can change the shape of an object.

Question 6. Take a pair of bar magnets. Place the longer side of one of the magnets over three round-shaped pencils or wooden rollers as shown in Fig. 11.4. Now bring one end of the other magnet near the end of the magnet placed on the rollers. Make sure that the two magnets do not touch each other. Observe what happens. Next, bring the other end of the magnet near the same end of the magnet placed on the rollers Note what happens to the magnet placed on the rollers every time another magnet is brought near it.
chapter 7 force and pressure 4
Answer: When unlike poles of the magnet are brought near the other magnet, they attract each other and move in the direction of another magnet. When like poles of a magnet are brought near to the other magnet, they repel each other and move in the direction away from the other magnet. Thus, the force exerted by a magnet on another magnet is a type of non-contact force.

Question 7. Take a plastic straw and cut it into nearly two equal pieces. Suspend one of the pieces from the edge of a table with the help of a piece of thread Now hold the other piece of straw in your hand and rub its free end with a sheet of paper. Bring the rubbed end of the straw near the suspended straw. Make sure that the two pieces do not touch each other. What do you observe? Next, rub the free end of the suspended piece of straw with a sheet of paper. Again, bring the piece of straw that was rubbed
earlier with paper near the free end of the suspended straw. What do you observe now?
Picture
Answer: A straw rubbed with paper attracts another straw but repels it if it has also been rubbed with a sheet of paper. The force exerted by a charged body on another charged or uncharged body is known as electrostatic force.
chapter 7 force and pressure 5Question 8. Take a transparent glass tube or a plastic pipe. The length of the pipe/tube should be about 15 cm and its diameter should be 5-7.5 cm. Also, take a piece of a thin sheet of good quality rubber, say, a rubber balloon. Stretch the rubber sheet tightly over one end of the pipe. Hold the pipe in the middle, keeping it in a vertical position. Ask one of your friends to pour some water into the pipe. Does the rubber sheet bulge out? Note also the height of the water column in the pipe. Pour some more water. Observe again the bulge in the rubber sheet and the height of the water column in the pipe. Repeat this process a few more times. Can you see any relation between the amount of the bulge in the rubber sheet and the height of the water column in the pipe?
chapter 7 force and pressure 6Answer: The amount of bulge in the rubber sheet increases with the height of the water column in the pipe. Thus, the pressure exerted by water at the bottom of the container depends upon the height of its column.

Question 9. Take a plastic bottle. You can take a discarded water or soft drink bottle. Fix a cylindrical glass tube, a few cm long near its bottom You can do so by slightly heating one end of the glass tube and then quickly inserting it near the bottom of the bottle. Make sure that the
water does not leak from the joint. If there is any leakage, seal it with molten wax. Cover the mouth of the glass tube with a thin rubber sheet as you did it. Now fill the bottle up to half with water. What do you observe? Why does the rubber sheet fixed to the glass tube bulge this time? Pour
some more water into the bottle. Is there any change in the bulge’ of the rubber sheet?chapter 7 force and pressure 7 Answer: Yes, the rubber tube bulge out, and the bulging increases with the amount of water in the bottle. Thus, liquid exerts pressure on the walls of the container.

Question 10. Take an empty plastic bottle or a cylindrical container. You can take a used tin of talcum powder or a plastic bottle. Drill four holes all around near the bottom of the bottle. Make sure that the holes are at the same height from the bottom Now fill the bottle with water. What do you observe? Do the different streams of water coming out of the holes to fall at the same distance from the bottle? What does this indicate?
chapter 7 force and pressure 8Answer: We observed different streams of a waterfall at the same distance from the bottle. Thus, it indicates that liquids exert equal pressure at the same depth.

Question 11. Take a good quality rubber sucker. It looks like a small rubber cup Press it hard on a smooth plane surface. Does it stick to the surface? Now try to pull it off the surface. Can you do it?

chapter 7 force and pressure 9Answer: When we press the sucker, most of the air between its cup and the surface escapes. The sucker sticks to the surface because the pressure of the atmosphere acts on it. To pull the sucker off the surface, the applied force should be large enough to overcome the atmospheric pressure. Thus, this activity gives us an idea about the magnitude of atmospheric
pressure.

KSEEB Class 8 Force And Pressure Textbook Solutions 

Force And Pressure Additional Questions

Question 1. A ball of dough is rolled into a flat chapatti.
Name the force exerted to change the shape of the dough.
Answer: Muscular force

Question 2. Where do we apply a force while walking?
Answer: While walking we apply force on the ground.

Question 3. What is the name of the instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure?
Answer: Barometer

Question 4. Give two examples of contact force.
Answer: Muscular force, the force of friction.

Question 5. What kind of force is an electrostatic force?
Answer: Non-contact force

Question 6. What do you mean by magnitude?
Answer: The strength of a force is usually expressed by its magnitude.

Question 7. How do fluids exert pressure?
Answer: Fluids exert pressure in all directions. Fluids also exert pressure on the walls of the container that hold them.

Question 8. A force of 100 N is applied on an area of 4m2 Compute pressure is applied on the area.
Answer: Given: Force = 100 N, Area = 4n2
Pressure = Force /Area =100/4 = 25pa.

Question 9. What is the similarity between electrostatic and magnetic forces?
Answer:

Both are non-contact forces.

Both are attractive as well as repulsive forces.

Question 10. What are the effects of force on an object?
Answer:

Force can change the state of motion of an object.

Force changes the speed of a moving object.

Force can cause an object to turn or change direction.

Force can change the shape of an object.

Question 11. State the difference between contact force and non-contact force.
Answer:
Contact force

The force that can be applied only when it is in contact with an object is called a contact force. Examples: muscular force, and frictional force.

Non-contact force

The force exerted on an object without touching it is known as non-contact force. Examples: gravitational force, and magnetic force.

Question 12. Why it is easier to walk on soft sand if we have flat shoes rather than shoes with sharp heels (or pencil heels)?
Answer: A flat shoe has a greater area in contact with the soft sand and exerts less pressure on the soft ground. Due to this, the flat’ shoes do not sink much in soft sand and it is easy to walk on them. On the other hand, a sharp heel has a small area in contact with the soft sand and exerts greater pressure on the sand. Due to this, the sharp heels sink deep into soft sand making it difficult for the wearer to walk on them.

Force And Pressure Class 8 KSEEB Exercise Solutions 

Force And Pressure Activity

Question 1. Take a tumbler and fill it with water. Cover the mouth of the tumbler with a thick card similar to that of a postcard. Hold the tumbler with one hand while keeping the card pressed to its mouth with your other hand. Turn the tumbler upside down while keeping the card pressed tots mouth. Make sure that the tumbler is held vertically. Gently remove the hand pressing the card. What do you observe? Does the card get detached allowing the water to spill? With a little practice, you will find that the card continues to hold water in the tumbler even after it is not supported by your hand. Also, try this activity by using a piece of cloth to hold the tumbler in an upside-down position.
Answer:chapter 7 force and pressure 18 Question 2. Make a 50cm x 50cm bed of dry sand about 10cm in thickness. Make sure that its top surface is leveled. Take a wooden or a plastic stool. Cut two strips of graph paper each with a width of 1 cm. Paste them vertically on any leg of the stool—one at the bottom and the other from the top. Now gently put the stool on the sand bed with its legs resting on the sand. Increase the size of the sand bed if required. Now put a load, say a school bag full of books, on the seat of the stool. Mark the level of sand on the graph strip. This would give you the depth, if any, to which the legs of the stool sink in the sand. Next, turn the stool upside down so that now it rests on its seat on the sand bed. Note the depth to which the stool sinks now. Next, put the same load on the stool and note the depth to which it sinks in the sand. Compare the pressure exerted by the stool in the two situations.
Answer: Pressure exerted by the stool is greatest in the first situation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Two boys A and B are shown applying force on a block. If the block moves toward the right, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. The magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.
2. The magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.
3. The net force on the block is towards A.
4. The magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.
Picture
Answer: 1. Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.
Explanation: The magnitude of force applied by 1 is bigger than that of B as a result of the block moves towards the right i.e. towards 2.

Question 2. When the circuit is completed, the hammer strikes the gong. Which of the following force is responsible for the movement of the hammer?
1. Gravitational force alone
2. Electrostatic force alone
3. Magnetic force alone
4. Frictional force alone

Answer: 3. Magnetic force alone
Explanation: As electric current flows through the coil it behaves like an electromagnet which creates magnetic force. Hence the answer is magnetic force alone.

Question 3. During dry weather, while combing hair, sometimes we experience hair flying apart. The force responsible for this is
1. Force of gravity.
2. Electrostatic force.
3. The force of friction.
4. Magnetic force.friction magnetic force alone
Answer: 2. Electrostatic force.
Explanation: On combing the hair, the comb and hair get oppositely charged due to electrostatic force.

Question 4. A container filled with water. Which of the following statements is correct about the pressure of water?
 force and pressure pressure of water1. The pressure at A> Pressure at B > Pressure at C.
2. The pressure at A= Pressure at B = Pressure at C.
3. The pressure at A< Pressure at B > Pressure at C.
4. The pressure at A< Pressure at B.
Answer: 4. The Pressure at A< Pressure at B
Explanation: An increase in water leads to an increase in depth.

Question 5. Two objects repel each other. This repulsion could be due to
1. Frictional force only
2. Electrostatic force only
3. Magnetic force only
4. Either a magnetic or an electrostatic force
Answer: 4. Either a magnetic or an electrostatic force
Explanation: when two objects are experiencing repulsive force because there may be an electrostatic force or a magnetic force.

Important Questions For KSEEB Class 8 Force And Pressure 

Question 6. Which one of the following forces is a contact force?
1. Force of gravity
2. Force of friction
3. Magnetic force
4. Electrostatic force
Answer: 2. Force of friction
Explanation: Force of attraction acts only when the bodies are in contact.

Question 7. A water tank has four taps fixed at points A, B, C, and D in Fig. The water will flow out at the same pressure from the taps at
1. B and C
2. A and B
3. C and D
4. A and C
force and pressure a water tank has four tapsAnswer: 1. B and C
Explanation: B and C are at the same level, hence pressure will be the same at B and C.

Question 8. A girl is pushing a box in the east direction. In which direction should her friend push the box so that it moves faster in the same direction?
Answer: Towards the east.

Question 9. In the circuit, when the key is closed, the compass needle placed in the matchbox deflects. Name the force which causes this deflection.
force and pressure magnetic forceAnswer: Magnetic force.

Question 10. During dry weather, clothes made of synthetic fiber often stick to the skin. Which type of force is responsible for this phenomenon?
Answer: Electrostatic force

Question 11. While sieving grains, small pieces fall down. Which force pulls them down?
Answer: Force of gravity.

Question 12. Does the force of gravity act on dust particles?
Answer: Yes, the force of gravity act on dust particles.

Question 13. A gas-filled balloon moves up. Is the upward force acting on it larger or smaller than the force of gravity?
Answer: The upward force is larger than the force of gravity.

Question 14. Does the force of gravitation exist between two astronauts in space?
Answer: Yes, the force of gravitation exists between two astronauts in space.

Question 15. A chapati maker is a machine that converts balls of dough into chapati. What effect of force comes into play in this process?
Answer: Force works on the dough to convert it to chapati.

Question 16. Shows a man with a parachute. Name the force which is responsible for his downward motion. Will he come down at the same speed without the parachute?
Answer: Force of gravity is responsible for his downward motion. If he comes down without a parachute his speed will be higher.

Question 17. Two persons are applying forces on two opposite sides of a moving cart. The cart still moves at the same speed in the same direction. What do you infer about the magnitudes and direction of the forces applied?
Answer: Force applied is of equal magnitude in the opposite direction hence the cart moves with the same speed in the same direction.

Question 18. Two thermocouple balls held close to each other move away from each other. When they are released, name the force which might be responsible for this phenomenon. Explain.
Answer: Two Thermocol balls held close to each other move away from each other, which is because of electrostatic force. The balls having similar charges move away due to repulsion between similar charges.

Question 19. Fruits detached from a tree fall down due to the force of gravity. We know that a force arises due to the interaction between two objects. Name the objects interacting in this case.
Answer: Earth and fruits.

Question 20. Aman is pushing a cart down a slope. Suddenly the cart starts moving faster and he wants to slow it down. What should he do?
Answer: He should apply force to pull the cart up the slope.

Question 21. Shows a car sticking to an electromagnet. Name the forces acting on the car. Which one of them is larger?

chapter 7 force and pressure 16Answer:

Magnetic force (in the upward direction) force of gravity or the weight of the car (downward) act once.

Magnetic force is larger than the force of gravity.

Force and pressure

Karnataka State Board Syllabus for Class 8 Textbooks Solutions

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 5 Laws Of Motion

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 5 Motion Very Short Type Questions And Answers

Question 1. Why are spokes provided in a bicycle wheel?
Answer:

The spokes of the cycle wheel increase its moment of inertia. The greater the moment of inertia, the greater the opposition to any change in uniform rotational motion.

As a result, the cycle runs smoother and steadier. If the cycle wheel had no spokes, the cycle would be driven with jerks and hence unsafe.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions

Question 2. What is inertia? What gives the measure of inertia?
Answer:

The inability of a body to change its state by itself is known as inertia. The mass of a body is a measure of its Inertia.

Types Of Inertia

  1. Inertia of rest
  2. Inertia of motion
  3. Inertia of direction.

Question 3. According to Newton’s third law, every force is accompanied by an equal and opposite force. How can a movement ever take place?
Answer:

From Newton’s third law action = -reaction. But action and reaction are not working on the same system. So they will not cancel each other. Hence, motion is possible.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 5 Laws Of Motion

Question 4. When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun gives a kick in the backward direction. Explain.
Answer:

The firing of a gun is due to Internal form. Terminal forces do not change The momentum of the system. Before firing m1u1 + m2u2 = 0.

Since the system is at rest after firing m1v1 + m2v2 = 0(or) m1v1 = – m2v2. So gun and bullet will move in opposite directions to satisfy the law of conservation of linear momentum.

Question 5. Why does a heavy rifle not recoil as strongly as a light rifle using the same cartridges?
Answer:

Velocity (or) recoil \(v=\frac{m v}{M}\) i.e., the ratio of momentum of the bullet to the mass of the gun. If the mass of the gun is high then the velocity of the recoil is less with the same cartridge.

KSEEB Physics Class 11 Laws Of Motion Notes

Question 6. If a bomb at rest explodes into two pieces, the pieces must travel in opposite directions. Explain.
Answer:

Explosion is due to internal forces. From the law of conservation of linear momentum, internal forces cannot change the momentum of the system. So after explosion m1v1 + m2v2 = 0 or m1v1 = – m2v2. According to the law of conservation of linear momentum, they will fly in opposite directions.

Question 7. Define force. What are the basic forces in nature? Answer:

Force is that which changes (or) tries to change the state of a body.

The Basic Forces In Nature Are:

  1. Gravitational forces,
  2. Electromagnetic forces,
  3. Nuclear forces.

Question 8. Can the coefficient of friction be greater than one?
Answer:

Yes. Generally coefficient of friction between the surfaces is always less than one. But under some special conditions like on extremely rough surfaces coefficient of friction may be greater than one.

Question 9. Why does the car with a flat tire stop sooner than the one with inflated tires?
Answer:

Due to the flatting of tires, the frictional force increases. Because rolling frictional force between the surfaces Is proportional to the area of contact. Area of contact Increases for flattened tires. So rolling frictional force Increases and the car will be stopped quickly.

Question 10. A horse has to pull harder during the start of the motion than later. Explain.
Answer:

To start motion in a body we must apply force to overcome static friction(Fs = μsmg). When once motion is started between the bodies then kinetic frictional force comes into act.

Kinetic friction (Fk = μkmg) is always less than static friction. So it is tougher to start a body from rest than to keep it in. motion.

Laws Of Motion Question And Answers In KSEEB Physics

Question 11. What happens to the coefficient of friction if the weight of the body is doubled?
Answer:

When the weight of the body is doubled still then there is no change in coefficient of friction. Because frictional force oc normal reaction.

So when the weight of a body is doubled then frictional force and normal reaction will also become doubled and the coefficient of friction remains constant.

Laws Of Motion Solutions KSEEB Class 11 Physics Short Type Questions And Answers

Question 1. A stone of mass 0.1 kg is thrown vertically upwards. Give the magnitude and direction of the net force on the stone

  1. During its upward motion,
  2. During its downward motion,
  3. At the highest point, where it momentarily comes to rest.

Answer:

Mass of stone, m = 0. 1 kg.

1. During upward motion force acts downwards due to acceleration due to gravity.

Magnitude of force F = mg = 0.1 x 9.8 = 0.98 N(↓)

During downward motion force acts downward.

Magnitude of force F = mg = 0.1 x 9.8 = 0.98N(↓)

3. At the highest point velocity v = 0. Hut still g will act on it only In downward motion so resultant forceF = 0.98 N. downward.

Note: In the entire Journey of the body force due to gravitational pull acts only In a downward direction.

4. If the body is thrown with an angle of 30° with the horizontal then the vertical component of gravitational force does not change, hence in this case downward force F = mg = 0.1 x 9.8 = 0. 98 newton.

Question 2. Define the terms momentum and impulse. , State and explain the law of conservation of linear momentum. Give examples.
Answer:

Momentum \((\overline{\mathbf{p}})\): It is the product of mass and velocity of a body.

Momentum \((\overline{\mathbf{p}})\) = mass(m) x velocity(v)

∴ \((\overline{\mathbf{p}})\) = m \((\overline{\mathbf{v}})\)

Impulse (J): When a large force(F) acts on a body for a small time(t) then the product of force and time is called Impulse.

Impulse(J) = Force(F) x time(t)

∴ Impulse(J) = F x t

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Laws of Motion 

Law Of Conservation Of Linear Momentum: There is no external force acting on the system. The total linear momentum of the isolated system remains constant.

Proof: Let two bodies of masses say A and B are moving with initial momenta PA and PB collided with each other.

During collision they are in contact for a small time say Δt. During this time of contact, they will exchange their momenta. Let the final momenta of the bodies be PA1 and PB1. Let force applied by A on B is FAB and force applied by B on A is FBA.

From Newton’s 3rd Law FAB = FBA or FAB Δt = FBA Δt

From 2nd Law \(F_{A B} \Delta t=P_A^1-P_A\) change in momentum of A.

\(F_{B A} \Delta t=P_{11}^{\prime}-P_B\) change in momentum of B,

\(P_B^l-P_A=P_B^{\prime}-P_B \text { or } P_A+P_B=P_B^l+P_B^1\)

i.e., the sum of momentum before collision Is equal to the sum of momentum after collision.

Question 3. Why are shock absorbers used in motorcycles and cars?
Answer:

  1. When vehicles are passing over the vertices and depressions of a rough road they will collide with them for a very short period. This causes an impulse effect.
  2. Due to the large mass and high speed of the vehicles, the magnitude of impulse is also high. Impulse may cause damage to the car or even to the passengers in it. \(\mathrm{F} \propto \frac{1}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}\)
  3. The bad effects of impulse are less if the time of contact is longer. Impulse J = F.t. For the same magnitude of impulse(change in momentum) if the time of contact is high force acting on the vehicle is less.

Shock absorbers will absorb the impulse and release the same force slowly. This is due to the large time constant of the springs.

So shock absorbers are used in vehicles to reduce impulse effects.

Question 4. Explain the terms limiting friction, dynamic friction, and rolling friction.
Answer:

Limiting Friction: Frictional forces always oppose relative motion between the bodies. These forces are self-adjusting forces. Their magnitude will increase to some extent with the value of applied force.

The maximum frictional force between the bodies at rest is called”limiting friction”.

Dynamic (Or) Kinetic Friction: When the applied force is equal to or greater than limiting friction then the body will move. When once motion is started then frictional force will abruptly fall to a minimum value.

The frictional force between moving bodies Is called dynamic (or) kinetic friction. Kinetic friction Is always less than limiting friction.

Rolling Friction: The resistance encountered by a rolling body on a surface is called rolling friction.

Practice Questions For Laws Of Motion KSEEB Physics

Question 5. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of friction.
Answer:

Advantages Of Friction:

  1. We are able to walk because of friction.
  2. It is impossible for a car to move on a slippery road.
  3. The braking system of vehicles works with the help of friction.
  4. Friction between roads and tires provides the necessary external force to accelerate the car.
  5. Transmission of power to various parts of a machine through belts is possible by friction.

Disadvantages Of Friction:

  1. In many cases, we will try to reduce friction because it dissipates energy into heat.
  2. It causes wear and tear to machine parts which causes frequent replacement of machine parts.

Question 6. Explain Friction. Mention the methods used to decrease friction.
Answer:

Friction: It is a contact force parallel to the surfaces in contact. Friction will always oppose relative motion between the bodies.

Methods To Reduce Friction:

  1. Polishing: Friction is caused due to surface irregularities. So by polishing friction can be reduced to some extent.
  2. Lubricants: By using lubricants friction can be reduced. Lubricants will spread as an ultra-thin layer between the surfaces in contact and friction decreases.
  3. Stream Elining: By making a front portion of vehicles in a curved shape friction due to air can be reduced.
  4. Ball Bearings: Ball bearings are used to reduce friction between machine parts. Ball bearing will convert sliding motion into rolling motion. As a result, friction is reduced.

Question 7. State the laws of rolling friction.
Answer:

When a body is wiling over the other, then friction between the bodies is known as rolling friction.

Rolling friction coefficient, \(\mu_{\mathrm{r}}=\frac{\text { Rolling friction }}{\text { Normal reaction }}=\frac{\mathrm{Fr}}{\mathrm{N} \cdot \mathrm{R}}\)

Laws Of Rolling Friction:

  1. Rolling friction will develop a point of contact between the surface and the rolling sphere. For objects like wheels line of contact will develop.
  2. Rolling friction(fr) has the least value for a given normal reaction when compared with static friction(fs) or kinetic friction (fk).
  3. Rolling friction is directly proportional to F = ma from it. to normal reaction, fr ∝ N.
  4. In rolling friction, the surfaces in contact will get momentarily deformed a little.
  5. Rolling friction depends on the area of contact. Due to this reason, friction increases when air pressure is less in tires (Flattened tires).
  6. Rolling friction is inversely proportional to the radius of the rolling body \(\mu_r \propto \frac{1}{r}\).

Practice Questions For Laws Of Motion KSEEB Physics

Question 8. Why is pulling the lawn roller preferred to pushing it?
Answer:

Let a lawn roller be pulled by means of a force F with some angle θ to the horizontal. By resolving the force into two components.

  1. The horizontal component F cos θ is useful. to pull the body.
  2. The vertical component F sin θ opposes the weight

So N.R. = mg – F sin θ

But frictional force μ N.R.

∴ Frictional force [μ(mg- F sin θ)] decreases,

Pulling Easier Than Pushing

So it is easier to pull the body.

When the lawn roller is pushed by a force, the vertical component F sin θ causes the apparent increase in the weight of the object.

So the normal reaction N.R. = mg + F sin θ

∴ Frictional force [μ(mg + F sinθ)] increases and it will be difficult to pull the body.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 5 Laws Of Motion Long Type Questions And Answers

Question 1.

  1. State Newton’s second law of motion. Hence, derive the equation of motion F = ma from it.
  2. A body is moving along a circular path such that its speed always remains constant. Should there be a force acting on the body?

Answer:

1. Newton’s 2nd law: The rate of change of momentum of a body is proportional to external force and acts along the direction of force applied.

i.e., \(\frac{d p}{d t} \propto F\)

Derivation Of Equation F = ma: According to Newton’s 2nd law.

We know \(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dt}} \propto \vec{\mathrm{F}} \Rightarrow \mathrm{F}=\mathrm{k} \cdot \frac{\mathrm{d} \overline{\mathrm{p}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)…..(1)

But  \(\vec{p}\) = momentum of the body = m \(\bar{v}\)

∴ F = \(\mathrm{k} \cdot \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}(\mathrm{m} \overline{\mathrm{v}}) \Rightarrow \mathrm{km} \frac{\mathrm{d} \overline{\mathrm{v}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)……(2)

But \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \overline{\mathrm{v}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = Rate of change in velocity = acceleration ‘a’.

∴ F = ma…… (3)

Here, k = constant.

The proportional constant is made equal to one, by properly selecting the unit of force.

∴ F = ma.

2. Force On A Body Moving In A Circular Path: Let a body of mass ‘m’ be moving in a circular path of radius ‘r’ with constant speed.

The velocity of the body is given by the tangent drawn at that point. Since velocity is changing continuously the body will have acceleration.

So the body will experience some acceleration. This is called normal acceleration (or) centripetal acceleration.

Question 2. Define the Angle of friction and Angle of repose. Show that the angle of friction is equal to the angle of repose for a rough inclined plane.

A block of mass 4 kg is resting on a rough horizontal plane and is about to move when a horizontal force of 30 N is applied to it. If g = 10 m/s². Find the total contact force exerted by the plane on the block.

Answer:

Angle Of Friction: The angle made by the resultant of the Normal reaction and the limiting friction with the Normal reaction is called the angle of friction (ø).

Angle Of Repose: Let a body of mass m is placed on a rough inclined plane. Let the angle with the horizontal ‘θ’ be gradually increased then for a particular angle of inclination (say a) the body will just slide down without acceleration.

This angle θ = α is called the angle of repose. At this stage, the forces acting on the body are in equilibrium

Equation For Angle Of Repose: Force acting on the body in a vertically downward direction = W = mg.

By resolving this force into two components.

  1. Force acting along the inclined plane in a downward direction = mg sinθ.
    • This component is responsible for downward motion.
  2. The component mg cos θ. which is balanced by the normal reaction.

Laws Of Motion Angle Of Friction

If the body slides down without acceleration resultant force on the body is zero, then

mg sin θ = Frictional force (fk)

mg cos θ = Normal reaction (N.R.)

But coefficient friction \(\mu_{\mathrm{k}}=\frac{\mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{k}}}{\mathrm{N} \cdot \mathrm{R}}=\frac{\mathrm{mg} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{mg} \cos \theta}=\tan \theta\)

Hence θ = α is called the angle of repose.

∴ μk = tan α

Hence tangent of the angle of repose (tan θ) is equal to the coefficient of friction (fk) between the bodies.

2. Given m = 4 kg

g = 10 m/s²

Normal reaction N = mg

N = 4 x 10 = 40 N

Horizontal frictional force f = 30 N

Total contact force \(\mathrm{F}=\sqrt{\mathrm{f}^2+\mathrm{N}^2}\)

F = \(\sqrt{30^2+40^2}\)

F = \(\sqrt{900+1600}\)

F = \(\sqrt{2500}\)

∴ F = 50 N

Laws Of Motion Constant Force

Chapter 5 Solutions For Laws Of Motion KSEEB Physics Problems

Question 1. The linear momentum of a particle as a function of time is given by, p = a + bt, where a and b are positive constants. What is the force acting on the particle?
Solution:

Linear momentum of a particle, p = a + bt

We know that force acting on a particle is equal to the rate of change of linear momentum.

i.e., \(\vec{F}=\frac{d p}{d t} \Rightarrow \vec{F}=\frac{d}{d t}(a+b t)\)

⇒ \(\vec{F}=\frac{d}{d t}(b t)=b \frac{d}{d t}=b \times 1=b\)

Question 2. Calculate the time needed for a net force of 5 N to change the velocity of a 10 kg mass by 2 m/s.
Solution:

Force, F = 5N

Change in velocity, v – u = 2ms-1

Mass, m = 10 kg

From Newton’s second law of motion,

F = \(m a=m \frac{(v-u)}{t}\)

∴ t = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}(\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u})}{\mathrm{F}}=\frac{10 \times 2}{5}=4 \mathrm{~s}\)

Question 3. A ball of mass ‘m’ is thrown vertically upward from the ground and reaches a height ‘h’ before momentarily coming to rest, If ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity. What is the impulse received by the ball due to gravity force during its flight? (neglect air resistance)
Solution:

Impulse, J = force x time

⇒ J = \(\mathrm{ma} \times \frac{2 \mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{g}}\);

Here, a = g and \(\mathrm{u}=\sqrt{2 \mathrm{gh}}\)

Now \(\mathrm{J}=\mathrm{mg} \times \frac{2 \times \sqrt{2 \mathrm{gh}}}{\mathrm{g}} \Rightarrow \mathrm{J}=2 \mathrm{~m} \sqrt{2 \mathrm{gh}}\)

∴ Impulse \(\mathrm{J}=\sqrt{8 \mathrm{~m}^2 \mathrm{gh}}\)

KSEEB Physics Laws of Motion Questions And Answers

Question 4. A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg changes its speed from 2.0 m s-1 to 3.5 m s-1 in 25 s. The direction of motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude and direction of the force?
Answer:

Mass of the body, m = 3.0 kg

The initial velocity of the body, u = 2.0 ms-1

The final velocity of the body, v = 3.5 ms-1

Time, t = 25 s

From Newton’s second law of motion,

F = \(\mathrm{ma}=\frac{\mathrm{m}(\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u})}{\mathrm{t}}=\frac{3.0(3.5-2.0)}{25}=0.18 \mathrm{~N}\)

∴ Magnitude of force acting on the body, F = 0.18 N. The direction of force acting on the body is along the direction of motion of the body because force is positive.

Question 5. A man in a lift feels an apparent weight W when the lift is moving up with a uniform acceleration of 1/3rd of the acceleration due to gravity. If the same man was in the same lift now moving down with a uniform acceleration that is 1/2 of the acceleration due to gravity, then what is his| apparent weight?
Solution:

Case (1): When Lift Is Moving Upwards:

The apparent weight of the man = W

Acceleration, a = g/3

The apparent weight of the man, when the lift is moving upwards, is,

W = \(\mathrm{m}(\mathrm{a}+\mathrm{g})=\mathrm{m}\left(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{3}+\mathrm{g}\right) \)

= \(\frac{4}{3} \mathrm{mg}=\frac{4}{3} \mathrm{~N}\) (because \(\mathrm{N}=\mathrm{mg}\))

∴ \(\mathrm{N}=\frac{3}{4} \mathrm{~W}\)

Case (2): When the lift is moving downwards: Let W’ be (lie apparent weight of the man Acceleration, a = g/2

The apparent weight of the man when the lift is moving downwards is, W” = m(g – a) = m (g – g/2)

= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mg = \(\frac{N}{2}\) [N = mg]

= \(\frac{1}{2}\)(\(\frac{3}{4}\) W) = \(\frac{3}{8}\) W

Question 6. A container of mass 200 kg rests on the back of an open truck. If the truck accelerates at 1.5 m/s², what is the minimum coefficient of static friction between the container and the bed of the truck required to prevent the container from sliding off the back of the truck?
Solution:

Mass of the container, m = 200 kg

Acceleration of truck, a = 1.5 ms-2

Coefficient of static friction, us = \(\frac{a}{g}\)

= \(\frac{1.5}{9.8}\) = 0.153

Question 7. A bomb initially at rest at a height of 40 m above the ground suddenly explodes into two identical fragments. One of them starts moving vertically downwards with an initial speed of 10 m/s. If acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s², what is the separation between the fragments 2s after the explosion?
Solution:

Case (1): (for a downward-moving fragment)

Initial velocity, u = 10 ms-1

Acceleration, a = +g = 10 ms-1

Time, t = 2s

From the equation of motion, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² the distance moved in downward direction is,

s1 = 10 x 2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 10 x (2)² = 40

Case (2) (For Upward Moving Fragment) Given that two fragments are identical hence, after explosion, the fragments move in opposite directions.

Here the first fragment moves in a downward direction, hence, the second fragment moves upward direction.

Again from s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² we can write,

s2 = – 10 x 2+ \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 10 x 4 =-20 + 20 = 0 m

Separation between the fragments 2s after the explosion = s1 – s2 = 40 – 0 = 40m

Question 8. A fixed pulley with a smooth grove has a light string passing over it with a 4 kg attached on one side and a 3 kg on the other side. Another 3 kg is hung from the other 3 kg as shown with another light string. If the system is released horn rest, find the common acceleration. (g = 10 m/s²)

Laws Of Motion Fixed Pulley With A Smooth Grove

Solution:

Here, m1 = 3 + 3 = 6 kg; m2 = 4 kg; g = 10 ms-2

Acceleration of the system, \(a=\left(\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right) g \Rightarrow a=\left(\frac{6-4}{6+4}\right) \times 10=2 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}\)

Question 9. A block of mass of 2 kg slides on an inclined plane that makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is √3/2

  1. What force should be applied to the block so that it moves down without any acceleration?
  2. What force should be applied to the block so that it moves up without any acceleration?

Solution:

Mass of the block, m = 2kg

The angle of Inclination, θ = 30°

Coefficient of friction between the block and the surface, \(\mu=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)

1. The required force to move the block down without acceleration is,

Laws Of Motion Force To Move The Block Down

F = \(\mathrm{mg}\left(\sin \theta-\mu_{\mathrm{k}} \cos \theta\right)\)

= \(2 \times 9.8\left(\sin 30^{\circ}-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \times \cos 30^{\circ}\right)\)

= \(2 \times 9.8\left(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \times \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)=4.9 \mathrm{~N}\)

2. The required force to move the block up without any acceleration is,

Laws Of Motion Force To Move The Block Up Without Acceleration

F = \(\mathrm{mg}\left(\sin \theta+\mu_{\mathrm{k}} \cos \theta\right)\)

= \(2 \times 9.8\left(\sin 30^{\circ}+\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \cos 30^{\circ}\right)\)

= \(2 \times 9.8\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \times \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)=24.5 \mathrm{~N}\)

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 5 Laws Of Motion 

Question 10. A block is placed on a ramp of parabolic shape given by the equation y = x²/20, see Figure.

Laws Of Motion Ramp Of Parabolic Shape

If μs = 0.5, what is the maximum height I above the ground at which the block can be placed without slipping? \(\left(\tan \theta=\mu_{\mathrm{s}}=\frac{d y}{d x}\right)\)

Solution:

For the body not to drop

mg cos θ = μ mg sin θ

⇒ tan θ = μ given μ = 0.5
.
But tan θ = \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) slope of parabolic region

⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{dy}}{\mathrm{dx}}=\mu=0.5\)…..(1)

given \(\mathrm{y}=\frac{\mathrm{x}^2}{20}\)

∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{dy}}{\mathrm{dx}}=\frac{2 \mathrm{x}}{20}=\cdot \frac{\mathrm{x}}{10}\)…..(2)

∴ slope \(\frac{\mathrm{y}}{\mathrm{x}}=0.5 \Rightarrow 0.5=\frac{\mathrm{x}}{10} \Rightarrow \mathrm{x}=5\)…..(3)

From eq. (1) and (3) vertical height, y = \(\frac{x^2}{20}=\frac{5 \times 5}{20}=1.25 \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 11. A block of metal of mass 2 kg on a horizo¬ntal table is attached to a mass of 0.45 kg by a light string passing over a frictionless pulley at the edge of the table. The block is subjected to a horizontal force by allowing the 0.45 kg mass to fall. The coefficient of sliding friction between the block and the table is 0.2. Calculate

  1. The initial acceleration,
  2. The tension in the string,
  3. The distance the block would continue to move if, after 2 s of motion, the string should break.

Laws Of Motion Metal Of Mass On A Horizontal Table

Solution:

Mass of the first block, m1 = 0.45 kg

Mass of the second block, m2 = 2kg

coefficient of sliding friction between the block and table, μ = 0.2

1. Initial acceleration, \(a=\left(\frac{m_1-\mu m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right) g\)

⇒ a = \(\left(\frac{0.45-0.2 \times 2}{0.45+2}\right) \times 9.8\)

⇒ a = \(0.2 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}\)

2. Tension in the string

T = \(\frac{\left(\mathrm{m}_1+\mu \mathrm{m}_2\right) g+\left(\mathrm{m}_2-\mathrm{m}_1\right) \mathrm{a}}{2}\)

T = \(\frac{(0.45+0.2 \times 2) 9.8+(2-0.45) 0.2}{2}\)

= \(\frac{(0.85 \times 9.8)+(1.55 \times 0.2)}{2}\)

T = \(\frac{8.33+0.31}{2}=\frac{8.64}{2}=4.32\) Newton

3. Velocity of string after 2 sec=u in this case; \(\mathrm{u}^{\prime}=0\)

∴ \(\mathrm{u}=\mathrm{u}^{\prime}+\mathrm{at}=0+0.2 \times 2=0.4 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Stopping distance, \(\mathrm{s}=\frac{\mathrm{u}^2}{2 \mu \mathrm{g}}\)

= \(\frac{0.4 \times 0.4}{2 \times 0.2 \times 9.8}=\frac{0.4}{9.8}=0.0408 \mathrm{~m}\)

or \(\mathrm{s} \simeq 4.1 \mathrm{~cm}\)

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 5 Laws Of Motion

Question 12. On a smooth horizontal surface a block A of mass 10 kg is kept. On this block, a second block B of mass 5 kg is kept. The coefficient of friction between the two blocks is 0.4. A horizontal force of 30 N is applied on the lower block as shown. The force of friction between the blocks is (take g = 10 m/s²)

Laws Of Motion Smooth Horizontal Surface

Solution:

The mass of block ‘A’ is mA = 10 kg

The mass of block ‘B’ is mB = 5 kg

Applied horizontal force, F = 30 N

Coefficient of friction between two blocks,  μ = 0.4

The frictional force of block ’B’  Is f = μ mg

⇒ f = 0,4 x 5 x 10 = 20N

∴ The frictional force acting between the two blocks, = F – f = 30 – 20 = 10N

Question 13. A batsman hits back a ball straight in the direction of the bowler without changing its initial speed of 12 ms-1. If the mass of the ball is 0.15 kg, determine the impulse imparted to the ball. (Assume linear motion of the ball).
Solution:

Impulse = change in momentum = (0.15 x 12)-(-0.15 x 12) = 3.6 NS .

In the direction from the batsman to the bowler.

Question 14. A force 2\(\bar{i}\) + \(\bar{j}\) — \(\bar{k}\) Newton acts on a body which is initially at rest. At the end of 20 seconds the velocity of the body is 4\(\bar{i}\) + 2\(\bar{j}\) – 2\(\bar{k}\) m/s. What is the mass of the body?
Solution:

Force F = 2\(\bar{i}\) + \(\bar{j}\) – \(\bar{k}\) = 20sec

Initial velocity u0 = 0.

Final velocity U = 4\(\bar{i}\) + 2\(\bar{j}\) – 2\(\bar{k}\)

Mass of the body m = \(\frac{F}{a}\)

But acceleration \(a=\frac{U-U_0}{t}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{m}=\frac{\text { F.t }}{\mathrm{U}-\mathrm{U}_0}=\frac{20 \cdot|\mathrm{F}|}{\left|\mathrm{U}-\mathrm{U}_0\right|}\)

= \(\frac{20 \sqrt{2^2+1+1}}{\sqrt{4^2+2^2+2^2}-0}=\frac{20 \sqrt{6}}{\sqrt{24}}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{m}=\frac{20 \sqrt{6}}{\sqrt{4 \times 6}}=\frac{20 \sqrt{6}}{2 \sqrt{6}}=10 \mathrm{~kg} \text {. }\)

Question 15. A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed of 15 ms-1. How long does the body take to stop?
Solution:

Here, F = – 50N, m = 20 kg

u = 15 ms-1, v = 0, t = ?

From F = \(m a, a=\frac{F}{m}=\frac{-50}{20}=-2.5 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}\)

From \(\mathrm{v}=\mathrm{u}+\mathrm{at} ; 0=15-2.5 \mathrm{t}\)

t = \(\frac{15}{2.5}=6 \mathrm{~s}\)

Question 16. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces 8 N and 6N. Give the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the body.
Solution:

Here, m = 5 kg, \(\vec{a}\) = ?

⇒ \(\vec{F}_1=\overrightarrow{O A}=8 \mathrm{~N} ; \vec{F}_2=\overrightarrow{O B}=6 \mathrm{~N}\)

Resultant force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OC}}=\sqrt{\mathrm{F}_1^2+\mathrm{F}_2^2}\)

= \(\sqrt{8^2+6^2}=10 \mathrm{~N}\)

If \(\angle A O C=\theta, \tan \theta=\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{OA}}=\frac{\mathrm{OB}}{\mathrm{OA}}=\frac{6}{8}=0.75\)

∴ \(\theta=36^{\circ} 52^{\prime}\)

This is the direction of the resultant force and hence the direction of acceleration of the body as shown.

Laws Of Motion Direction Of Resultant Force

Also, \(\mathrm{a}=\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{m}}=\frac{10}{5}=2 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}\)

Laws Of Motion Solutions KSEEB Class 11 Physics

Question 17. The driver of a three-wheeler moving with a speed of 36 km /h sees a child standing in the middle of the road and brings his vehicle to rest in 4.0 seconds just in time to save the child. What is the average retarding force on the vehicle? The mass of the three-wheeler is 400 kg and the mass of the driver is 65 kg.
Solution:

Here, u = 36 km/h = 10 m/s, v = 0, t = 4s

m = 400 + 65 = 465 kg

Retarding force = \(\mathrm{F}=\mathrm{ma}=\frac{\mathrm{m}(\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u})}{\mathrm{t}}\)

= \(\frac{465(0-10)}{4}=-1162.5 \mathrm{~N}\)

Question 18. A rocket with a lift-off mass of 20,000 kg Is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 5.0 ms-2. Calculate the initial thrust (force) of the blast.
Solution:

Here, m = 20000 kg = 2 x 104 kg

Initial acceleration, a = 5 ms-2;

Thrust, F =?

Clearly, the thrust should be such that it overcomes the force of gravity besides giving it an upward acceleration of 5 ms-2.

Thus the force should produce a net acceleration of 9.8 + 5.0 = 14.8 ms-2.

As thrust = force = mass x acceleration

∴ F = 2 X 104 X 14.8 = 2.96 X 105  N

Question 19. A man of mass 70 kg stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving

  1. Upwards with a uniform speed of 10 ms-1,
  2. Downwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms-2,
  3. Upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 m s-2, What would be the readings on the scale in each case?
  4. What would be the reading if the lift mechanism failed and it hurtled down freely under gravity?

Solution:

Here, m = 70 kg, g = 10 m/s²

The weighing machine in each case measures the reaction R i.e., the apparent weight.

1. When the lift moves upwards with a uniform speed, its acceleration is zero.

∴  R = mg = 70 x 10 = 700 N

2. When the lift moves downwards with a = 5 ms-2

∴ R = m(g- a) = 70 (10 – 5) = 350 N

3. When the lift moves upwards with a = 5 ms-2

∴ R = m (g + a) = 70 (10 + 5) = 1050 N

4. If the lift were to come down freely under gravity, downward acceleration. a = g

∴ R = m (g – a) = m (g – g) = Zero.

Question 20. Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 20 kg respectively kept on a smooth, horizontal surface arc tied to the ends of a light string, a horizontal force F = 000 N Is applied to

  1. A,
  2. B along the direction of hiring.

What is the tension In the string in each ease?

Solution:

Here, F = 600 N m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 20 kg

Laws Of Motion Two Bodies Of Mass

Let T be the tension in the string and a be the acceleration of the system, in the direction of force applied.

∴ a = \(\frac{F}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{600}{10+20}=20 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\).

  1. When force is applied on lighter block A, T = m2a = 20 x 20 N = 400 N
  2. When force is applied on heavier block B, T = m1a = 10 x 20 N T = 200 N

Which is different from the value of T in case (1).

Hence our answer depends on which mass end, the force is applied.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 5 Laws Of Motion

Question 21. Two masses 8 kg and 12 kg are connected at the two ends of a light in an extensible string that goes over a frictionless pulley. Find the acceleration of the masses, and the tension in the string when the masses are released.

Laws Of Motion Two Masses Are Released

Solution:

Here, m2 = 8 kg, ; m1 = 12kg

As a = \(\frac{\left(m_1-m_2\right) g}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{(12-8) 9.8}{12+8}=\frac{39.2}{20}\) = \(1.96 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}\)

Again, \(T=\frac{2 m_1 m_2 g}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{2 \times 12 \times 8 \times 9.8}{(12+8)}\)

= 94.1 N

Question 22. A nucleus is at rest In the laboratory frame of reference. Show that If It disintegrates Into two smaller nuclei the products must move in opposite directions.
Solution:

Let m1, m2 be the masses of products and \(\overrightarrow{v_1}, \overrightarrow{v_2}\) be their respective velocities. Therfore, total linear momentum after disinte-gration = \(m_1 \overrightarrow{v_1}+m_2 \overrightarrow{v_2}\).

Before disintegration, the nucleus is at rest. Therefore, its linear momentum before disintegration is zero.

According to the principle of conservation of linear momentum, \(m_1 \overline{v_1}+m_2 \overline{v_2}=0 \text { or } \overline{v_2}=\frac{-m_1 \overline{v_1}}{m_2}\)

Negative sign shows that \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}_1} \text { and } \overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}_2}\) are in opposite directions.

Question 23. Two billiard balls each of mass 0.05 kg moving in opposite directions with a speed of 6 ms-1 collide and rebound with the same speed. What is the impulse imparted to each ball due to the other?
Solution:

Here, initial momentum of the ball A = 0.05 (6) = 0.3 kg ms-1

As the speed is reversed on collision, the final momentum of the ball A = 0.05 (-6) = – 0.3 kg ms-1

Impulse imparted to ball A = change in momentum of ball A = final momentum – initial momentum = – 0.3 – 0.3 = – 0.6 kg ms-1.

Question 24. A shell of mass 0.02 kg is fired by a gun of mass 100 kg. If the muzzle speed of the shell is 80 ms-1, what is the recoil speed of the gun?
Solution:

Here, the mass of the shell, m = 0.02 kg.

mass of gun, M = 100 kg

muzzle speed of shell, V = 80 ms-1

recoil speed of gun, v =?

According to the principle of conservation of linear momentum, mV + Mν = 0

or, \(\mathrm{v}=-\frac{\mathrm{mV}}{\mathrm{M}}=\frac{-0.02 \times 80}{100}=0.016 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

Solutions For Laws of Motion KSEEB Physics Chapter 5 

Question 25. A slone of mass 0.25 kg tied to the end of a string is whirled round in a circle of radius 1.5 ni with a speed of 40 rev./min in a horizontal plane. What is the tension in the string? What is the maximum speed with which the stone can be whirled around if the string can withstand a maximum tension of 200 N?
Solution:

Here, m = 0.25 kg, r = 1.5 m;

n = \(40 \mathrm{rpm}=\frac{40}{60} \mathrm{rps}=\frac{2}{3} \mathrm{rps}, \mathrm{T}=?\)

T = \(\mathrm{mr} \omega^2=\mathrm{mr}(2 \pi \mathrm{n})^2=4 \pi^2 \mathrm{mr} \mathrm{r}^2\)

T = \(4 \times \frac{22}{7} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 0.25 \times 1.5 \times\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^2=6.6 \mathrm{~N}\)

If \(\mathrm{T}_{\max }=200 \mathrm{~N}\), then from \(\mathrm{T}_{\max }=\frac{\mathrm{mv}_{\max }^2}{\mathrm{r}}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{v}_{\max }^2=\frac{\mathrm{T}_{\max } \times \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{m}}=\frac{200 \times 1.5}{0.25}=1200\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{v}_{\max }=\sqrt{1200}=34.6 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Question 26. Explain why

  1. A horse cannot pull a cart and run in empty space,
  2. Passengers are thrown forward from their seats when a speeding bus stops suddenly,
  3. It is easier to pull a lawn mover than to push it,
  4. A cricketer moves his hands backward while holding a catch.

Solution:

  1. While trying to pull a cart, a horse pushes the ground backward with a certain force at an angle. The ground offers an equal reaction in the opposite direction, on the feel of the horse. The forward component of this reaction is responsible for the motion of the cart. In empty space, there Is no reaction, and hence, a horse cannot pull the cart and run.
  2. This is due to the “inertia of motion”. When the speeding bus stops suddenly, the lower part of the body in contact with the seats stops. The upper part of the bodies of the passengers tends to maintain a uniform motion. Hence, the passengers are thrown forward.
  3. While pulling a lawn mover, force is applied upwards along the handle. The vertical component of this force is upwards and reduces the effective weight of the mover. While pushing a lawn mover, force is applied downwards along the handle. The vertical component of this force is downwards and increases the effective weight of the mover. As the effective weight is lesser in the case of pulling than in the case of pushing, therefore, “pulling is easier than pushing”.
  4. While holding a catch, the impulse received by the hands, F x t = change in linear momentum of the ball is constant. By moving his hands backward, the cricketer increases the time of impact (t) to complete the catch. As t increases, F decreases and as a reaction, his hands are not hurt severely.

Laws Of Motion Two Bodies Of Masses

Question 27. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed of 15 m s-1 pushes out of a tube of cross-sectional area 10-2 m2, and hits a vertical wall nearby. What is the force exerted on the wall by the impact of water, assuming it does not rebound?
Solution:

Here, v = 15 ms-1

Area of cross-section, a = 10-2 m2

The volume of water pushing out/sec = a x v = 10-2 x 15 m3 s-1

As the density of water is 103 kg/m3, therefore, mass of water strikes the wall per sec.

m = (15 x 10-2) x 103 = 150 kg/s.

As \(\mathrm{F}=\frac{\text { change in linear momentum }}{\text { time }}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{F}=\frac{\mathrm{m} \times \mathrm{v}}{\mathrm{t}}=\frac{150 \times 15}{1}=2250 \mathrm{~N}\)

KSEEB Physics Class 11 Laws Of Motion Notes

Question 28. Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass of m. Give the magnitude and direction of

  1. The force on the 7th coin (counted from the bottom) due to all the coins on its top,
  2. The force on the 7th coin by the eighth coin,
  3. The reaction of the 6th coin on the 7th coin.

Solution:

1. The force on the 7th coin is due to the weight of the three coins lying above it. Therefore, F = (3 m) kgf = (3 mg) N

where g is the acceleration due to gravity. This force acts vertically downwards.

2. The eighth coin is already under the weight of two coins above it and it has its own weight too. Hence force on 7th coin due to 8th coin is sum of the two forces i.e. F = 2 m + m = (3 m) kgf = (3 mg) N

The force acts vertically downwards.

3. The sixth coin is under the weight of four coins above it.

Reaction, r = -F = -4 m (kgf) =- (4 mg) N

The Minus sign indicates that the reaction acts vertically upwards, opposite to the weight.

Question 29. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop at a speed of 720 km/h with its wings banked at 15°. What is the radius of the loop?
Solution:

Here θ = 15°

v \(=720 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}=\frac{720 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}=200 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\);

g = \(9.8 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2} \text {; from } \tan \theta=\frac{\mathrm{v}^2}{\mathrm{rg}} \)

⇒ \(\mathrm{v}^2=\mathrm{rg} \tan \theta\)

∴ r \(=\frac{\mathrm{v}^2}{\mathrm{~g} \tan \theta}=\frac{(200)^2}{9.8 \times \tan 15^{\circ}}\)

= \(15232. \mathrm{m}=15.232 \mathrm{k} \cdot \mathrm{m} \text {. }\)

Question 30. A train runs along an unbanked circular track of radius 30 m at a speed of 54 km/h The mass of the train is 106 kg. What provides the centripetal force required for, this purpose-The engine or the rails? What is the angle of banking required to prevent wearing out of the rail?
Solution:

The centripetal force is provided by the lateral thrust exerted by the rails on the wheels. By Newton’s 3rd law, the train exerts an equal and opposite thrust on the rails causing its wear and tear.

Obviously, the outer rail will wear out faster due to the larger force exerted by the train on it.

Here, \(v=54 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}=\frac{54 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}=15 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\);

g = \(9.8 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}\)

As \(\tan \theta=\frac{\mathrm{v}^2}{\mathrm{rg}}=\frac{15 \times 15}{30 \times 9.8}=0.76 ;\)

∴ \(\theta=\tan ^{-1} 0.76=37.4^{\circ}\)

Question 31. A block of mass 25 kg Is raised by a 50 kg man in two different ways as shown. What Is the action on the floor by the man in the two cases? If the floor yields to a normal force of 700 N, which mode should the man adopt to lift the block without the floor yielding?

Laws Of Motion Lift The Block With Out Floor Yielding

Solution:

Here, the mass of the block, m = 25 kg

Mass of man, M = 50 kg

Force applied to lift the block

F = mg = 25 x 9.8 = 245 N

Weight of man W = Mg = 50 x 9.8 = 490 N

1. When a block is raised by the man as shown, force is applied by the man in the upward direction. This increases the apparent weight of the man. Hence action on the floor.

W’ = W + F = 490 + 245 = 735 N

When a block is raised by a man as shown, force is applied by the man in the downward direction. This decreases the apparent weight of the man. Hence, action on the floor in this case would be W’ = W – F = 490 – 245 = 245 N.

As the floor yields to a normal force of 700 N, mode (2) has to be adopted by the man to lift the block.

Question 32. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope that can stand a maximum tension of 600 N. In which of the following cases will the rope break the monkey

Laws Of Motion A Money Climbs On A Rope

  1. Climbs up with an acceleration of 6 ms-2
  2. Climbs down with an acceleration of 4 ms-2
  3. Climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 ms-1
  4. Fell down the rope nearly freely under gravity?

(Ignore the mass of the rope).

Solution:

Here, the mass of the monkey, m = 40 kg.

Maximum tension the rope can stand, T = 600 N.

In each case, the actual tension in the rope will be equal to the apparent weight of the monkey (R),

The rope will break when R exceeds T.

1. When monkey climbs up with a = 6 ms-2, R = m (g + a) = 40 (10 + 6) = 640 N (which is greater than T).

Hence the rope will break.

2. When the monkey climbs down with a = 4 ms-2

R = m (g – a) = 40 (10 – 4) = 240 N, which is less than T

∴ The rope will not break.

3. When the monkey climbs up with a uniform speed v = 5 ms-1,

its acceleration a = 0

R = mg = 40 x 10 = 400 N, which is less than T

∴ The rope will not break.

4. When the monkey falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity, a = g

R = m (g – a) = m (g – g) = 0 (Zero.)

Hence the rope will not break.

Question 33. A 70 kg man stands In contact against the Inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 3 m rotating about its vertical avis with 200 rev/mln. The coefficient of friction between the wall and his clothing is 0.15. What is the minimum rotational speed of the cylinder to enable the man to remain stuck to the wall (without falling) when the floor is suddenly removed?
Solution:

Here, m = 70 kg, r = 3 m

n = 200, rpm = \(\frac{200}{60}\) rps, μ = 0.15, ω= ?

The horizontal force N by the wall on the man provides the necessary centripetal force = m r ω². The frictional force (f) in this case is vertically upwards opposing the weight (mg) of the man.

After the floor is removed, the man will remain stuck to the wall, when mg = f < μ N, i.e. mg < μ m r ω² or g < μ r ω²

∴ The minimum angular speed of rotation of the cylinder is \(\omega=\sqrt{\frac{g}{\mu r}}=\sqrt{\frac{10}{0.15 \times 3}}\)

= \(4.7 \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}\)

Question 34. A thin circular loop of radius R rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ω. Show that a small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for \(\omega \leq \sqrt{g / R},\). What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the center to the bead with the vertically downward direction form = \(\omega \leq \sqrt{2g / R},\) Neglect friction?
Solution:

In Figure, we have shown that the radius vector joining the bead to the center of the wire makes an angle 0 with the verticle downward direction. If N is a normal reaction, then as is clear from the figure,

⇒ \(\mathrm{mg}=\mathrm{N} \cos \theta\)….(1)

⇒ \(\mathrm{mr} \omega^2=\mathrm{N} \sin \theta\)…..(2)

or \(\mathrm{m}(\mathrm{R} \sin \theta) \omega^2=\mathrm{N} \sin \theta \text { or } \mathrm{m} \mathrm{R}^2=\mathrm{N}\)

from (1), \(\mathrm{mg}=\mathrm{m} R \omega^2 \cos \theta\)

or \(\cos \theta=\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{R \omega}^2}\) …..(3)

Laws Of Motion A Thin Circular Loop

As |cos θ| ≤ 1, therefore, the bead will remain at its

lowermost point for \(\frac{g}{R \omega^2} \leq 1 \text {, or } \omega \leq \sqrt{\frac{g}{R}}\)

When \(\omega=\sqrt{\frac{2 g}{R}}\) from (3), \(\cos\theta=\frac{g}{R}\left(\frac{R}{2 g}\right)=\frac{1}{2}\)

∴ \(\theta=60^{\circ}\)

 

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 4 Motion In A Plane

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Write the equation for the horizontal – range covered by a projectile and specify
when it will be maximum.
Answer:

Range of a projectile (R) = \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}\)

When θ = 45° Range is maximum. (sin 90° = 1)

Maximum Range (Rmax) = \(\frac{u^2}{g}\)

Read and Learn More KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions

Question 2. The vertical component of a vector is equal to its horizontal component. What is the angle made by the vector with the X-axis?
Answer:

Let R be a vector.

Vertical component = R sin θ;

Horizontal component = R cos θ

∴ R sin θ = R cos θ

So sin θ = cos θ ⇒ θ = 45°

Question 3. A vector V makes an angle θ with the horizontal. The vector is rotated through an angle α. Does this rotation change the vector V?
Answer:

Magnitude of vector = V ;

Let the initial angle with horizontal = θ

Angle rotated = α

So new angle with horizontal = θ + α

Now horizontal component, Vα = V cos (θ + α)

Vertical component, Vy = V sin (θ + α)

Magnitude of vector, V = \(\sqrt{V_x^2+V_y^2}=V\)

So rotating the vector does not change its magnitude.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 4 Motion In A Plane

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Motion In A Plane

Question 4. Two forces of magnitude 3 units and 5 units act at 60 with each other, What is the magnitude of their resultant?
Answer:

Given \(\bar{P}\) = 3 units, \(\bar{Q}\) = 5 units and θ = 60°

∴ R = \(\sqrt{P^2+Q^2+2 P Q \cos \theta}\)

= \(\sqrt{3^2+5^2+2(3)(5) \cos 60^{\circ}}\)

= \(\sqrt{9+25+30 \times \frac{1}{2}}=\sqrt{49}=7 \text { units. }\)

Question 5. A = \(\vec{i}\) + \(\vec{j}\). What is the angle between the vector and the X-axis?
Answer:

Given that, \(\vec{A}\) = \(\vec{i}\) + \(\vec{j}\)

|\(\vec{A}\)| = \(\sqrt{(1)^2+(1)^2}=\sqrt{2}\)

Motion In A Plane Angle between Vector And x Axis

If ‘θ’ is the angle made by the vector with X-axis then, \(\cos \theta=\frac{A_x}{|\vec{A}|} \Rightarrow \cos \theta=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \Rightarrow \theta=45^{\circ}\)

Question 6. When two right-angled vectors of magnitude 7 units and 24 units combine, what is the magnitude of their resultant?
Answer:

Given \(\vec{P}\) = 7 units; \(\vec{Q}\) = 24 units;  θ = 90°

∴ \(\sqrt{\mathrm{P}^2+\mathrm{Q}^2+2 \mathrm{PQ} \cos \theta}=\sqrt{\mathrm{P}^2+\mathrm{Q}^2}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{R}=\sqrt{\mathrm{P}^2+\mathrm{Q}^2}=\sqrt{7^2+24^2}=25\) units.

KSEEB Physics Class 11 Motion In A Plane Notes

Question 7. If \(\vec{P}\) = 2i + 4j + 14k and \(\vec{Q}\) = 4i + 4j + 10k, find the magnitude of \(\vec{P}\) + \(\vec{Q}\).
Answer:

Given \(\overline{\mathrm{P}}=2 \overline{\mathrm{i}}+4 \overline{\mathrm{j}}+14 \overline{\mathrm{k}}\) and

⇒ \(\bar{Q}=4 \overline{\mathrm{i}}+4 \overline{\mathrm{j}}+10 \overline{\mathrm{k}}\)

⇒ \(\overline{\mathrm{P}}+\overline{\mathrm{Q}}=6 \overline{\mathrm{i}}+8 \overline{\mathrm{j}}+24 \overline{\mathrm{k}}\)

Magnitude of \(|\overline{\mathrm{P}}+\overline{\mathrm{Q}}|=\sqrt{6^2+8^2+24^2}\)

= \(\sqrt{36+64+576}=\sqrt{676}=26\) units.

Question 8. Can a vector of magnitude zero have non-zero components?
Answer:

A vector with zero magnitude cannot have non-zero components, because the magnitude of a given vector \(\bar{V}=\sqrt{V_x^2+V_y^2}\) must be zero. This is possible only when \(V_x^2\) and \(V_y^2\) are zero.

Question 9. What is the acceleration of a projectile at the top of its trajectory?
Answer:

At Highest point acceleration, a = g. In projectile motion acceleration will always act towards the centre of the earth. It is irrespective of its position, whether it is at the highest point or somewhere.

Question 10. Can two vectors of unequal magnitude add up to give the zero vector? Can three unequal vectors add up to give the zero vector?
Answer:

No. Two unequal vectors can never give zero vector by addition. But three unequal vectors when added may give zero vector.

Motion In A Plane Solutions KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Short Answer Questions

Question 1. State parallelogram law of vectors. Derive an expression for the magnitude and direction of the resultant vector.
Answer:

Parallelogram Law: If two vectors are represented by the two adjacent sides of a parallelogram, then the diagonal passing through the intersection of given vectors represents their resultant both in direction and magnitude.

Proof: Let \(\overline{\mathrm{P}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{Q}}\) be two adjacent vectors ‘θ’ be the angle between them. Construct a parallelogram OACB as shown in the figure.

Extend the line OA and draw a normal D from C. The diagonal OC = the resultant \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}\) both in direction and magnitude

Motion In A Plane Parallelogram Lwa Of prrof

In figure OCD = right angle triangle ⇒ OC² = OD² + DC²

But OD = OA + AD = \(\overline{\mathrm{P}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{Q}}\) cos θ and CD = Q sin θ and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OC}}=R\)

∴ \(R^2=[P+Q \cos \theta]^2+[Q \sin \theta]^2\)

⇒ \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}^2=\overline{\mathrm{P}}^2+\overline{\mathrm{Q}}^2 \cos ^2 \theta+2 \overline{\mathrm{PQ}} \cos \theta+\overline{\mathrm{Q}}^2 \sin ^2 \theta\)

∴ \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}^2=\overline{\mathrm{P}}^2+\overline{\mathrm{Q}}^2\left(\sin ^2 \theta+\cos ^2 \theta\right)+2 \overline{\mathrm{PQ}} \cos \theta\)

But \(\sin ^2 \theta+\cos ^2 \theta=1\)

∴ \(\mathrm{R}^2=[\mathrm{P}^2+\mathrm{Q}^2+2 \mathrm{PQ} \cos \theta\).

∴ Resultant vector, \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}=\sqrt{\mathrm{P}^2+\mathrm{Q}^2+2 \mathrm{PQ}}\)

The angle of resultant with adjacent side ‘α’

In triangle OCD, \(\tan \alpha=\frac{C D}{O D}\) (OD = OA + AD)

⇒ \(\text{Tan} \alpha=\frac{C D}{O A+A D}=\frac{Q \sin \theta}{P+Q \cos \theta}\)

(because A D = \(Q \cos \theta\))

Angle of \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}\) with adjacent side, \(\alpha=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{Q \sin \theta}{P+Q \cos \theta}\right]\)

Question 2. What is relative motion? Explain it.
Answer:

Relative velocity is the velocity of a body with respect to another moving body.

Relative velocity in two-dimensional motion

Let two bodies A and B are moving with velocities \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\) then relative velocity of A with respect to B is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{AB}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\)

The relative velocity of B with respect to A is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{BA}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_B-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\)

Motion In A Plane Relative Motion

Procedure To Find Resultant: To find relative velocity in two-dimensional motion use vectorial subtraction of VA or VB. Generally to find relative velocity one vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\) or \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\) is reversed (as the case may be) and parallelogram is constructed. Now resultant of that parallelogram is equal to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\) – \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\) or \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\) – \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\) (one vector is reversed VA is taken as –\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\) or \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\) is taken as –\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\))

In the figure relative velocity of B with respect to A is VBA = VR = VB -VA

Question 3. Show that a boat must move at an angle with respect to river water in order to cross the river in minimum time.
Answer:

The motion of a boat in a river: Let a boat travel with a speed of VbE in still water with respect to earth. It is used to cross a river which flows with a speed of VWE with respect to earth. Let the width of the river be W.

Motion In A PlaneMotion Of A Boat In A River

We can cross the river in two different ways.

  1. In shortest path
  2. In the shortest time.

To cross the river in the shortest time:

Shortest time, t = \(\mathrm{t}=\frac{\text { width of river }}{\text { velocity of boat }}=\frac{W}{V_{\mathrm{bE}}}\)

To cross the river in the shortest time boat must be rowed along the width of the river i.e., the boat must be rowed perpendicular to the bank or 90° with the flow of water.

Because the width of the river is the shortest distance. So velocity must be taken in that direction to obtain the shortest time.

In this case, VbE and VWE are perpendicular and the boat will travel along AC. The distance BC is called drift. So to cross the river in the shortest time angle with the flow of water = 90°.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Solved Examples

Question 4. Define unit vector, null vector and position vector.
Answer:

Unit Vector: A vector whose magnitude is one unit is called a unit vector.

Let \(\overline{\mathrm{a}}\) is a given vector then the unit vector of \(\bar{a}=\frac{\bar{a}}{|\bar{a}|}=\hat{a}\)

When \(\bar{a}\) ≠ 0 or \(\frac{\bar{a}}{|\bar{a}|}\) = unit vector of \(\bar{a}\). It is denoted by a \(\hat{a}\)

Null Vector: A vector whose magnitude is zero is called a null vector. But it has direction.

For a null vector, the origin and terminal point are the same.

Example: Let \(\overline{\mathrm{A}} \times \overline{\mathrm{B}}=\overline{0}\). Here magnitude of \(\overline{\mathrm{A}} \times \overline{\mathrm{B}}=\overline{0}\). But still, it has direction perpendicular to the plane of \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\).

Position Vector: Any vector in space can be represented by the linear combination of \(\overline{\mathrm{i}}, \overline{\mathrm{j}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{k}} \text {. }\).

Let ‘O’ is the origin then \(\overline{\mathrm{OP}}\) is represented as \(\overline{\mathrm{OP}}=x \bar{i}+y \bar{j}+z \bar{k}\) where x, y and z are magnitudes of \(\overline{\mathrm{OP}}\) along \(\bar{i}, \bar{j}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{k}}\) axis.

Magnitude of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}=\sqrt{\mathrm{x}^2+\mathrm{y}^2+\mathrm{z}^2}\)

Question 5. If \(|\vec{a}+\vec{b}|=|\vec{a}-\vec{b}|\), prove that the angle between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) is 90°.
Answer:

Let \(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{b}\) are the two vectors.

Sum of vectors = \(\bar{a}+\bar{b}=\sqrt{a^2+b^2+2 a b \cos \theta}\)

Difference of vectors = \(\bar{a}-\bar{b}=\sqrt{a^2+b^2-2 a b \cos \theta}\)

Given \(|\bar{a}+\bar{b}|=|\bar{a}-\bar{b}|\)

⇒ \(\sqrt{a^2+b^2+2 a b \cos \theta}\)

= \(\sqrt{a^2+b^2-2 a b \cos \theta}\) by squaring on both sides, \(\mathrm{a}^2+\mathrm{b}^2+2 \mathrm{ab} \cos \theta=\mathrm{a}^2+\mathrm{b}^2-2 \mathrm{ab} \cos \theta\)

∴ \(4 \mathrm{ab} \cos \theta=0\) or \(\theta=90^{\circ}\)

So if \(|\bar{a}+\bar{b}|=|\bar{a}-\bar{b}|\) then angle between \(\bar{a}\) and \(\bar{b}\) is \(90^{\circ}\).

Motion In A Plane Solutions KSEEB Class 11 Physics

Question 6. Show that the trajectory of an object thrown at a certain angle with the horizontal is a parabola.
Answer:

Projectile: A body thrown into the air same angle as the horizontal, (other than 90°) its motion under the influence of gravity is called a projectile. The path followed by it is called a trajectory.

Let a body be projected from point O, with velocity ‘u’ at an angle θ with horizontal. The velocity ‘u’ can be resolved into two rectangular components ux and uy along X-axis and Y-axis.

ux = u cos θ and uy = u sin θ

After time t, Horizontal distance travelled x = u cos θ t……(1)

Motion In A Plane Projectile Trajectory

After a time sec; vertical displacement y = u sinθ • t – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt²

y = \(u \sin \theta \cdot t-\frac{1}{2} g t^2\)

From (1) t = \(\frac{x}{u \cos \theta}\)

y = \(\frac{u \sin \theta \cdot x}{u \cos \theta}-\frac{1}{2} g \cdot \frac{x^2}{u^2 \cos ^2 \theta}\)

⇒ \(y=x \tan \theta-\frac{g x^2}{2 u^2 \cos ^2 \theta}\)

Let \(\tan \theta=\mathrm{A}\) and \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{2 \mathrm{u}^2 \cos ^2 \theta}=\mathrm{B}\) then y = \(A x-B x^2\)

Let \(\tan \theta=\mathrm{A}\) and \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{2 \mathrm{u}^2 \cos ^2 \theta}=\mathrm{B}\) then \(y=A x-B x^2\)

The above equation represents a “parabola”. Hence the path of a projectile is a parabola.

Question 7. Explain the terms average velocity and instantaneous velocity. When are they equal?
Answer:

Average Velocity: It is the ratio of total displacement to total time taken.

Average velocity = \(\frac{\text { total displacement }}{\text { total time taken }}\)

= \(\frac{x_2-x_1}{t_2-t_1}\)

Average velocity is independent of the path followed by the particle. It just deals with the initial and final positions of the body.

Instantaneous Velocity: The velocity of a body at any particular instant of time is defined as instantaneous velocity.

Mathematically \(\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\underset{\Delta t \rightarrow 0}{\text{Lt}} \frac{\Delta \mathrm{x}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}\) is defined as instantaneous velocity.

For a body moving with uniform velocity its average velocity = Instantaneous velocity.

Question 8. Show that the maximum height and range of a projectile are \(\frac{\mathrm{U}^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 \mathrm{~g}}\) and \(\frac{\mathrm{U}^2 \sin 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\) respectively where the terms have their regular meanings.
Answer:

Let a body be projected with an initial velocity ’u’ and with an angle θ to the horizontal.

Initial velocity along x direction, ux = u cos θ

Initial velocity along y direction, uy = u sin θ

Maximum Height: The vertical distance covered by the projectile until its vertical component becomes zero.

Motion In A Plane Maxiumu Height And Range of Projectile

from equation v² – u² = 2as ……..(1)

at maximum height v = 0

u = uy = u sin θ

a = -g

S = H

From equation (1)

0² – u² sin²θ = 2 (- g) H

– u² sin²θ = – 2 gH

∴ H = \(\frac{u^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}\)

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Motion In A Plane

Horizontal Range: It is the distance covered by the projectile along the horizontal between the point of projection to the point on the ground, where the projectile returns again.

It is denoted by R. The horizontal distance covered by the projectile at the time of flight is called horizontal range.

Therefore, R = u cos θ x t.

R = \(\mathrm{u} \cos \theta \times \frac{2 \mathrm{u} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}}=\frac{\mathrm{u}^2(2 \sin \theta \cos \theta)}{\mathrm{g}}\),

But \(2 \sin \theta \cos \theta=\sin 2 \theta\),

∴ Range(R) = \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}\)

Angle Of Projection For Maximum Range: For a given velocity of projection, the horizontal range will be maximum, when sin 2θ = 1.

∴ Angle of projection for maximum range is 2θ = 90° or θ = 45°

∴ \(R_{\max }=\frac{u^2}{g}\)

Question 9. If the trajectory of a body IN parabolic In one reference frame, can It be parabolic in another reference frame that moves at constant velocity with respect to the first reference frame? If the trajectory can be other than parabolic, what else can it be?
Answer:

Yes. According to Newton’s first law, a body at rest or a body moving with uniform velocity is treated as the same. Both of them belong to an inertial frame of reference.

If a frame (say 1) is moving with uniform velocity with respect to others, then that second frame must be at rest or it maintains a constant velocity concerning the first.

So both frames are inertial frames. So if the trajectory of a body in one frame is a parabola, then the trajectory of that body in another frame is also a parabola.

Question 10. A force 2i + j – k Newton acts on a body which is initially at rest. At the end of 20 seconds, the velocity of the body is 4i + 2j – 2k ms-1. What is the mass of the body?
Answer:

Force, F = 2i + j – k

time, t = 20

Initial velocity, u = 0

Final velocity, v = 4i + 2j – 2k = 2(2i + j – k)

Acceleration, \(\mathrm{a}=\frac{\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{t}}\)

= \(\frac{2(2 i+j-k)-0}{20}=\frac{2 i+j-k}{10}\)

Mass of the body, m = \(\frac{F}{a}\)

= \(\frac{2 i+j-k}{(2 i+j-k) / 10}=10 \mathrm{~kg}\)

Chapter 4 Motion In-Plane Problems In KSEEB Physics Class 11

Question 1. Ship A is 10 km due west of ship B. Ship A is heading directly north at a speed of 30 km/h, while ship B is heading in a direction 60° west of north at a speed of 20 km/h.

  1. Determine the magnitude of the velocity of ship B relative to ship A.
  2. What will be their distance of closest approach?

Answer:

The velocity of A 30 kmph due North

∴ VA=30 \(\hat{j}\)

Motion In A Plane magnitude Of Velocity Of Ship

Velocity of B = 20 kmph 60° west of North

∴ \(V_B=-20 \sin 60^{\circ}+20 \cos 60^{\circ}=10 \sqrt{3} \hat{\mathrm{i}}+10 \hat{\mathrm{j}}\)

Velocity of B with respect to A = VB – VA

= \(-10 \sqrt{3} \hat{\mathrm{i}}+10 \hat{\mathrm{j}}-30 \hat{\mathrm{j}}=-10 \sqrt{3} \hat{\mathrm{i}}-20 \hat{\mathrm{j}}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{V}_R=\left|\mathrm{V}_B-\mathrm{V}_A\right|=\sqrt{100 \times 3+400}\)

= \(10 \sqrt{7} \mathrm{kmph}\)

Shortest Distance: In Δ le ANB shortest distance, AN = AB sin θ

But distance, AB = 10 km

∴ AN = \(10 \times \frac{20}{10 \sqrt{7}}=\frac{20}{\sqrt{7}}=7.56 \mathrm{~km}\)

Motion In A Plane KSEEB Physics

Question 2. If θ is the angle of projection, R is the range, h is the maximum height, and T is the time of flight, then show that

  1. tan θ = 4h/R and
  2. h = gT²/8

Answer:

1. Given angle of projection = η,

Range, \(R=\frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}\)

h = \(\mathrm{h}_{\max }=\frac{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 \mathrm{~g}} \text {. }\)

Time of flight \(\mathrm{T}=\frac{2 \mathrm{u} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)

\(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 \mathrm{~g}} \times \frac{\mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin 2 \theta}\)

= \(\frac{\sin ^2 \theta}{2 \sin 2 \theta}=\frac{\sin \theta \sin \theta}{2 \times 2 \sin \theta \cos \theta}\)

∴ \(\frac{h}{R}=\frac{\tan \theta}{4} \Rightarrow \tan \theta=\frac{4 h}{R}\)

2. \(\mathrm{h}=\frac{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 \mathrm{~g}}\)

But \(\mathrm{T}=\frac{2 \mathrm{u} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}} \Rightarrow \frac{\mathrm{u} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}}=\mathrm{T}/2\).

multiply with (g/g)

h = \(\frac{u^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}=\frac{u^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 \cdot g^2} \cdot g\)

= \(\left(\frac{T}{2}\right)^2 \times \frac{g}{2}=\frac{g T^2}{8}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{h}=\frac{\mathrm{gT}^2}{8}\) is proved.

Question 3. A projectile is fired at an angle of 60° to the horizontal with an initial velocity of 800 m/s:

  1. Find the time of flight of the projectile before it hits the ground.
  2. Find the distance it travels before it hits the ground (range).
  3. Find the time of flight for the projectile to reach its maximum height.

Answer:

Angle of projection, θ = 60°,

Initial velocity, u = 800 m/s

1. Time of flight, \(\mathrm{T}=\frac{2 \mathrm{u} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)

= \(\frac{2 \times 800}{9.8} \times \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}=\frac{800 \times 1.732}{9.8}=141.4 \mathrm{sec}\)

2. Range, \(R =\frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}\)

= \(\frac{800 \times 800 \times \sin \left(2 \times 60^{\circ}\right)^{\prime}}{9.8}\)

R = \(\frac{800 \times 800}{9.8} \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)

= \(\frac{800 \times 800}{9.8} \times 0.8660=56.56 \mathrm{~km}\)

3. Time of flight to reach maximum height = \(\frac{T}{2}\)

\(\mathrm{T}_1=\frac{2 \mathrm{u} \sin \theta}{2 \mathrm{~g}}=\frac{\mathrm{u} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}}=\frac{800 \sin 60^{\circ}}{9.8}\)

= \(\frac{800 \times 0.8660}{9.80}=70.7 \mathrm{sec}\)

Motion In A Plane Problems In KSEEB Physics

Question 4. For a particle projected slantwise from the ground, the magnitude of its position vector with respect to the point of projection, when it is at the highest point of the path is found to be √2 times the maximum height reached by it. Show that the angle of projection is tan-1 √2.
Answer:

The position vector of h (max point) from 0, is \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2}=\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)

Motion In A Plane Particle Projected Slantwise

But R/2 = √2 hmax(given)

∴ \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}=\frac{\sqrt{2} \mathrm{u}^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g} \)

∴ \(2 \sin \theta \cos \theta=\sqrt{2} \sin \theta \cdot \sin \dot{ }\)

⇒ \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{\sin \theta}{\cos \theta} \Rightarrow \tan \theta=\sqrt{2}\)

∴ Angle of projection, \(\theta=\tan ^{-1} \sqrt{2}\)

Question 5. An object is launched from a cliff 20 m above the ground at an angle of 30° above the horizontal with an initial speed of 30 m/s. How far horizontally does the object travel before landing on the ground? (g = 10 m/s²).
Answer:

Height of cliff = 20m

The angle of projection, θ = 30°

Velocity of projection, u = 30 m/s

Total horizontal distance travelled = OC = OB’+ B’C

But OB’ = AB = Range R = \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)

∴ R = \(\frac{30 \times 30 \sin 60^{\circ}}{10}=90 \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}=45 \sqrt{3} \rightarrow(1)\)

2. Distance B’C = Range of a horizontal projectile.

∴ Range = u cos θ t

u \(\cos \theta=30 \cdot \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}=15 \sqrt{3}\)

Time taken to reach the ground, t =?

Given \(S_y=20, \quad u_y=u \sin \theta=30 \sin 30^{\circ}\)

= \(15 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

from \(\mathrm{s}=\mathrm{ut}+\frac{1}{2} a t^2\)

∴ \(\mathrm{s}_{\mathrm{y}}=20=15 \mathrm{t}+\frac{10}{2} \mathrm{t}^2 \Rightarrow 5 \mathrm{t}^2+15 \mathrm{t}-20=0\)

or \(t^2+3 t-4=0\) or \((t+4)(t-1)=0\)

∴ \(\mathrm{t}=-4\) or \(\mathrm{t}=1\)

∴ \(\mathrm{t}\) is Not -ve use t=1

∴ Range = \(\mathrm{u} \cdot \cos \theta \cdot \mathrm{t}=15 \sqrt{3} \times 1 \rightarrow(2)\)

Total distance travelled before reaching the equation (1) + (2) ground = 45√3 + 15√3 =60√3 m.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Motion In A Plane Questions And Answers

Question 6. ‘O’ is a point on the ground chosen as origin. A body first suffers a displacement of 10√2 mm North-East, next 10 m North and finally 10√2 North-West. How far it is from its origin?
Answer:

  1. 10√2 m North-East
  2. 10 m North
  3. 10√2 m North West

Motion In A Plane Body Suffers A Displacement

From the figure total displacement from the origin, ‘O’ is OC

But OC = OA’ + A’B’ + B’C = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 m.

Question 7. From a point on the ground, a particle is projected with initial velocity u, such that its horizontal range is maximum. Find the magnitude of average velocity during its ascent.
Answer:

Velocity of projection = u.

Range is maximum ⇒ θ = 45°

During time of ascent ⇒ when h = hmax ⇒ ux = vx= u · cos θ

Average velocity, \(V_A=\sqrt{V_x^2+V_y^2}\)

Vx = Average velocity along X-axis = \(\frac{\mathrm{u} \cdot \cos \theta+\mathrm{u} \cos \theta}{2}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{x}}=\mathrm{u} \cdot \cos \theta=\mathrm{u} \cdot \cos 45^{\circ}=\mathrm{u} / \sqrt{2} \longrightarrow(1)\)

Average velocity along \(\mathrm{Y} \text {-axis }=\frac{\mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{y}}+\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{y}}}{2}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{y}}=\mathrm{u} \sin \theta=\mathrm{u} / \sqrt{2}, \mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{y}}=0\left(\text { at }_{\mathrm{h}_{\max }}\right)\)

∴ \(\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{y}}=\frac{\mathrm{u} / \sqrt{2}}{2}=\frac{\mathrm{u}}{2 \sqrt{2}} \longrightarrow(2)\)

Average velocity during the time of ascent

= \(\sqrt{\left(\frac{u}{\sqrt{2}}\right)^2+\left(\frac{u}{2 \sqrt{2}}\right)^2}\)

Average velocity

= \(\sqrt{\frac{u^2}{2}+\frac{u^2}{4 \times 2}}=\sqrt{\frac{4 u^2+u^2}{8}}=\frac{u \sqrt{5}}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)

Question 8. A particle is projected from the ground with some initial velocity making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. It reaches a height of 7.5 m above the ground while it travels a horizontal distance of 10 m from the point of projection. Find the initial speed of projection (g = 10 m/s²).
Answer:

Angle of projection = 45°

Vertical height, hy = 7.5 m

Horizontal distance, hx = 10 m

Motion In A Plane Particle Projected From A Ground

From figure \(\tan \theta=\frac{y}{x}=\frac{7.5}{10}=3 / 4, \cos \theta=\frac{4}{5}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{s}_{\mathrm{x}}=\mathrm{u} \cdot \cos \theta \cdot \mathrm{t} \Rightarrow 10=\mathrm{u} \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \mathrm{t}\)

t = \(\frac{10 \sqrt{2}}{\mathrm{u}}\)…..(1)

⇒ \(\mathrm{s}_{\mathrm{y}}=7.5=(\mathrm{u} \sin \theta) \mathrm{t}-\frac{1}{2} g \mathrm{t}^2\)

7.5 = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}}{\sqrt{2}} \frac{10 \sqrt{2}}{\mathrm{u}}-\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{10 \times 10 \times 10 \times 2}{\mathrm{u}^2}\)

7.5 = \(10-\frac{1000}{\mathrm{u}^2} \Rightarrow-2.5=\frac{-1000}{\mathrm{u}^2}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{u}^2=\frac{1000}{2.5}=400\)

∴ \(u^2=400 \Rightarrow u=20 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Question 9. The wind is blowing from the south at 5 ms-1. To a cyclist, It appears to be blowing from the cast at 5 ms-1. Show that the velocity of the cyclist is ms-1 towards the north-cast.
Answer:

The direction of wind is South to North 5 m/s.

The apparent direction is from East to West at 5 m/s.

Motion In A Plane Wind Blowing From South

This is relative velocity.

To find the velocity of the cyclist reverse the direction of the resultant vector OB and find the resultant

∴ Velocity of cyclist = \(\sqrt{5^2+5^2+0}\)

= \(5 \sqrt{2} \mathrm{~m}\)

Motion In A Plane KSEEB Physics

Question 10. A person walking at 4 m/s finds raindrops falling slantwise into his face at a speed of 4 m/s at an angle of 30° with the vertical. Show that the actual speech of the raindrops is 4 m/s.
Answer:

Velocity of man = 4 m/sec

The apparent velocity of raindrop = 4 m/sec with θ = 30° with vertical.

This is relative velocity VB.

Motion In A Plane Person walking In 4 Meters From Rain Drops

1. Velocity of man = 4 \(\hat{i}\)

Velocity of rain = 4 m/s, 30° with vertical

∴ It is represented by = -4 sin 30 i – 4.cos 30° \(\hat{j}\)

= \(-4 \cdot \frac{1}{2} \hat{\mathrm{i}}+4 \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \text { say } V_R=-2 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+2 \sqrt{3} \hat{\mathrm{j}}\)

But VR = VB – VA where VB is the actual velocity of rain

⇒ \(V_B-V_A+V_A=V_B\)

= \(-2 \hat{i}+2 \sqrt{3} \hat{j}+4 \hat{\mathrm{i}}=2 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+2 \sqrt{3} \hat{\mathrm{j}}\)

∴ \(\left|V_B\right|=\sqrt{4+4 \times 3}=\sqrt{16}=4 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Question 11. The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. What is the maximum horizontal distance that a ball thrown with a speed of 40 ms-1 can go without hitting the ceiling of the hall?
Solution:

Here, u = 40 ms-1; H = 25m, R = ?

Let θ be the angle of projection with the horizontal direction to have the maximum range, with maximum height = 25 m.

Maximum height, \(\mathrm{H} \Rightarrow 25=\frac{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 \mathrm{~g}}\)

= \(\frac{(40)^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 \times 9.8}\)

or \(\sin \theta=\left(\frac{25 \times 2 \times 9.8}{40^2}\right)=0.5534\)

= \(\sin 33.6^{\circ}\) or \(\theta=33.6^{\circ}\)

Horizontal range, \(\mathrm{R}=\frac{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)

= \(\frac{(40)^2 \times \sin \left(2 \times 33.6^{\circ}\right)}{9.8}\)

= \(\frac{1600 \times 0.9219}{9.8}=150.5 \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 12. A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 25 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone?
Solution:

Here, r = 80 cm = 0.8 m; v = 14/25 s-1.

∴ \(\omega=2 \pi v=2 \times \frac{22}{7} \times \frac{14}{25}=\frac{88}{25} \text { rad. s } \mathrm{s}^{-1} \text {. }\)

The centripetal acceleration, \(\mathrm{a}=\omega^2 \mathrm{r}=\left(\frac{88}{25}\right)^2 \times 0.80=9.90 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\)

The direction of centripetal acceleration is along the string directed towards the centre of the circular path.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Motion In A Plane Key Concepts

Question 13. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop of radius 1 km with a steady speed of 900 km/h. Compare its centripetal acceleration with the acceleration due to gravity.
Solution:

Here, r = 1 km = 1000 m;

v = 900 km h-1 = 900 x (1000m) x (60 x 60s)-1 = 250 ms-1

Centripetal acceleration, \(\mathrm{a}=\frac{\mathrm{v}^2}{\mathrm{r}}=\frac{(250)^2}{1000}\)

Now, \(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{g}}=\frac{(250)^2}{1000} \times \frac{1}{9.8}=6.38\)

Question 14. An aircraft is flying at a height of 3400 m above the ground. If the angle subtended at a ground observation point by the aircraft positions 10.0 s apart is 30°, what is the speed of the aircraft?
Solution:

Figure O is the observation point at the ground. A and B are the positions of aircraft for which ∠AOB = 30°.

Draw a perpendicular OC on AB. Here OC = 3400 m and ∠AOC = ∠COB = 15°. Time taken by aircraft from A to B is 10 s.

Motion In A Plane Aircraft Flying

In ΔAOC, AC = OC tan 15° = 3400 x 0.2679

AC = 910.86 m.

AB = AC + CB = AC + AC = 2 AC

= 2 x 910.86 m

Speed of the aircraft, v = \(\frac{\text { distance } A B}{\text { time }}\)

= \(\frac{2 \times 910.86}{10}=182.17 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}=182.2 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\).

Question 15. A bullet fired at an angle of 30° with the horizontal hits the ground 3.0 km away. By adjusting its angle of projection, can one hope to hit a target 5.0 km away? Assume the muzzle speed to be fixed and neglect air resistance.
Solution:

Horizontal range, R= \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}\)

or, 3 = \(\frac{u^2 \sin 60^{\circ}}{g}\) or \(\frac{u^2}{g}=2 \sqrt{3}\)

3 = \(\frac{u^2}{g} \times \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)

2\(\sqrt{3}=\frac{u^2}{g}\)

∴ \(R_{\max }=2 \sqrt{3}\)

∴ \(R_{\max }=3.464 \mathrm{~m} \).

 

 

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 3 Motion In A Straight Line

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Motion in a Straight Line Chapter 3 Motion In A Straight Line Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. The states of motion and rest are relative Explain.
Answer:

Rest: If the position of a body does not change with respect to its surroundings, it is said to be at “rest”.

Motion: If the position of a body changes with respect to its surroundings, it is said to be in “motion”.

By definitions rest and motion are relative with respect to surroundings.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions

Question 2. How is average velocity different from instantaneous velocity?
Answer:

Average Velocity: It is the ratio of total displacement to total time taken. It is independent of the path of the body.

∴ Average velocity = \(\frac{\mathrm{s}_2-\mathrm{s}_1}{\mathrm{t}_2-\mathrm{t}_1}(\mathrm{Or}) \mathrm{V}_{\text {avg }}=\frac{\mathrm{ds}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)

The velocity of a particle at a particular instant of time is known as instantaneous velocity. Here time interval is very small.

V = \(\frac{dx}{dt}\)

Only in uniform motion, instantaneous velocity = average velocity. For all other, cases instantaneous velocity may differ from average velocity.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 3 Motion In A Straight Line

Question 3. Give an example where the velocity of an object is zero but its acceleration is not zero.
Answer:

In the case of a Vertically Projected Body at maximum height its velocity v = 0. But acceleration due to gravity ’g’ is not zero

So even though velocity v = 0 ⇒ acceleration is not zero.

Question 4. A vehicle travels half the distance L with speed v1 and the other half with speed v2 What is the average speed?
Answer:

The average speed of a vehicle for the two  equal parts \(\frac{L}{2}\), \(\frac{L}{2}\) is

⇒ \(V_{\text {avg }}=\frac{\text { Total distance }}{\text { Total time }}=\frac{\frac{L}{2}+\frac{L}{2}}{t_1+t_2}\) (because \(t=\frac{L / 2}{V}\))

⇒ \(V_{\text {avg }}=\frac{L}{\left(\frac{\frac{L}{2}}{V_1}+\frac{\frac{L}{2}}{V_2}\right)} \)

= \(\frac{L}{\frac{L}{2}\left(\frac{1}{V_1}+\frac{1}{V_2}\right)}\)

= \(\frac{1}{\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{V_1+V_2}{V_1 V_2}\right)}\)

∴ \(V_{\text {avg }}=\frac{2 V_1 V_2}{V_1+V_2}\)

Motion In A Straight Line Solutions KSEEB Class 11 Physics

Question 5. A lift coming down is just about to reach the ground floor. Taking the ground floor as the origin and positive direction upwards for all quantities, which one of the following is correct?

  1. x < 0, v < 0, a > 0
  2. x > 0, v < 0, a < 0
  3. x > 0, v < 0, a > 0
  4. x > 0, v > 0, a > 0

Answer:

As the lift is coming down, the value of x becomes less hence negative, i.e., x < 0.

Velocity is downwards (i.e., negative). So v < 0.

Just before reaching the ground floor, the lift is retarded, i.e., acceleration is upwards. Hence a > 0.

We can conclude that x < 0, v < 0 and a > 0.

∴ (1) is correct.

Question 6. A uniformly moving cricket ball is hit with a bat for a very short time and is turned back. Show the variation of its acceleration with time taking the acceleration in the backward direction as positive.
Answer:

For a ball moving with uniform velocity acceleration is zero. But during the time of contact between the ball and bat acceleration is applied in the opposite direction. The shape of the acceleration – time graph is as shown.

Uniformly Moving Cricket Ball Is Hit With A Bat

Question 7. Give an example of one-dimensional motion where a particle moving along the positive x-direction comes to rest periodically and moves forward.
Answer:

When the length of the pendulum is high and the amplitude is less then its motion is along a straight line. The pendulum will come to a stop at the extreme position and move back in the forward direction (‘x’ + ve) periodically.

Question 8. An object falling through a fluid is observed to have an acceleration given by a = g – bv where g is the gravitational acceleration and b is a constant. After a long time, it is observed to fall with a constant velocity. What would be the value of this constant velocity?
Answer:

Acceleration, a = g – bv when moving with constant velocity, a = 0 ⇒ 0 = g – bv

∴ Constant velocity, v = \(\frac{g}{b}\) m/sec.

Question 9. If the trajectory of a body is parabolic in one frame, can it be parabolic in another frame that moves with a constant velocity with respect to the first frame? If not, what can it be?
Answer:

If the trajectory of a body is parabolic with reference frames one and two then those two frames are of rest or moving with uniform velocity.

If they are not parabolic then for that reference frame it may be in a straight line path.

Example: When a body is dropped from a moving plane its path is parabolic for a person outside the plane. But for the pilot in the plane, it is falling vertically downwards.

Question 10. A spring with one end attached to amass and the other to rigid support is stretched and released. When is the magnitude of acceleration a maximum?
Answer:

Maximum restoring force set up in the spring when stretched by a distance ‘r’ is F = – kr

Potential energy of stretched spring = \(\frac{1}{2}\) kx²

As F ∝ r and this force are directed towards the equilibrium position, hence if the mass is left free, it will execute damped SHM due to gravity pull.

Magnitude of acceleration in the mass attached to one end of spring when just released is \(\mathrm{a}=\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{m}}=\frac{-\mathrm{k}}{\mathrm{m}} \mathrm{r}=(\text { Maximum })\)

∴ The magnitude of the spring’s acceleration will be maximum when it is just released.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Solutions

Question 11. Define average velocity and average speed. When does the magnitude of average velocity become equal to the average speed?
Answer:

Average Velocity: It is defined as the ratio of total displacement to total time taken.

Average velocity = \(\frac{\text { total displacement }}{\text { total time taken }}=\frac{\mathrm{x}_2-\mathrm{x}_1}{\mathrm{t}_2-\mathrm{t}_1}\)

Average velocity is independent of the path followed by the particle. It just deals with the initial and final positions of the body.

Average Speed: The ratio of the total path length travelled to the total time taken is known as “average speed”.

Speed and average speed are scalar quantities so no direction for these quantities.

Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Total path length }}{\text { Total time interval }}\)

When the body is along with the straight line its average velocity and average speed are equal.

Solutions For Motion In A Straight Line KSEEB Physics Chapter 3 Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Can the equations of kinematics be used when the acceleration varies with time? If not, what form would these equations take?
Answer:

The equations of motion are

  1. v =u + at
  2. s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at² and
  3. v² – u² = 2as.

All these three equations are applicable to body moves with uniform acceleration ‘a’.

No, the equations are not applicable when the acceleration varies with time.

Question 2. A particle moves in a straight line with uniform acceleration. Its velocity at time t = 0 is v1 and at time t2 = t is v2. The average velocity of the particle in this time interval is (v1 + v2) / 2. Is this correct? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:

t1 = 0 ⇒ u = v1; t2 = t ⇒ v = v2

Average velocity = \(\frac{u+v}{2}=\frac{v_1+v_2}{2}\)

Question 3. Can the velocity of an object be in a direction other than the direction of acceleration of the object? If so, give an example.
Answer:

Yes, the Velocity of a body and its acceleration may be in different directions.

Explanation:

  1. In the case of a vertically projected body ⇒ velocity of the body is in the upward direction and acceleration is in a downward direction.
  2. When brakes are applied the velocity of the body before coming to rest is opposite to retarding acceleration.

Question 4. A parachutist flying in an aeroplane jumps when it is at a height of 3 km above the ground. He opens his parachute when he is about 1 km above ground. Describe his motion.
Answer:

Initially, the path is a parabola as seen by an observer on the ground. It is a vertical straight line as seen by the pilot. He opens his parachute, it is moving vertically downwards with decreasing velocity and finally, it reaches the ground.

Question 5. A bird holds n fruit In its beak and flics parallel to the ground. It lets go of the fruit at some height. Describe the trajectory of the fruit as it falls to the ground as seen by

  1. The bird
  2. A person on the ground.

Answer:

  1. As the bird Is flying parallel to the ground, it possesses velocity in the horizontal direction. Hence the fruit also possesses velocity in the horizontal direction and acceleration in a downward direction. Hence the path of the fruit is a straight line with respect to the bird.
  2. With respect to a person on the ground, the fruit seems to be on a parabolic path.

Question 6. A man runs across the roof of a tall building and jumps horizontally onto the (lower) roof of an adjacent building. If his speed is 9 ms-1 the horizontal distance between the buildings is 10 m and the height difference between the roofs is 9 m, will he be able to land on the next building? (take g = 10 ms-2)
Answer:

Given that,

initial speed, u = 9 ms-1 ; g = 10m/s²

The height difference between the roofs, h = 9 m

Horizontal distance between two buildings, d = 10 m

Motion In A Straight Line Man Runs Across The Roof Of A Tall Building And Jumps Horizontally

Time of flight \(\mathrm{T}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{~g}}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 9}{10}}\)

= \(\sqrt{1.8}=1.341 \mathrm{~s}\)

Range of the man = R = u x T = 9 x 1.341 s = 12.069 m

Since R > d, the man will be able to land on the next building.

Question 7. A ball is dropped from the roof of a tall building and simultaneously another ball Is thrown horizontally with some velocity from the same roof. Which ball lands first? Explain your answer.
Answer:

Let ‘h’ be the height of the tall building.

For Dropped Ball: Let ‘t1‘ be the time taken by the dropped ball to reach the ground.

Initial velocity, u = 0 ; Acceleration, a = + g

Distance travelled, s = h; Time of travel, t = t1

From the equation of motion, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²

We can write, h = \(0 \times t_1+\frac{1}{2} \times g \times t_1^2 \Rightarrow h=\frac{1}{2} g t_1^2 \Rightarrow t_1^2=\frac{2 h}{g}\)

(or) \(t_1=\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)…..(1)

For Horizontally Projected Ball: If the ball is thrown horizontally then its initial velocity along the vertical direction is zero and in this case, let ‘t2‘ be the time taken by the ball to reach the ground.

Again from the equation of motion,

s = \(\mathrm{ut}+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{at}^2\) we can write,

⇒ h = \(0 \times \mathrm{t}_2+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{~g} \times \mathrm{t}_2^2\)

⇒ h = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{gt}_2^2 ;\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{t}_2^2=\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{~g}}\) (or)

∴ \(\mathrm{t}_2=\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{~g}}}\)…….(2)

From equation (1) and (2) t1 = t2

i.e., both the balls reach the ground at the same time.

Question 8. A ball Is dropped from a building and simultaneously another ball is projected upward with some velocity. Describe the change In relative velocities of the balls as a function of time.
Answer:

  1. For a body dropped from building its velocity, v1 = gt…..(1) (u1 = 0)
  2. For a body thrown up with a velocity ‘u’ its velocity, v² = u – gt….(2)

The two balls are moving in the opposite direction the relative velocity, vR = v1 + v2

∴ vR = gt + u – gt = u

Here the relative velocity remains constant, but the velocity of one body increases at a rate of ‘g’ m/sec and the velocity of another body decreases at a rate of ‘g’m/sec.

Question 9. A typical raindrop is about 4 mm in diameter. If a raindrop falls from a cloud which is 1 km above the ground, estimate its momentum when it hits the ground.
Answer:

Diameter, D = 4 m

⇒ radius, r = 2mm = 2 x 10-3 m

mass of raindrop = volume x density = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3 \times 1000 \mathrm{~m}\)

(mass of one m³ of water = 1000 kg)

∴ m = \(\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times\left[2 \times 10^{-3}\right]^3 \times 1000\)

= \(33.52 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{~kg}\)

Velocity of raindrop \(v=\sqrt{2 g h}\)

But h = 1 km = 1000 m

∴ \(\mathrm{v}=\sqrt{2 \times 9.8 \times 1000}=\sqrt{19600}\) = 140 m/sec

Momentum of raindrop, \(\vec{p}=m v\)

= 33.52 x 10-6 x 140 = 4.693 x 10-3 kg-m

Question 10. Show that the maximum height reached by a projectile launched at an angle of 45° is one-quarter of its range.
Answer:

In projectiles Range, \((R)=\frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}\)

Maximum height \((H)=\frac{u^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}\)

When \(\theta=45^{\circ}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{R}_1=\mathrm{R}_{\max }=\frac{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin 90^{\circ}}{\mathrm{g}}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{R}_{\max }=\frac{\mathrm{u}^2}{\mathrm{~g}}\)

Maximum height \(H_{\max }=\frac{u^2 \sin ^2\left(45^{\circ}\right)}{2 g}\)

= \(\frac{u^2(1 / \sqrt{2})^2}{2 g}=\frac{u^2}{4 g}\)

∴ \(H_{\max }=\frac{1}{4} R_{\max }\)

∴ When θ = 45° maximum height reached is one-quarter of the maximum range.

Question 11. Derive the equation of motion x = v0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² using appropriate graph.
Answer:

The velocity-time graph of a body moving with initial velocity ‘u’ and with uniform acceleration ‘a is shown. Let V be the velocity of the body after a time t.

In the v -t graph area of the velocity-time graph = total displacement travelled by it. The area under velocity – time graph = area of OABCD

∴ Area of Rectangular part OACD = Area of OACD + Area of ABC.

A1 = OA x OD = v0 t…….(1)

Motion In A Straight Line Equation Of Motio Using Appropriate Graph

Area of triangle ABC = A2

A2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Base x height

= \(\frac{1}{2}\) AC x (BC)

= \(\frac{1}{2}\)t(v-v)

But v – v0 = at

∴ A2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)t at = \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²

∴ Total area under graph = s = A1 + A2

s(n)= \(v_0 t+\frac{1}{2} a t^2\) is graphically proved.

KSEEB Physics Class 11 Motion in a Straight Line Chapter 3 Problems

Question 1. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h-1. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home at a speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the

  1. Magnitude of average velocity and
  2. The average speed of the man over the time interval of 0 to 50 minutes?

Solution:

Time taken by man to go from his home to market, \(\mathrm{t}_1=\frac{\text { distance }}{\text { speed }}=\frac{2.5}{7.5}=\frac{1}{3} \mathrm{~h}\)

∴ Total time taken = \(t_1+t_2=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{5}{6} h\) = 50 min

In time interval 0 to 50 min

Total distance travelled = 2.5 + 2.5 = 5 km.

Total displacement = zero.

  1. Average velocity = \(\frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time }}=0\)
  2. Average speed = \(\frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time }}=\frac{5}{\frac{5}{6}}\) = 6 km/h

Question 2. A stone is dropped from a height of 300 m and at the same time, another stone is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 100 m/sec. Find when and where the] two stones meet.
Solution:

Height h = 300 m ;

Initial velocity u0 = 100 m/s

Let the two stones meet at a height ‘x’ above the ground.

For 1st stone \(\mathrm{h}-\mathrm{x}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{gt}^2\)…..(1)

For 2nd stone \(\mathrm{x}=\mathrm{u}_0 \mathrm{t}-\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{gt}^2\)

⇒ \(\frac{1}{2} g t^2=u_0 t-x\)….(2)

Motion In A Straight Line A Stone Is Dropped From A Height

Since t is the same for the two stones

From equations 1 and 2.

h – x = u0t – x

⇒ \(\mathrm{u}_0 \mathrm{t}=\mathrm{h} \text { or time } \mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{o}}}=\frac{300}{100}=3 \mathrm{sec}\).

⇔ The two stones will meet 3 seconds after the 1st stone is dropped or the 2nd stone is thrown up.

Question 3. A car travels the first third of a distance with a speed of 10 kmph, the second third at 20 kmph and the last third at 60 kmph. What is its mean speed over the entire distance?
Solution:

Total distance = s

distance travelled, \(\mathbf{s}_1=\frac{\mathbf{s}}{3}\)

velocity, v1 = 10 kmph

distance, \(\mathbf{s}_2=\frac{\mathbf{s}}{3}\)

velocity, v2 = 20 kmph

distance, \(\mathbf{s}_3=\frac{\mathbf{s}}{3}\)

velocity, v3 = 60 kmph

Average velocity = \(\frac{\text { total distance }}{\text { total time }}\)

Time, \(t=t_1+t_2+t_3=\frac{s}{3 v_1}+\frac{s}{3 v_2}+\frac{s}{3 v_3}\)

(because time = \(\frac{\text { distance }}{\text { velocity }}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{s}}{3}\left(\frac{\mathrm{v}_2 \mathrm{v}_3+\mathrm{v}_3 \mathrm{v}_1+\mathrm{v}_1 \mathrm{v}_2}{\mathrm{v}_1 \mathrm{v}_2 \mathrm{v}_3}\right)\)

= \(\frac{\mathrm{s}}{3}\left[\frac{(60 \times 20)+(60 \times 10)+(20 \times 10)}{60 \times 20 \times 10}\right]\)

= \(\frac{\mathrm{s}}{3} \frac{(1200+600+200)}{12000}\)

= \(\frac{\mathrm{s}}{3} \frac{2000}{12000}=\frac{2000 \mathrm{~s}}{3 \times 12000}\) (Or)

∴ \(v_{\text {mean }}==\frac{3 v_1 v_2 v_3}{v_1 v_2+v_2 v_3+v_3 v_1}=18 \mathrm{kmph}\)

Average velocity  = \(\frac{\mathrm{s}}{\mathrm{t}}\)

= \(\frac{3 \times 12000}{2000 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 18 kmph

Question 4. A bullet moving with a speed of 150 m s-1 strikes a tree and penetrates 3.5 cm before stopping. What is the magnitude of its retardation in the tree and the time taken for it to stop after striking the tree?
Solution:

Velocity of bullet, u = 150 m/s;

Final velocity, v = 0

Distance travelled, s = 3.5 cm = 3.5 x 10-2 m,

Acceleration, \(a=\frac{v^2-u^2}{2 s}\)

= \(\frac{0^2-150^2}{2 \times 3.50 \times 10^{-2}}\)

= \(\frac{-22500}{7 \times 10^{-2}}\)

= \(-3.214 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{sec}^2\) (-ve sign for retardation)

Time taken to stop, \(\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{a}}\)

= \(\frac{-150}{-3.214 \times 10^5}\)

= \(4.67 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{sec}\)

Motion In A Straight Line Problems in KSEEB Physics

Question 5. A motorist drives north for 30 min at 85 km/h and then stops for 15 min. He continues travelling north and covers 130 km in 2 hours. What is his total displacement and average velocity?
Solution:

In First Part:

Velocity, v1 = 85 kmph

Time, t1 = 30 min

Distance travelled, s1 = v1 t1

= 85 x \(\frac{30}{60}\) =42.5 km

In Second Part:

Distance travelled, s2 = 0;

Time, t2 = 15.0 min.

In Third Part:

Distance travelled, s3 = 130 km;

Time, t3 = 120 min = 2 hours

1. Total distance of the motorist, s = s1+ s2 + s3 = 42.5 + 0 + 130 = 172.5 km

2. Total time travelled, t = t1 + t2 + t3 = 30 + 15 + 120

= 165 minutes

= 2 hrs 45 minutes

= 2\(\frac{3}{4}\) hrs. = \(\frac{11}{4}\) hrs.

∴ Average velocity, \(\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{avg}}=\frac{\text { total displacement }}{\text { total time }}\)

= \(\frac{172.5}{(11 / 4)}=62.7 \mathrm{kmph}\)

Question 6. A ball A is dropped from the top of a building and at the same time an identical ball B is thrown vertically upward from the ground. When the balls collide the speed of A is twice that of B. At what fraction of the height of the building did the collision occur?
Solution:

Given at time of collision velocity of A = VA

= 2 x VB (velocity of B)

Let the body be dropped from a height ‘h’.

Let the two stones collide at x from the ground.

For the body dropped, \(\mathrm{s}=\mathrm{h}-\mathrm{x}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{gt}^2\)……(1)

For the body thrown up, x = ut – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt²…….(2)

For the body dropped, v = u + at ⇒ VA = gt…….(3)

For the body thrown up, v = u – gt ⇒ VB = u – gt……..(4)

Given VA = 2VB

⇒ gt = 2 (u – gt) or u = \(\frac{3gt}{2}\)…… (5)

Divide equation (1) with equation (2)

⇒ \(\frac{h-x}{x}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} g t^2}{u t-\frac{1}{2} g t^2} \Rightarrow \frac{h}{x}-1=\frac{\frac{1}{2} g t^2}{u t-\frac{1}{2} g t^2}\)

⇒ \(\frac{h}{x}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} g t^2+u t-\frac{1}{2} g t^2}{u t-\frac{1}{2} g t^2}\)

∴ \(\frac{h}{x}=\frac{u t}{u t-\frac{1}{2} g t^2}\)

Put u = \(\frac{3 g t}{2}\) then \(\frac{h}{x}=\frac{3 g t^2 / 2}{3 g t^2 / 2-\frac{1}{2} g t^2}\)

∴ \(\frac{h}{x}=\frac{3 g t^2}{2 g t^2}=\frac{3}{2}\)

∴ x = \(\frac{2}{3} h\)

∴ Fraction of height of collision = \(\frac{2}{3}\)

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Motion in a Straight Line Key Concepts

Question 7. Drops of water fall at regular intervals from the roof of a building of height 16 m. The first drop strikes the ground at the same moment as the fifth drop leaves the roof. Find the distances between successive drops.
Solution:

Height of building, h = 16 m

∴ Time taken to reach the ground, t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)

∴ Time taken to fall, t =\(\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 16}{9.8}}\)

= \(\sqrt{\frac{32}{9.8}}=\sqrt{3.26}=1.80\)

Number of drops, n = 5

∴ Number of intervals = n — 1 = 5 — 1 = 4

Motion In A Straight Line Water Fall At Regular Intervals

Time interval between drops = \(\frac{1.8}{4}\) = 0.45 sec

Time of travel of 1st drop, t1 = 4 x 0.45 = 1.81

∴ Distance travelled by 1st drop, \(s_1=\frac{1}{2} g t_1^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 9.8 \times 1.8 \times 1.8=16 \mathrm{~m}\)

For 2nd drop, t2 = 3 x0.45 = 1.35 sec., \(\mathrm{S}_2=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{gt}_2^2\);

= \(4.9 \times 1.822 \simeq 1.822=9 \mathrm{~m}\)

For 3rd drop, \(\mathrm{t}_3=2 \times 0.45=0.9 \mathrm{sec}\)

Distance \(\mathrm{S}_3=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{gt}_3^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 9.8 \times 0.9^2 =3.97\) = 4m

For 4th drop, \(t_4=1 \times 0.45=0.45 \mathrm{sec}\)

Distance travelled, \(\mathrm{S}_4=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{gt}_4^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 9.8\) \(\times(0.45)^2 \simeq 1\)

For 5 th drop, t5 = 0 ⇒ S5 = 0

Distance between 1st and 2nd drop S1,2 = S1 – S2 = 16-9 = 7 m

Distance between 2nd and 3rd drop S2,3 = S2 – S3 = 9 – 4 = 5m

Distance between 3rd and 4th drop S3,4 = S3 – S4 = 4 – 1= 3 m

Distance between 4th and 5th drop S4,5 = S4 – S5 = 1-0 = 1 m

∴ Distances between successive drops are 7m, 5m, 3m and lm.

Question 8. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 35 ms-1. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed of 12 ms-1 in east to west direction. What is the direction in which she should hold her umbrella?
Answer:

Velocity of rain VR = 35 m/s (vertically)

Velocity of women Vw = 12 m/s (towards east)

Motion In A Straight Line Rain Is falling Vertically

Resultant angle = \(\theta=\tan ^{-1} \frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{W}}}{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{R}}}=\frac{12}{35}\)

∴ \(\theta=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{12}{35}\right]=0.343 \text {. or } \theta=19^{\circ}\) (Nearly)

She should hold an umbrella at an angle of 19° with the east.

Question 9. A hunter aims a gun at a monkey hanging from a tree some distance away. The monkey drops from the branch at the moment he fires the gun hoping to avoid the builet. Explain why the monkey made a wrong move.
Answer:

Let the bullet be fired with an angle α and distance from hunter’s rifle to monkey = x

The vertical component of velocity vxy = v sin α

when exactly aimed at monkey Sy = v sinα t = h

Motion In A Straight Line A Hunter Aims A Gun At A Money hanging From A Tree

But acceleration due to gravity \(h_1=u \sin \alpha \mathrm{t}-\frac{1}{2} g t^2=h-\frac{1}{2} g t^2\)….(1)

So the bullet passes through a height of \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² below the monkey.

But when the monkey is falling freely height  of fall during time t = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

So new height is h – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² …… (2)

From equations (1) and (2) h1 is the same i.e., if the monkey is dropped from the branch bullet will hit it exactly.

KSEEB Physics Motion In A Straight Line Questions And Answers

Question 10. A food packet is dropped from an aeroplane, moving with a speed of 360 kmph in a horizontal direction, from a height of 500m. Find

  1. It is a time of descent
  2. The horizontal distance between the point at which the food packet reaches the ground and the point above which it was dropped.

Solution:

The velocity of plane, V = 360 kmph = 360 x \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 100 m/s

Height above ground, h = 500 m; g = 10 m/s²

1. Time of descent, \(\mathrm{t}=\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 500}{10}}=\sqrt{100}=10 \mathrm{sec}\)

2. Horizontal distance between the point of dropping and the point where it reaches the ground = Range R.

∴ R = \(u \sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}=100 \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 500}{10}}\) = 100 x 10 = 1000 m.

Question 11. A ball is tossed from the window of a building with an initial velocity of 8 ms-1 at an angle of 20° below the horizontal. It strikes the ground 3 s later. From what height was the ball thrown? How far from the base of the building does the ball strike the ground?
Solution:

Initial velocity, u = 8 m/s;

The angle of projection, θ = 20°

Time is taken to reach the ground, t = 3 sec.

The horizontal component of initial velocity, ux = u cos θ = 8 cos 20° = 8 x 0.94 = 7.52 m/s

Vertical component of initial velocity, vy = u sin θ = 8 sin 20° = 8 x 0.342 = 2.736 m/s

1. From equation of motion, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²

we can write h = (u sinθ)t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt²

⇒ h = (2.736)3 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 9.8 x(3)² .

⇒ h = 8.208+ 4.9 x 9

⇒ h = 8.208 + 44.1 or h = 52.308 m

Motion In A Straight LineA Ball Is Tossed From The Window Of A Building With An Intitial Velocity

2. Horizontal distance travelled, sx = vx x t = 7.52 x 3 = 22.56 m

Question 12. Two balls are projected from the same point in directions 30° and 60° with respect to the horizontal. What is the ratio of their initial velocities if they

  1. Attain the same height?
  2. Have the same range?

Solution:

The angle of projection of the first ball, θ1 =30°

The angle of projection of the second ball, θ2 = 60°

Let u1 and u2 be the velocities of projections of the two balls.

1. Maximum height of the first ball, \(\left(\mathrm{H}_{\max }\right)_1=\frac{\mathrm{u}_1^2 \sin ^2 30^{\circ}}{2 \mathrm{~g}}\)

Maximum height of second ball, \(\left(\mathrm{H}_{\max }\right)_2=\frac{\mathrm{u}_2^2 \sin ^2 60^{\circ}}{2 \mathrm{~g}}\)

Given that \(\left(H_{\max }\right)_1=\left(H_{\text {max }}\right)_2\)

⇒ \(\frac{u_1^2 \sin ^2 30^{\circ}}{2 g}=\frac{u_2^2 \sin ^2 60^{\circ}}{2 g}\)

⇒ \(u_1^2 \sin ^2 30^{\circ}=u_2^2 \sin ^2 60^{\circ}\)

⇒ \(\frac{u_1^2}{u_2^2}=\frac{\sin ^2 60^{\circ}}{\sin ^2 30^{\circ}} \Rightarrow \frac{u_1^2}{u_2^2}=\frac{(\sqrt{3} / 2)^2}{(1 / 2)^2}\)

⇒ \(\frac{u_1}{u_2}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{1}\) or \(u_1: u_2=\sqrt{3}: 1\)

2. If the balls have the same range, then \(R_1=R_2\)

i.e., \(\frac{u_1^2 \sin \left(2 \times 30^{\circ}\right)}{g}=\frac{u_2^2 \sin \left(2 \times 60^{\circ}\right)}{g}\)

⇒ \(u_1^2 \sin 60^{\circ}=u_2^2 \sin 120^{\circ}\)

⇒ \(\frac{u_1^2}{u_2^2}=\frac{\sin 120^{\circ}}{\sin 60^{\circ}} \Rightarrow \frac{u_1^2}{u_2^2}=\frac{\cos 30^{\circ}}{\sin 60^{\circ}}\)

⇒ \(\frac{u_1^2}{u_2^2}=\frac{\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}}{\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}} \text { or } u_1: u_2=1: 1\)

Question 13. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20 ms-1 from the top of a multistory building. The height of the point from where the hall Is thrown Is 25.0 in from the ground.

  1. How high will the ball rise?
  2. How long will it be before the ball hits the ground?
  3. Take g = 10 ms-2 [Actual value of ‘g’ is 9.8 ms-2]

Solution:

Initial velocity V0 = 20 m/s;

Height above ground h0 = 2.50 m ; g = 10 m/s²

1. For a body thrown up vertically height of rise \(\left(y-y_0\right)=\frac{u^2}{2 g}=\frac{20 \times 20}{2 \times 10}=20 \mathrm{~m}\)

2. Time spent in the air (t) is \(y_1-y_0=V_0 t+\frac{1}{2} g t^2\)

Where y1 = Total displacement of the body from the ground = 0

∴ 0 = \(y_0+V_0 t+\frac{1}{2} g t^2=25+20 t-\frac{1}{2} \cdot 10 . t^2\)

(because \(g=-10 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\)) while going up

∴ \(0=-5 t^2+20 t+25\) (or) \(t^2-4 t-5=0\)

i.e., (t-5)(t+1)=0

t=5 (or) t=-1

But time is not – ve.

∴ Time spent in air t = 5 sec

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Motion In A Straight Line 

Question 14. A parachutist flying in an aeroplane jumps when it is at a height of 3 km above ground. He opens his parachute when he is about 1 km above ground. Describe his motion.
Answer:

1. Height of fall before opening, h = 2 km = 2000 m

∴ Velocity at a height of 1 km

= \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{gh}_1}=\sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 2000}\)

= \(\sqrt{40000}=200 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

Time of fall, t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 2000}{10}}\)

= \(\sqrt{400}=20 \mathrm{sec}\)

2. After the parachute Is opened It touches the ground with almost zero velocity.

∴ u = 200 m/sec, v = 0, S = h = 1000 m

From v² – u² = 2as

Retardation, \(a=\frac{0-200^2}{1000}=-40 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{sec}^2\)

Time taken to reach ground, t = \(\frac{u}{a}\) = \(\frac{200}{40}\) = 5 sec

The month is as shown.

Motion In A Straight Line A Parachutist Flying In An Aeroplane Jumps

Question 15. A car moving along a straight highway with a speed of 126 km/h is brought to a stop within a distance of 200 m. What is the retardation of the car (assumed uniform) and how long does it take for the car to stop?
Solution:

Initial speed = V0 = 126 kmph

= 126 x \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 35 m/sec

Ending speed = V = 0

Distance taken to stop = X = 200 m.

From V² – V0² = 2ax .

a = \(\frac{-35}{2 \times 200}\) = \(\frac{-35 \times 35}{2 \times 200}\) = \(\frac{-49}{16}\)

Time taken to stop t =?

From V = V0 + at

0 = \(35+\frac{49}{16} \times t \Rightarrow t=\frac{35 \times 6}{49}\) = \(\frac{80}{7}=11.43 \mathrm{sec}\)

 

 

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 2 Units And Measurments

Units and Measurements Solutions KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Distinguish between accuracy and precision.
Answer:

Accuracy:

  1. It is defined as the closeness of the measured value to the true value.
  2. It depends on the minimization of errors.

Precision:

  1. It is defined as to what resolution the quantity is measured.
  2. It depends on the least count of the measuring instrument.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions

Question 2. What are the different types of errors that can occur in a measurement?
Answer:

Types Of Errors

  1. Systematic errors and
  2. Random errors.

Systematic Errors Are Again Divided Into

  1. Imperfection errors
  2. Environmental errors and
  3. Personal errors.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 2

Question 3. How can systematic errors be minimized or eliminated?
Answer:

Systematic Errors Can Be Minimised

  1. By improving experimental techniques,
  2. By selecting better instruments.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 2 Units And Measurments

Question 4. Illustrate how the result of a measurement is to be reported indicating the error involved.
Answer:

The result of the measurement is in the form of a number which indicates the precision of measurement along with the unit of the same physical quantity.

Question 5. What are significant figures and what do they represent when reporting the result
of a measurement?
Answer:

Significant figures represent all practically measured digits plus one uncertain digit at the end.

When a result Is reported in this way we can know up to what extent the value Is reliable and also the amount of uncertainty In that reported value.

Question 6. Distinguish between fundamental units| and derived units.
Answer:

The units of fundamental physical| quantities are called fundamental units.

Example: Kg, m, sec, etc.,

The units of derived physical quantities are called derived units.

Example: m/sec, J, m/sec² etc.,

Question 7. Why do we have different units for the same physical quantity?
Answer:

To measure the same physical quantity we have different units by keeping the magnitude of the quantity to be measured.

Example:

  1. The measure astronomical distances we will use light year.
    • 1 light year = 9.468 x 1015 m.
  2. To measure atomic distances we will use Angstrom Å (or) Fermi.

Question 8. What is dimensional analysis?
Answer:

Dimensional analysis is a tool to check the relations among physical quantities by using their dimensions.

Dimensional analysis is generally used to check the correctness of derived equations.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Units And Measurements Notes And Solutions

Question 9. How many orders of magnitude greater is the radius of the atom than that of the nucleus?
Answer:

Size of atom = 10-10 m,

Size of atomic nucleus = 10-14 m.

Size of the atom + size of the nucleus is \(\frac{10^{-10}}{10^{-14}}=10^4\)

∴ The size of an atom is 104 times greater than the size of the nucleus.

Question 10. Express unified atomic mass unit in kg.
Answer:

By definition,

1 a.m.u. = \(\frac{1}{12} \times \text { mass of an atom of }{ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\)

= \(\frac{1}{12} \times \frac{12 \mathrm{~g}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\)

= \(1.67 \times 10^{-24} \mathrm{~g}=1.67 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}\)

Chapter 2 Units And Measurements Short Answer Questions

Question 1. The vernier scale of an instrument has 50 divisions which coincide with 49 main scale divisions. If each main scale division is 0.5 mm, then using this instrument what would be the minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of distance?
Answer:

Least count of Vernier Callipers = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

∴ L.C. = 1 MSD – \(\frac{49}{50}\) MSD = \(\frac{1}{50}\) MSD

= \(\frac{1}{50}\) x 0.5 = 0.01 m.m

KSEEB Physics Class 11 Units and Measurements Key Concepts

Question 2. In a system of units, the unit of force is 100N, the unit of length is 10m and the unit of time is 100s. What is the unit of mass in this system?
Answer:

Here, F = MLT-2 = 100 N …….(1) ;

L = 10 m ; T = 100s

∴ From equation (1)

M X (10) X (100)-2 = 100

⇒ M X 10-3 = 100

⇒ M = \(\frac{100}{10_3}\)

⇒ M = 105 kg

Question 3. The distance of a galaxy from Earth is of the. order of 1025 m. Calculate the order of magnitude of the time taken by light to reach us from the galaxy.
Answer:

Size of galaxy = 1025 m,

Velocity of light, c = 3 x 108 ms-1

Time taken by light to reach Earth,

t = \(\frac{d}{c}=\frac{10^{25}}{3 \times 10^8}=\frac{1}{3} \times 10^{17}=0.3333 \times 10^{17}\)

While calculating the order of magnitude we will consider the power of Ten only.

So the order of magnitude of time taken by light to reach Earth from the galaxy is 1017 seconds.

Question 4. The Earth-Moon distance is about 60 Earth radius. What will be the approximate diameter of the Earth as seen from the Moon?
Answer:

Earth-moon distance, D = 60r.

Diameter of earth, b = 2r

Units And Measurments Earth Moon Distance

As seen from the moon

⇒ \(\theta=\frac{\text{Arc~} A B}{\text{Rad}}=\frac{2 \mathrm{r}}{60 \mathrm{r}}=\frac{1}{30} \mathrm{Rad}\)

∴ The size of the earth as seen from the moon is \(\frac{1}{30}\)

radians, or \(\frac{57^{\circ} 30^{\prime}}{30} \cong 1.9^{\circ} \text { (or) } 2^{\circ}\)

Units And Measurements Questions And Answers KSEEB Physics

Question 5. Three measurements of the time for 20 oscillations of a pendulum give t1 = 39.6 s, t2 = 39.9 s, and t3 = 39.5 s. What is the precision of the measurements? What is the accuracy of the measurements?
Answer:

Precision is the least measurable value with that instrument in our case precision is = 0.1 sec.

Calculation Of Accuracy:

Average value of measurements = \(\frac{39.6+39.9+39.5}{3}=\frac{119}{3}=39.67\)

Error in each measurement

⇒ \(\Delta a_1=39.6-39.6=0.07\);

⇒ \(\Delta a_2=39.9-39.67=0.23\);

⇒ \(\Delta a_3=39.67-39.5=0.17\)

∴ \(\Delta a_{\text {mesn }}=\frac{0.07+0.23+0.17}{3}=0.156\)

Precision ± 1 sec. In these measurements only two significant figures are believable. 3rd one is uncertain.

Adjustment of Δamean up to the given significant figure = 0.156 adjusted to 0.2.

So our value is accurate up to ±0.2

So our result is 39.67 ± 0.2, when significant figures are taken into account it is 39.7 ± 0.2 sec.

Question 6. 1 calorie = 4.2 J where 1 J = 1 kg m2s-2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass is α kg, the unit of length is β m, and the unit of time γ s, showing that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 α-1 β-2 γ2 in the new system.
Answer:

Here, 1 calorie = 4.2 J = 4.2 kg m2/s2 ……(1)

As a new unit of mass = α kg

∴ 1 kg = \(\frac{1}{\alpha}\) new unit of mass

⇒ α-1 new unit of mass

Similarly 1 m = β-1 new unit of length and 1 s = γ-1 new unit of time

Putting these values in (1) we get

1 calorie = 4.2 (α-1 new unit of mass) (β-1 new unit of length)² (γ-1  new unit of time)-2

= 4.2 α-1β-2γ2 new unit of energy, which was proved.

Question 7. A new unit of length is chosen so that the speed of light in vacuum is 1 ms-2. If light takes 8 min and 20s to cover this distance, what is the distance between the Sun and Earth in terms of the new unit?
Answer:

Given the velocity of light in a vacuum,

c = 1 new unit of length s-1

Time taken by the light of the Sun to reach Earth,

t = 8 min 20s = 8 x 60 + 20 = 500 s

∴ Distance between the Sun and Earth, x = c x t

= 1 new unit of length s-1 x 500s

= 500 new units of length.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 Units and Measurements Solutions

Question 8. A student measures the thickness of a human hair using a magnification 100 microscope. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average thickness (as viewed in the microscope) is 3.5 mm. What is the estimate of the thickness of hair?
Answer:

Magnification, \(\mathrm{m}=\frac{\text { observed width }(\mathrm{y})}{\text { real width }(\mathrm{x})}\)

⇒ x = \(\frac{\mathrm{y}}{\mathrm{m}}=\frac{3.5 \mathrm{~mm}}{100}=0.035 \mathrm{~mm}\)

∴ The thickness of the hair is 0.035 mm

Question 9. A physical quantity X is related to four mea¬surable quantities a, b, c, and d as follows?

X = a²b³C5/2d-2

The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c, and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. What is the percentage error in X?

Answer:

Here, X = a²b³C5/2d-2

⇒ \(\frac{\Delta X}{X}= \pm\left[2\left(\frac{\Delta a}{a}\right)+3\left(\frac{\Delta b}{b}\right)+\frac{5}{2}\left(\frac{\Delta c}{c}\right)+2\left(\frac{\Delta d}{d}\right)\right] \)

= \(\pm\left[2(1 \%)+3(2 \%)+\frac{5}{2}(3 \%)+2(4 \%)\right]\)

= ± 423.5 %

The percentage error in X is ± 23.5 %

Question 10. The velocity of a body is given by v = At² + Bt + C. If v and t are expressed in SI what are the units of A, B, and C?
Answer:

From the principle of Homogeneity, the terms At², Bt, and C must have the same dimensional formula of velocity V.

v = \(\text { Velocity }=\mathrm{LT}^{-1} \Rightarrow \mathrm{LT}^{-1}=\mathrm{A}\left[\mathrm{T}^2\right]\)

∴ A = \(\frac{\mathrm{LT}^{-1}}{\mathrm{~T}^2}=\mathrm{LT}^{-3}\) So unit of A is m/\(\mathrm{sec}^3\)

∴ \(\mathrm{LT}^{-1}=\mathrm{BT} \Rightarrow \mathrm{B}=\mathrm{LT}^{-2}\) So unit of B is \(\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{sec}^2\)

∴ \(\mathrm{LT}^{-1}=\mathrm{C}\)

So the unit of C is \(\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{sec}\).

Dimensional Formulae Of Physical Quantities

Units And Measurments Dimensional Formulae Of Physical Quantities

Units And Measurments Dimensional Formulae Of Physical Quantities 1

Units And Measurments Dimensional Formulae Of Physical Quantities 2

Units And Measurements Problems In KSEEB Physics Chapter 2

Question 1. In the expression, P = El² m-5 G-2 the quantities E, l, m in and G denote energy, angular momentum, mass, and gravitational constant respectively. Show that P is a dimensionless, quantity.
Solution:

Here, P = El² m-5 G-2

Here, I = energy, l = angular momentum

m = mass, G = gravitational constant

= \(\left[M \mathrm{~L}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]\left[\mathrm{M} \mathrm{L}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-1}\right]^2[\mathrm{M}]^{-5}\left[\mathrm{M}^{-1} \mathrm{~L}^3 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]^{-2}\)

= \(M^{1+2-5+2} \mathrm{~L}^{2+1-6} \mathrm{~T}^{-2-2+4}\)

P = \(\left[\mathrm{M}^0 \mathrm{~L}^0 \mathrm{~T}^0\right]\)

Hence, P is a dimensionless quantity.

Question 2. If the velocity of light c, Planck’s constant, h, and the gravitational constant G are taken as fundamental quantities; then express mass, length, and time in terms of dimensions of these quantities.
Solution:

Here, \(c=\left[L \cdot T^{-1}\right] ; h=\left[M L^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-1}\right]\);

G = \(\left[\mathrm{M}^{-1} \mathrm{~L}^3 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]\)

∴ E = \(\mathrm{h} v, \mathrm{~h}=\frac{\mathrm{E}}{v} ; \mathrm{G}=\left(\frac{\mathrm{Fd}^2}{\mathrm{~m}_1 \mathrm{~m}_2}\right)\)

Let m = \(c^x h^y G^z \rightarrow(1)\)

⇒ \(\left[M^1 L^0 T^0\right]=\left(L^{-1}\right)^x\left(M L^2 T^{-1}\right)^y\left(M^{-1} L^3 T^{-2}\right)^2\)

⇒ \(\left[M^1 L^0 T^0\right]=M^{y-z} L^{x+2 y+3 z} T^{-x-y-2 z}\)

Applying the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, we get

y – z = 1 → (2); x + 2y. + 3z = 0 → (3);

– x – y – 2z = 0 → (4)

Adding equation (2), equation (3) and equation (4),

2y = 1

⇒ y = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

∴ From eq. (2) z = y – 1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) – 1 = \(\frac{-1}{2}\)

From eq. (4) x = – y – 2z = \(\frac{-1}{2}\) + 1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Substituting the values of x, y, and z in eq. (1), we get

m = \(\mathrm{c}^{1 / 2} \mathrm{~h}^{1 / 2} \mathrm{G}^{-\sqrt{1 / 2}} \Rightarrow \mathrm{m}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{ch}}{\mathrm{G}}}\)

Proceeding as above we can show that

L = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{hG}}{c^3}}\) and \(\mathrm{T}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{hG}}{\mathrm{c}^5}}\)

Question 3. An artificial satellite revolves around a planet of mass M and radius R, in a circular orbit of radius r. Using dimensional analysis shows that the period of the satellite.

T = \(=\frac{k}{R} \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{g}}\)

where k is a dimensionless constant and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Solution:

Given that T² ∝ r³ or T ∝ r3/2

Also, T is a function of g and R

Let T ∝ r3/2 ga Rb where a, b are the dimensions of g and R.

(or) T = k r3/2 ga Rb → (1)

where k is a dimensionless constant of proportionality

From equation (1) \(\left[M^0 L^0 T^1\right]=L^{3 / 2}\left(L T^{-2}\right)^a(L)^b=M^0 L^{a+b+\frac{3}{2}} T^{-2 a}\)

Applying the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, we get

a + b + \(\frac{3}{2}=0\)…..(2)

∴ -2 a=1

⇒ a = \(\frac{-1}{2}\)

From eq (1), \(\frac{-1}{2}+b+\frac{3}{2}=0 \Rightarrow b=-1\)

Substituting the values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ in eq. (1), we get

T = \(k r^{3 / 2} \cdot g^{-1 / 2} R^{-1}\)

T = \(\frac{k}{R} \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{g}}\)

This is the required relation.

Units And Measurements KSEEB Class 11 Physics

Question 4. State the number of significant figures in the following

  1. 6729
  2. 0.024
  3. 0.08240
  4. 6.032
  5. 4.57 x 108

Solution:

  1. In 6729 all are significant figures.
    • A number of significant figures are Four.
  2. In 0.024 the zeroes to the left of 1st non-zero digit of a number less than one are not significant.
    • A number of significant figures Two.
  3. 0.08240 – Significant figures Four.
    • In 6.032 the zero between two non-zero digits is significant.
    • So, a number of significant figures in 6.023 are 4.
  4. 4.57 x 108 Significant figures Three.

[In the representation of powers of Ten our rule is only significant figures must be given].

Question 5. One stick has a length of 12.132 cm and another has a length of 12.4 cm. If the two sticks are placed end what is the total length? If the two sticks are placed side by side, what Is the difference in their lengths?
Solution:

1. When placed end to end total length is

l = l1 + l2

l1 = 12.132 cm and l2 = 12.4 cm.

∴ l1 + l2 = 12.132 + 12.4 = 24.532 cm.

Units And Measurments Two Sticks Are Placed End

In addition, the final answer must have the least number of significant numbers in that addition, i.e., one after the decimal point.

So our answer is 24.5 cm.

2. For difference use l1 – l2

i.e., 12.4- 12.132 = 0.268 cm.

In subtraction final answer must be adjusted to the least number of significance figures in that operation.

Here least number is one digit after I decimal. By applying the round-off procedure] our answer is 0.3 cm.

Question 6. Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 m. What is

  1. The total surface area and
  2. The volume of the cube, to appropriate significant figures?

Solution:

Side of the cube, a = 7.203 m.

So a number of significant figures is Four.

1. Surface area of cube = 6a²

= 6x 7.203x 7.203 = 311.2991

But our final answer must be rounded to the least number of significant figures is four digits.

So the surface area of the cube = 311.3 m³

2. Volume of cube, V = a³ = (7.203)³ = 373.1471

But the answer must be limited to Four! significant figures.

∴ The volume of the sphere, V = 373.1 m³.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics solutions for Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 7. The measured mass and volume of a body are 2.42 g and 4.7 cm³ respectively with possible errors 0.01 g and 0.1 cm³. Find the maximum error in density.
Solution:

Mass, m = 2.42 g ; Error, Δm = 0.01 g. Volume, V = 4.7 cm³, Error, ΔV = 0.1 cc.

% error in mass = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{m}} \times 100=\frac{0.01}{2.42} \times 100\)

= \(\frac{1}{2.42}\)

% error in volume = \(\frac{0.1}{4.7} \times 100\) = \(\frac{10}{4.7}\)

Density = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Volume }}=\frac{M}{V}\)

Maximum % error in density = % error in mass + % error in volume

∴ Maximum percentage error in density = \(\frac{1}{2.42}+\frac{10}{4.7}=0.413+2.127=2.54 \%\)

Question 8. The error in the measurement of the radius of a sphere is 1%. What is the error in the measurement of volume?
Solution:

Percentages Errors in radius = 1% = \(\frac{\Delta r}{r} \times 100\)

The volume of sphere V ∝ r³

⇒ ΔV = 3r²Δr

⇒ \(\frac{\Delta V}{V}=3 \frac{r^2 \cdot \Delta r}{r}\)

Percentage error in volume \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}=3\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{r}} \times 100\right)=3 \times 1=3 \%\)

Question 9. The percentage error in the mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. What is the maximum error in kinetic energy calculated using these quantities?
Solution:

Percentage change in mass = \(\frac{\Delta m}{m} \times 100\) = 2%

Percentages chage in speed = \(\frac{\Delta v}{v} \times 100\) = 3%

But K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = mv

Percentages change in K.E = 1(% change mass) + 2(% change in velocity)

∴ Percentage change in K.E

= \(1\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{m}} \times 100\right)+2\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{v}}{\mathrm{v}} \times 100\right)\)

= 1 x 2 + 2 x 3 = 8%

Question 10. One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L (molar volume). If the size of the hydrogen molecule is about 1Å, what is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen?
Solution:

Size of Hydrogen atom = 1Å =10-10 m = 10-8 cm

V1 = Atomic volume = number of atoms x volume of atom.

One mole gas contains ‘n’ molecules.

Avogadro Number, n = 6.022 x 1023

∴ \(V_1=\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3 \times n\)

= \(\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times\left[10^{-8}\right]^3 \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}\)

= \(25.23 \times 10^{-1}\)or \(2.523 \mathrm{cc} \text {. }\)

∴ \(\mathrm{V}_2\) = Molar volume of 1 mol gas = 22.4 lit

= \(2.24 \times 10^4 \mathrm{c} . \mathrm{c}\)

∴ 1 lit =1000 c.c.

∴ The ratio of molar volume to atomic volume

= \(\mathrm{V}_2: \mathrm{V}_1\)

= \(2.24 \times 10^4: 2.523=10^4 \mathrm{~m}\)

 

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 1 Physical Word

KSEEB Class 11 Physics  Chapter 1 Physical World Synopsis

Physics: Physics is the study of nature and natural phenomena.

Fundamental Forces In Nature: In physics

  1. Gravitational Force
  2. Electromagnetic Force
  3. Strong nuclear Force
  4. Weak nuclear Force.

Gravitational Force: It is the force of attraction between any two objects by virtue of their masses.

  • These are very weak forces. They are very long-distance forces. For heavy bodies like planets and stars etc., the magnitude of these forces is high.
  • These forces are very important in planetary motion and in the formation of Stars and Galaxies.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions

Electromagnetic Forces: It is the force between two charged particles.

  • Between like charges they are “repulsive forces” and between unlike charges, they are “attractive forces”.
  • These forces are very strong forces. These are long-distance forces.

Strong Nuclear Forces: Strong nuclear forces bind protons and neutrons in a nucleus.

These are very strong attractive forces. They are 100 times stronger than electromagnetic forces. They are short-range forces. Their effect is up to very few fermi.

Weak Nuclear Forces: Weak nuclear forces will appear only in certain nuclear processes such as β-the decay of the nucleus where the nucleus emits electrons and neutrino.

These are weak forces, their range is up to a few fermi.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 Solved Examples

Conserved Quantities: In physics, any physical phenomenon is governed by certain forces. Several physical quantities will change with time blit some special physical quantities will remain constant with time. Such physical quantities are called conserved quantities of nature.

Conserved Quantities Example: For motion under an external conservative force such as a gravitational field the total mechanical energy (i.e., P.+K.E) is constant or energy is conserved.

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Solutions For Chapter 1 Physical Word

Physical World Solutions KSEEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. What is Physics?
Answer:

Physics is a branch of science that deals with the study of nature and natural phenomena.

Question 2. What is the discovery of C.V. Raman?
Answer:

C.V. Raman’s contribution to physics is the Raman effect. It deals with the scattering of light by molecules of a medium when they] are excited to vibrational energy levels.

Question 3. What are the fundamental forces in nature?
Answer:

There Are Four Fundamental Forces In Nature

  1. Gravitational force
  2. Electromagnetic force
  3. Strong nuclear force
  4. Weak nuclear force

Question 4. Which of the following has symmetry?

  1. Acceleration due to gravity.
  2. Law of gravitation.

Answer:

  1. Acceleration due to gravity varies from place to place. So it has no symmetry.
  2. The law of gravitation has symmetry because it does not depend on any physical quantity.

Question 5. What is S. Chandra Seklmi’s contribution to physics?
Answer:

S. ChandraSekhnrdlsoovorod Hit-slniclurn and evolutIon ol stars. I defined the “Chandra Sekhar limit” which Is used In the study of black holes.

Question 6. What Is beta (β) decay? Which force is a function of it?
Answer:

In β-decay, the nucleus emits an electron and an uncharged particle called neutrino.

β – decay is due to weak nuclear forces.

Some Physicists And Their Major Contributions

Physical Word Some Physics And Their Major Contributions

Fundamental Forces Of Nature

Physical World Fundamental Forces Of Nature

Fundamental Constants Of Physics

Physical World Fundamental Constants Of Physics

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Physical World Notes And Solutions

Conversion Factors:

  • 1 metre 100 cm
  • 1 millimeter 10-3 m
  • 1 inch 2.54 x 10-2 m
  • 1 micron (μ) 10-4 cm
  • 1 Angstrom (A°) 10-8 cm
  • 1 fermi (f) 10-13 cm
  • 1 kilometer 103 m
  • 1 light year 9.46 x 1015 m
  • 1 litre 10³ cm³
  • 1 kilogram 1000 gm
  • 1 metric ton 1000 kg
  • 1 pound 453.6 gm
  • 1 atomic mass
  • unit (a.m.u) 1.66 x 10-27 kg
  • 1 a.m.u 931 MeV
  • 1 day 8.640 x 104 seconds
  • 1 km/hour \(\frac{5}{8} m/sec or 0.2778 meter/sec
  • 1 Newton 105 dynes
  • 1 gm wt 980.7 dynes
  • 1 kg. wt 9.807 Newton
  • 1 Newton/meter² 1 Pascal
  • 1 atmospheric pressure 1.0133 x 105 pascal (N/m²) or, 76 cm of Hg
  • 1 Pascal 10 dyne/cm²
  • 1 Joule 107 erg
  • 1 kilo watt hour 3.6 x 106 joule
  • 1 electron volt (ev) 1.602 x 10-19 joule
  • 1 watt 1 joule/sec
  • 1 horsepower (HP) 746 watt
  • 1 degree (°) 60 minute (‘)
  • 1 Radian 57.3 degree (° )
  • 1 Poise 1 dyne. sec / cm²
  • 1 Poiseuille 10 poise (Newton, sec/m2² (or) Pascal sec.)

Important Prefixes:

Physical World Important Prefixes

The Greek Alphabet:

Physical World The Greek Alphabet

Formulae Of Geometry:

  1. Area of triangle = 1/2 x base x height
  2. Area of parallelogram = base x height
  3. Area of square = (length of one side)²
  4. Area of rectangle = length x breadth
  5. Area of circle = πr² (r = radius of circle)
  6. Surface area of sphere = 4πr² (r = radius of sphere)
  7. The volume of cube = (length of one side of the cube)³
  8. The volume of parallelopiped = length x breadth x height
  9. Volume of cylinder = πr²l
  10. Volume of sphere = [latex]\frac{4}{3}\) πr³and Circumference of square = 4l
  11. Volume of cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\) πr²h
  12. Circumference of circle = 2πr

Formulae Of Algebra:

  1. (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab
  2. (a-b)² = a² + b² -2ab
  3. (a² – b²) = (a + b) (a – b)
  4. (a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab (a + b)
  5. (a – b)³ = a³ – b³ – 3ab (a – b)
  6. (a + b)² – (a – b)² = 4ab
  7. (a + b)² + (a – b)² = 2(a² + b²)

Formulae Of Differentiation:

  1. \(\frac{d}{d x}\) (constant) = 0 dx; Differentiation with respect to x = \(\frac{d}{d x}\)
  2. \(\frac{d}{d x}\left(x^m\right)=n x^{n-1}\)
  3. \(\frac{d}{d x}(\sin x)=\cos x\)
  4. \(\frac{d}{d x}(\cos x)=-\sin x\)

KSEEB Class 11 Physics Physical World Key Concepts

Formulae of Integration: Integration with respect to x = dx

  1. \(\int d x=x\)
  2. \(\int x^n d x=\frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}\)
  3. \(\int \sin x d x=\cos x+c\)
  4. \(\int \cos x d x=\sin x+c\)

Formulae Of Logarithm:

  1. log mn = (log m + log n)
  2. log(\(\frac{m}{n}\)) = (log m – log n)
  3. log mn = n log m

Value Of Trigonometric Functions:

Physical World Value Of Trigonometric Functions

Signs Of Trigonometrical Ratios:

sin (90° – θ) = cos θ; sin (180° – θ) = sin θ

cos (90° – θ) = sin θ ; cos (180° – θ) = – cos θ

tan (90° – θ) = cot θ ; tan (180° – θ) = _-tanθ

According To Binomial Theorem: (1 + x)n ≈(1 + nx) if x < < 1

Quadratic Equation: ax² + bx + c = 0

x = \(\left(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4 a c}}{2 a}\right)\)

 

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Materials: Metals and Non-Metals

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Materials Metals and Non-Metals Points To Remember

Physical properties: Metals are

  1. Malleable
  2. Ductile
  3. Good conductors of heat and electricity
  4. Lustrous
  5. Solids at room temperature except for mercury.
  6. High melting and boiling points.
  7. Hard except for sodium and potassium
  8. Sonorous

Non-metals are:

  1. Nonmalleable
  2. Non – ductile
  3. Bad conductors of heat and electricity
  4. Non-lustrous
  5. Generally solids and gases at room temperature
  6. Have low melting and boiling points
  7. Are soft except for diamond
  8. Non – sonorous

Chemical properties :

  1. Metal oxides are basic in nature, which turn red litmus blue
  2. Non-metal oxides are acidic in nature, which turn blue litmus red
  3. Metals react with water to produce metal hydroxide and evolve hydrogen gas.
  4. Metals react with dilute acids forming a salt and evolving hydrogen gas.
  5. The process where metal gets eaten away due to a chemical reaction with atmospheric gases and moisture is known as corrosion.
  6. The arrangement of metals in the order of their decreasing reactivity is the reactivity series.
  7. Graphite is used for making electrodes, cru- cables and pencil lead.
  8. Phosphorus is used in the match stick industry and in fireworks
  9. Sulphur is used in the vulcanisation of rubber
  10. Copper and aluminium are used to make electrical wires.
  11. Alloys are the mixtures of two or more metals or metals and non-metals.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Materials Metals And Non Metals

Materials: Metals and Non-Metals Ncert Textbook Exercises

Question 1. Which of the following can be beaten into thin sheets?
1. Zinc
2. Phosphorus
3. Sulphur
4. Oxygen
Answer: 1. Zinc

Question 2. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) All metals are ductile
2) All non-metals are ductile
3) Generally, metals are ductile
4) Some, non-metals are ductile
Answer: 3) Generally, metals are ductile

Question 3. Fill in the blanks :
(1) Phosphorusisavery_____non-metals.
(2) Metals are ______ conductors of heat and _______
(3) Iron is _______ reactive than copper.
(4) Metals react with acids to produce ______ gas.
Answer:
(1)Reactive
(2) Good, Electricity
(3) More
(4) Hydrogen

Question 4. Mark ‘T” if the statement is true and ‘F’ if it is false.
(1) Generally, non-metals react with acids.
(2) Sodium is a very reactive metal.
(3) Copper displaces zinc from zinc sulphate
(4) Coal can be drawn into wires.
Answer:
(1) False
(2) True
(3) False
(4) False

Class 8 Science KSEEB Materials Metals And Non-Metals notes 

Question 5. Some properties are listed Distinguish between metals and non-metals on the basis of these properties.
Answer:
Properties
1. Appearance
2. Hardness
3. Malleability
4. Ductility
5. Heat Conduction
6. Conduction of electricity
Metals
1. Lustrous
2. Hard
3. Malleable
4. Ductile
5. Good Conductors
6. Good
Non-metals
1. Dull
2. Soft
3. Non-malleable
4. Non-ductile
5. Bad conductors
6. Bad conductors

Question 6. Give reasons for the following
1)Aluminium foils are used to wrap food items.
Answer: Because aluminium metal is malleable and therefore, it can be beaten into thin foils.

2) Immersion rods for heating liquids are made up of metallic substances.
Answer: Because metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.

3) Copper cannot displace zinc from its salt. solution.
Answer: Because copper is less reactive than zinc.

4) Sodium and potassium are stored in kerosene.
Answer: Because they are highly reactive elements and can catch fire easily when in contact with air.

Question 7. Can you store the lemon pickles in an aluminium utensil? Explain.
Answer: Lemon pickle cannot be stored in aluminium utensils because lemon pickle contains acids, which can react with aluminium (metal) liberating hydrogen gas, and can lead to the spoiling of the pickle.

Question 8. Match the substances in column A with their applications given in column B
Column A                             Column B
(substance)                         (Application)
Gold                                 (1) Thermometer
Iron                                  (2) Electric wires
Aluminium                      (3) Wrapping food
Carbon                            (4) Jewellery
Copper                            (5) Machinery
Mercury                          (6) Fuel

Answer: Gold-(4) Jewellery
Iron-(5) Machinery
Aluminium-(3) Wrapping food
Carbon -(6) Fuel
Copper -(2) Electric wires,
Mercury-(1) Thermometer

Question 9. What happens when
1) Dilute sulphuric acid is poured on a copper plate?
2) Iron nails are placed in copper sulphate solution?
Write word equations of the reactions involved.
Answer:
1) No reaction will take place because copper is very less reactive.
2) Iron being more reactive displaces copper from the copper sulphate solution. In this reaction, the blue colour of copper sulphate fades and there is a deposition of copper on the iron nail.
Iron + Copper sulphate — Iron sulphate + copper

Question 10. Saloni took a piece of burning charcoal and collected the gas evolved in a test tube.
1) How will she find the nature of the gas?
2) Write down the word equations of all the reactions taking place in this process.
Answer: 1) Saloni can find the nature of the gas by using a wet litmus paper. After bringing the litmus paper in contact with the gas, if it turns the blue litmus paper into red, it is acidic, and if it turns red litmus into blue, it is basic.

2) Carbon + Oxygen — Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide + lime water — Milky
or
Carbon dioxide + water — carbonic acid (Blue litmus red)

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Important Questions 

Question 11. One day Reeta went to a jeweller’s shop with her mother. Her mother gave old gold jewellery to the goldsmith to polish. The next day, when they brought the jewellery back, they found that there was a slight loss in its weight. Can you suggest a reason for the loss in weight?
Answer: The gold jewellery is dipped into an acidic solution called aquaria (a mixture of hydrochloric acid and nitric acid) for polishing. On dipping the gold jewellery in the acid solution, the outer layer of gold dissolves and the inner shiny layer appears. This causes a slight loss in weight.

Materials: Metals and Non-Metals Activities

Take a small iron nail, a coal piece, a piece of thick aluminium wire and a pencil lead. Beat the iron nail with a hammer
Beating an iron nail with hammer(But take care that you don’t hurt yourself in the process). Try to hit hard. Hit hard the aluminium wire also. Then repeat the same kind of treatment on the coal piece and pencil lead. Record your observations Malleability of Materials
Object/Material                                          Change in Shape
Iron wall Flattens                                       (Flattens/Breaks into Pieces)
Coal piece                                                   Breaks into pieces
Aluminium wire                                         Flattens
Pencil lead                                                  Breaks into pieces
Answer: This activity shows that iron and aluminium are malleable while coal pieces and pencil lead are brittle. Thus, metals are malleable and non-metals are non-malleable.

Question 2. Recall how to make an electric circuit to test whether electricity can pass through an object or not.

electric testerYou might have performed the activity with various objects in Class VI. Now, repeat the activity with the materials mentioned Observe and group these materials into good conductors and poor conductors.

Materials                                             Good Conductor/Poor Conductor
Iron rod/nail                                       Good conductor
Sulphur                                               Poor conductor
Coal piece                                           Poor conductor 
Copper wire                                        Good conductor
Answer: It shows that metals are good conductors of electricity and non-metals are poor conductors of electricity.

Question 3. Let us check the nature of rust formed as a result of the reaction between iron, oxygen and water. Collect a spoonful of rust and dissolve it in a very little amount of water. You will find that the rust remains suspended in water. Shake the suspension well. Test the solution with red and blue litmus papers, What do you observe? Is the solution acidic or basic?

testing the nature of rustAnswer: We observed that the red litmus paper turns blue which shows that the injury of rust is basic. Blue litmus paper does not show any colour change with the solution.

KSEEB Class 8 Science Solutions For Materials Metals And Non-Metals 

Question 4. (To be demonstrated by the teacher in the (class)
Take a small amount of powdered sulphur in a deflagrating spoon and heat it. If the deflagrating spoon is not available, you may take a metallic cap of any bottle and wrap a metallic wire around it and give it the shape.
improvised deflagrating spoonAs soon as sulphur start burning, introduce the spoon into a gas jar/glass tumbler. Cover the tumbler with a lid to ensure that the gas produced does not escape. Remove the spoon after some time. Add a small quantity of water into the tumbler and quickly of water into the tumbler and quickly replace the lid. Shake the tumbler well. Check the solution with red and blue litmus papers.

red and blue litmus papersAnswer: We observed that the solution of oxide turns the blue litmus red which shows that the solution is acidic in nature. This also shows that the oxide of non-metals is acidic in nature.

Question 5. Take a 250 ml. beaker/glass tumbler. Fill half of it with water. Now carefully cut a small piece of sodium metal. Dry it using filter paper and wrap it in a small piece of cotton. Put the sodium piece wrapped in cotton into the beaker. Observe carefully.
When the reaction stops, touch the beaker. What do you feel? Has the beaker become hot? Test the solution with red and blue litmus papers. Is the solution acidic or basic?
reaction of sodium with waterAnswer: On touching the beaker, it felt hot. The solution turns the red litmus paper to blue which shows it is basic in nature. Blue litmus paper does not show any colour change with the solution.

Question 6. Take samples of metals and non-metals given in separate test tubes and label them as A, B, C, D, E and F. With the help of a dropper add 5 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid to each test tube one by one. Observe the reactions carefully. If no reaction occurs in the cold solution, warm the test tube gently. Bring a burning matchstick near the mouth of each test tube. Repeat the same activity using dilute sulphuric acid instead of dilute hydrochloric acid.

The reaction of Metals and Non-metals with Acids
Reactions of metals and non metals with acids 12
Answer: This activity shows that metals usually displace hydrogen from dilute acids whereas non-metals do not do so and no hydrogen gas is evolved.

Question 7. Prepare a fresh solution of sodium hydroxide in a test tube by dissolving 3-4 pellets of it in 5 mL of water. Drop a piece of aluminium foil into it. Bring a burning matchstick near the mouth of the test tube. Observe carefully.
Answer: We observed that a colourless gas is evolved which burns with a pop sound. This shows that aluminium reacts with bases on heating to produce hydrogen gas.

Question 8. Take five 100 mL beakers and label them A,B, C, D and E. Take about 50 mL of water in each beaker. Dissolve in each beaker a teaspoonful of each substance as indicated
(1) Keep the beakers undisturbed for some time
(2) Record your observations in your notebook.

Picture

Beaker A: Copper sulphate (CuSO4) + Zinc granule (Zn)
Beaker B: Copper sulphate (CuSO4) + Iron nail (Fe)
Beaker C: Zinc sulphate (ZnSO4) + Copper turnings (Cu)
Beaker D: Iron sulphate (FeSO4) + Copper turnings (Cu)
Beaker E: Zinc sulphate (ZnSO4) + Iron nail(Fe)

Answer: In beaker ‘A’ zinc (Zn) replaces copper (Cu) with copper sulphate (CuS04) solution. That is why the blue colour of copper sulphate changes to colourless and a powdery red mass of copper is deposited at the bottom of the beaker. The reaction can be represented as follows:

science_formulaIn beaker B, iron replaces copper from its solution. That is why the blue colour of copper sulphate changes to the green colour of ferrous sulphate.

science formula 1
In beakers C, D and E no change in colour or heat evolution is observed. This indicates that the metals are unable to displace the other metals from their solution.

Materials: Metals and Non-Metals Additional Questions

Question 1. Examples of metals.
Answer: Iron, sodium, aluminium

Question 2. Examples of nonmetals.
Answer: Sulphur, oxygen, hydrogen

Question 3. Name two soft metals
Answer: Sodium, potassium.

Question 4. Which non-metal is essential for our life and all living beings inhale during breathing?
Answer: Oxygen

Question 5. Which property of metals makes them suitable for use in jewellery?
Answer: Ductility

Materials Metals And Non-Metals Class 8 KSEEB Questions And Answers 

Question 6. Define malleability
Answer: The property of metals by which they can be drawn into thin sheets.

Question 7. Which liquid metal is used for making thermometers?
Answer: Mercury

Question 8. What do you understand by a displacement reaction? Give example.
Answer: A chemical reaction in which a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution.
Ex: CuSO, +Fe — FeSO, + Cu

Copper sulphate + Iron — Iron sulphate + Copper

Question 9. What is rust?
Answer: Reddish brown coating that is formed on iron objects on exposure to moist air.

Question 10. Name the metal and non-metal which occur in a liquid state.
Answer: Mercury (metal), bromine (non-metal).

Question 11. Due to which property a bell rings?
Answer: Sonority

Simplified Notes For KSEEB Class 8 Science Metals And Non-Metals 

Question 12. State the property of non-metals due to which phosphorus is kept in water.
Answer: Non-metals do not react with water.

Question 13. Which metal is used for wrapping food items?
Answer: Aluminium

Question 14. Whose oxides are basic in nature: Metal or non-metal?
Answer: Metal

Question 15. What are the main uses of metals?
Answer: Metals are very useful to us in many ways. For example:

  1. Due to their thermal and electrical conductivity, metals are used to make utensils, cooking vessels, wires and appliances. For example, copper and aluminium are mainly used for these purposes.
  2. Metals like iron and steel are used in various tools, machinery, pipes, rods, sheets, doors, windows, and construction works like bridges, roads, buildings, etc.,
  3. Aluminium is used as packaging and wrapping materials. It is also used in aircraft and automobiles, etc.
  4. Metals like gold, silver and platinum are used to make jewellery and other decorating items.
  5. Zinc is used in galvanisation and dry cell and chromium in electroplating.
  6. Lead is used in making electrodes and batteries.

Question 16. What are the main uses of non-metals?
Answer: Like metals, non-metals also play an important role in our lives. They help us in many ways. For example

  1. We breathe oxygen which is the basis of life for all living things including human beings. Without it, no living beings can exist alive on this earth.
  2. CO2, which is a non-metal oxide is essential for plants to carry out photosynthesis.
  3. Non-metals like nitrogen and phosphorus are used in fertilisers for better yield of plants.
  4. Phosphorus is used in the manufacturing of matchsticks and fireworks.
  5. Non-metal-like iodine is used in the purple-coloured solution applied on wounds. Sulphur is also used in preparing skin medicines and making ointments due to its fungicidal properties.
  6. Non-metal-like chlorine is used in the water purification process. Due to its bleaching properties, it is used to make bleaching powder.
  7. Carbon, a non-metal, is used in most the fuels

Materials: Metals and Non-Metals Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following is not a metal?
(1) Copper
(2) Sulphur
(3)Aluminium
(4) Iron
Answer: (2) Sulphur

Question 2. The substance that will be flattened on beating with a hammer is
(1) Crystalofiodine
(2) Lump of sulphur
(3) Piece of coal
(4) Zine granule
Answer: (4) zinc granule
Explanation: Metals can be beaten into thin sheets whereas non-metals break into pieces on hitting hence answer is (d) zine granule.

Question 3. Boojho has learnt that non-metals on beating with a hammer are generally broken into pieces. Which of the following is a nonmetal?
(1) Iron nail
(2) Aluminium wire
(3) Copperplate
(4) Piece of coal
Answer: (4) Piece of coal
Explanation: Iron, Copper and aluminium are metals whereas coal is a non-metal hence answer is (d) a piece of coal.

Question 4. Materials which can be drawn into wires are called ductile. Which of the following is not a ductile material?
(1) Silver
(2) Copper
(3) Sulphur
Answer: (3) sulphur
Explanation: Ductility is the property of metals. Here Sulphur is non-metal which is not have ductile properties.

Question 5. Metals are generally hard. Which of the following metals is an exception and can be cut with a knife?
(1) Iron
(2) Sodium
(3) Gold
(4) Magnesium
Answer: (2) Sodium
Explanation: Sodium is a highly reactive metal which looks soft and can be cut into pieces by using a knife.

Question 6. Metals are generally solid. Which of the following metals is in the liquid state at room temperature?
(1) Mercury
(2) Silver
(3)Aluminium
(4) Sodium
Answer: (1) Mercury

Question 7. Metals generally react with dilute acids to produce hydrogen gas. Which one of the following metals does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(1) Magnesium
(2) Aluminium
(3) Iron
(4) Copper
Answer:(4) Copper
Explanation: Less reactive metals like Copper, gold and silver does not react with dilute HCl to produce Hydrogen gas.

Explanation Of Metals And Non-Metals In KSEEB Science 

Question 8. Which of the following reacts with cold water vigorously?
(1) Carbon
(2) Sodium
(3) Magnesium
(4) Sulphur
Answer:(2) Sodium
Explanation: Sodium reacts vigorously with water, hence it is stored in kerosene to avoid the reaction of sodium with moisture in the atmosphere and oxygen.

Question 9. The metal which produces hydrogen gas in reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid as well as sodium hydroxide solution is
(1) Copper
(2) Iron
(3) Aluminium
(4) Sodium
Answer:(3) Aluminium
Explanation: Aluminium reacts with dilute HCI as well as NaOH to produce Hydrogen Gas.

Question 10. Which of the following non-metals reacts and catches fire on exposure to air?
(1) Phosphorus
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Sulphur
(4) Hydrogen
Answer: (1) Phosphorus

Question 11. Generally, metallic oxides are basic and nonmetallic oxides are acidic in nature. The solution of which of the following oxides in water will change the colour of blue litmus to red?
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Magnesium oxide
(3) Iron oxide
(4) Copper oxide
Answer: (1) Sulphur dioxide
Explanation: Sulphur forms Sulphur-di-oxide which is acidic in nature and it will convert blue litmus to red.

Question 12. Which of the following property is not responsible for copper being used as electrical conduction wires?
(1) Ductility
(2)Colour
(3) Good conductor of electricity
(4) It is solid
Answer : (2) Colour.

Question 13. Name two major non-metals which are present in fertilisers and enhance the growth of plants.
Answer: (1) Nitrogen (2) Phosphorus

Question 14. Which non-metal is used to disinfect water?
Answer: Chlorine.

Question 15. A purple-coloured non-metal forms a brown solution in alcohol which is applied on wounds as an antiseptic. Name the nonmetal.
Answer: Iodine.

Question 16. Zinc sulphate forms a colourless solution in water. Will you observe any colour on adding copper turning in it?
Answer: There will be no change as displacement reaction will not take place.

Question 17. Why are bells made of metals?
Answer: Metals show the sonorous property, hence they are used in making bells.

Question 18. Paheli bought a statue made of copper. To her surprise, it acquired a dull green coating after a couple of months. Explain the reason.
Answer: The green coating on the copper statue is a mixture of Cu(OH), and CuCO, which are formed due to the reaction of moisture and copper.

Question 19. Some of the following statements are incorrect. Find the incorrect statements and correct them.
(1) The property of metals by virtue of which they can be drawn into wires is called ductility.
(2) Metals are good conductors of electricity but poor conductors of heat.
(3) Articles made of metals produce a ringing sound when struck hard.
(4) Oxides of non-metals and metals are acidic in nature.
(5) A less reactive metal replaces a more reactive metal from its salt solution in water.

Answer: Statements
 2), 4) and 5) are wrong statements
2) Metals are good conductors of electricity as well as heat.
4) Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature and oxides of metals are basic in nature.
5) Amore reactive metal replaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution in water.

20. Match the substances in Column A with their applications given in Column B.
Column A (Substance)             Column B (Application)
Oxygen                                       for making crackers
Copper                                        for disinfecting water
Sulphur                                       all living beings inhale during breathing
iron                                             for making electric wires

Answer:

Column A(Substance)               Column B(Application)
Oxygen                                      all living beings inhale during breathing
Copper                                       for making electric wires
Sulphur                                      for making crackers
Iron                                            for making rails
chlorine                                     for disinfecting water

elements

Karnataka State Board Syllabus for Class 8 Textbooks Solutions

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 7 Europe In The Middle Ages

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 7 Europe In The Middle Ages Points To Remember

  • Cultural bankruptcy was seen for almost one thousand years after the glorious cultural achievements in the history of Greece and Rome. This was called the ‘Dark Age’.
  • After the fall of the Roman Empire, the political and social systems of many European countries plunged into chaos.
  • After the death of the Roman Emperor, Charlemagne, anarchy prevailed and there was no protection for life and property. At such a critical period, a new political and economic system took birth in Western Europe called feudalism.
  • Naturally, the king was the owner of all the land. The king donated land to the nobles. The nobles donated small areas of land to their subordinates.
  • The feudal system was an arrangement to gain specific services from the feudal lords. The feudal system can be considered an arrangement or an agreement between the powerful and the weak.
  • The person who owned the land was called the noble, whereas the person who maintained the land was called the vassal.
  • Feudalism consisted of two important traditions: the first one was ‘Investiture’. Under this tradition, the lord gave assurances of justice and protection to the vassal while giving the land. The second one was homage (handing down of power according to customs): under this tradition, the vassal promised loyalty and service to the feudal lord.
  • There were hierarchies among the feudal lords. Important among them were the Dukes, Earls, Barons, Knights etc.
  • A simple and tailor-made administrative system is the contribution of the feudal system.
  • The lords or the nobles were dependent on the vassals for military service. Due to this, the ruling party could not become autocratic.
  • The rise of powerful dynastic rule in England, France and Spain led to the downfall of the feudal system.
  • The Renaissance and Reformation became the main reason for the weakening of the feudal system.
Class 9 Social ScienceClass 9 ScienceClass 9 Maths

 

Europe In The Middle Ages Textual Questions And Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable words.

1. The cultural bankruptcy of Europe is called Dark Age
2. The owner of the land was called The Nobles
3. The person who maintained the land was called The Vassal
4. The weak person who was responsible for the maintenance of land was called The Vassal

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 7 Europe in the Middle Ages

Europe In The Middle Ages Class 9 History Notes 

Europe In The Middle Ages Answer the following.

Question 1. What is the feudal system?
Answer
:

  • A new political and economic system which took birth in Western Europe during the dark age was feudalism.
  • The feudal system was an arrangement to gain specific services from the feudal lords.

Question 2. List the advantages and disadvantages of the feudal system.
Answer:

The advantages of the feudal system are

  • Simplicity
  • The simple and tailor-made administrative system
  • Guarantee of human protection
  • The ruling party could not become autocratic.
  • The economic system also saw notable progressive changes.
  • The savagery of the barbaric communities was controlled.
  • Man became aware of his duties and fundamental rights.
  • The nobles got their training through these rules and regulations.
  • The nobles protected women, the weak and the Christian religious

The disadvantages of the feudal system are                                                                                                                                                                                     

Answer: A class of aristocracy came into being.

  • Agreements and disagreements began among the aristocrats, nobles and vassals.
  • The agreements and arrangements of the feudal system failed.
  • The nobles started competing with the lords or the kings.
  • Many became traitors and posed a threat to their own regional unity.
  • The judicial system also was full of weaknesses. Ans: A) Roman Empire
  • There was no rule of law.
  • The church and the state were at loggerheads with each other.

Europe In The Middle Ages Class 9 Textbook Solutions 

Question 3:Enumerate the reasons for the downfall of the feudal system.
Answer: The reasons for the down of the feudal system are

  • The rise of powerful dynastic rule in England,
  • Development of regional languages
  • Development of nationalism
  • lust for absolute power among the kings
  • Military power
  • The Crusades hastened the fall of many systems
  • The Renaissance and Reformation

Europe In The Middle Ages Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the answer sheet provided:

Question 1. The status of a person during the Middle Ages

  1. Depended on his military power
  2. Depended upon the gifts he received from his king
  3. Was decided by his position as a noble or not
  4. Depended on the extent of land he owned
    Answer: 4. Depending on the extent of land he owned

Question 2. The period of middle ages started after the decline of

  1. Roman Empire
  2. Greek Empire
  3. French Empire
  4. Moghal Empire

Answer:4.Roman Empire

Question 3. The situation that led feudalism system was

  1. Anarchy prevailed and there was no protection for life and property.
  2. Roman Empire accepted Christianity as the State religion.
  3. Charlemagne came to power in Rome
  4. Napoleon became the ruler of France.

Answer: 1. Anarchy prevailed and there was no protection for life and property.

Class 9 Social Science Europe In The Middle Ages Answers 

Question 4. The difference between the noble and the vassal was

  1. Noble owned the land whereas the Vassal maintained the land.
  2. The Vassal owned the land whereas the Noble maintained the land.
  3. The Vassal owned the land whereas the Noble paid the land tax.
  4. Both the Vassals and Nobles owned the land and paid the land tax.

Answer:1.Nobel owned the land whereas the Vassal maintained the land.

Question 5. The ruling party could not become autocratic in the feudal system because they

  1. Depended on the vassals for military service.
  2. Depended on the vassals for financial sources.
  3. Were getting gifts from the Vassals and Lords
  4. Were helped by Lords in administration.

Answer:4.Depended on the vassals for military service.

Europe In The Middle Ages Answer The Following Questions In A Sentence Each:

Question 1. What is meant by Dark Age?

Answer: Cultural bankruptcy was seen for almost one
thousand years after the glorious cultural achievements in the history of Greece and Rome. This period is called as the ‘Dark Age’

Question 2. Which are the two important traditions of Feudalism?
Answer: The two important traditions of Feudalism are

  • Homage
  • Investiture

Question 3. What is Investiture in the feudal system?
Answer: Under the ‘Investiture’ tradition, the lord gave assurances of justice and protection to the vassal while giving the land.

Class 9 Social Science Chapter 7 Europe In The Middle Ages Notes 

Question 4. What is Homage in the feudal system?
Answer: Under ‘Homage’ (handing down of power according to customs) tradition, the vassal promised loyalty and service to the feudal lord.

Europe In The Middle Ages Answer The Following Questions In A Sentence Each:

Question 1. The feudal system was an arrangement to and paid the land tax. gain specific services to the feudal lords. Justify.
Answer: Ownership of land which was the core of feudalism, gave economic and political powers to the feudal lords. The status of a person during the middle ages depended on the extent of land he owned. Thus, land alone was the means of income. Naturally, the king was the owner of all the land that came under his jurisdiction. The king donated land to the nobles. The nobles donated small areas of land to their subordinates.

Question 2. The feudal system can be considered an arrangement or an agreement between the powerful and the weak. How?
Answer: The person who owned the land was called the noble, whereas the person who maintained the land was called the vassal. In return for protection from the noble, the vassals had to offer certain services. The feudal system, mainly, centred around a give-and-take policy.

Europe In The Middle Ages Questions And Answers Class 9 

Question 3. What were the important hierarchies among the feudal lords?
Answer: The important hierarchies among the feudal lords were the Dukes, Earls, Barons, Knights, etc…..

Question 4. What was the relationship between vassals and labourers?
Answer: The vassals took the help of labourers for agriculture. These labourers were given sufficient land for their survival as long as they worked with the vassals. They were not given any monetary returns.

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Karnataka State Syllabus

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Political Science 

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Sociology

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics 

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Business Studies 

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 6 Bhaktipanth

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 6 Bhaktipanth Points To Remember

  • The development of the Bhakti Panth is an important feature of the Delhi Sultanate period.
  • Bakti or devotion means trusting God or believing in God.
  • The Bhakti Panth leaders used to worship God who is referred to by different names like Rama, Krishna, and Allah.
  • Ramanand was born in a Brahmin family in Allahabad and He was a follower of Ramanuja’s philosophy
  • Ramanand traveled to several places in North India and popularized the worship of Rama and Sita.
  • Kabir was a student of Ramanand and spent most of his time at Varanasi.
  • Kabir tried to bring about Harmon tolerance between the two communities. Kabir composed couplets known as doshas and the followers of Kabir are known as Kabirpanthis, meaning travelers who go on the path of Kabir.
  • Chaitanya was one of the famous saints of the Bhakti movement who preached that differences of caste can be removed by discipline, and man becomes pure through devotion.
  • Chaitanya’s philosophical thoughts and teachings are collected in the book called “Chaitanya Charitamruta”.
  • Guru Nanak preached that God was one and condemned idol worship.
Class 9 Social ScienceClass 9 ScienceClass 9 Maths

 

  • Guru Nanak had both Hindu and Muslim followers who are called ‘Sikhs’. His teachings are collected in the Sikh Holy book ‘Guru Granth Sahib’.
  • Meerabai renounced a life of luxury and became the most devoted follower of Lord Krishna.
  • Meerabai compose songs of devotion towards Krishna which are called ‘Bhajans’
  • Vitthoba temple at Pandharapur on the banks of the river Bhima in Maharashtra was the center of the Bhakti movement.
  • Since they wore coarse woolen clothing called suf, these Muslim saints were called ‘Sufis’.
  • The poetic works of ‘Mrigavati’ of Kutuban and ‘Padmavat’ of Mallik Mohammed Jaisi uphold Sufi philosophy.

Bhaktipanth Class 9 History Notes 

Textual Questions And Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

Question 1. Bhakti means_______to God.

Question 2. The famous follower of Ramanand was _____

Question 3. Kabir’s followers are called______

Question 4. The collection of Chaitanya’s philosophical thoughts is called______

Answer:
1. Trusting God or believing in God
2. Kabir
3. Kabirpanthis
4. Chaitanya Charitamruta

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 6 Bhakti Panth

Bhaktipanth Class 9 Textbook Solutions 

Bhaktipanth Answer the following questions by discussing them with your group.

Question 1. Who popularized worship of Rama and Sita? What are his services to society?
Answer:

  • Ramanand popularized worship of Rama and Sita.
  • Services provided by Ramanand are
  1. Ramanand established a Vaishnava religious school based on love and devotion.
  2. He traveled to several places in North India and popularized the worship of Rama and Sita.
  3. He condemned the caste system and allowed people from every caste to join his sect.

Question 2. Who are Sikhs? Which is their holy book?
Answer:

  1. Both Hindu and Muslim followers of Guru Nanak are called ‘Sikhs”.
  2. ‘Guru Granth Sahib’s holy book

Question 3. What are the effects of the Bhakti movement?
Answer: The effects of the Bhakti movement are

  • It brought the reform of the Hindu practices
  • It brought about harmony between Hindus and Muslims
  • It removed successfully many weaknesses in Hindu society.
  • The regional languages of India flourished since the reformers wrote in these languages.

Bhaktipanth Additional Questions And Answers.

Answer the following questions in a sentence each :

Question 1. What is meant by Bhakti?
Answer: Bakti or devotion means trusting God or believing in God.

Question 2. What is the opinion of the Bhakti Panth leaders about God?
Answer: The Bhakti Panth leaders used to worship God who is referred to by different names like Rama, Krishna, and Allah.

Class 9 Social Science Bhaktipanth Answers 

Question 3. Which was the center of the Bhakti movement?
Answer: Vitthoba temple at Pandharapur on the banks of the river Bhima in Maharashtra, was the center of the Bhakti movement.

Question 4. Why is the Muslim saint called Sufis?
Answer: Since they wore coarse woolen clothing called suf, these Muslim saints were called ‘Sufis’.

Question 5. What are the contributions of Sufi saints to the field of literature?
Answer: The poetic works of ‘Mrigavati’ of Kutuban and ‘Padmavat’ of Mallik Mohammed Jaisi uphold Sufi philosophy.

Bhaktipanth Answer the following questions in 2-4 sentences each:

Question 1. Explain the contribution of Kabir to the Bhakti movement.
Answer: Kabir tried to bring about harmony and tolerance between the two communities.
He composed couplets known as doshas and the followers of Kabir are known as Kabirpanthis, meaning travelers who go on the path of Kabir.

Question 2. What are the contributions of Chaitanya to the Bhakti Movement?
Answer:

  1. Chaitanya preached that differences of caste can be removed by discipline, and man becomes pure through devotion.
  2. Chaitanya’s philosophical thoughts and teachings are collected in the book called “Chaitanya Charitamruta”.

Question 3. What are the contributions of Meerabai to the Bhakti Movement?
Answer: Meerabai renounced a life of luxury and became the most devoted follower of Lord Krishna. Meerabai compose songs of devotion towards Krishna which are called ‘Bhajans’

Class 9 Social Science Chapter 6 Bhaktipanth Notes 

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Karnataka State Syllabus

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Political Science 

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Sociology

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics 

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Business Studies