Class 8 Social Science

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Minerals And Power Resources Textbook Questions

Question 1 . Answer the following questions:

(a) Name any three common minerals used by you every day.

Answer . Three common minerals used by us everyday are:

(a) Iron ore for making steel

(b)Sand for constructing building

(c)Copper wires

(b) what is an ore? Where are the ores of metallic minerals generally located?
Answer. Rocks from which minerals are mined are known as ores.

Or

An ore is the natural accumulation of metals or minerals in a concentrated form. It has many impurities. Generally, ores of the metallic minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rock formations that form large plateaus.

(c)Name two regions rich in natural gas resources.

Answer. Russia and U.K are the major producers of natural gas iri the world. In India, Jaisalmer. Krishna- Godavari delta, have natural gas resources.

(d) Which sources of energy would you suggest for:

(a)  Rural areas

(b)    Coastal areas

(c)    Arid areas

Answer. I would suggest

(a)Rural area: Energy sources for rural areas-Biogas

(b)Coastal areas: Hydel power, Wind energy, Tidal energy

(c)Arid areas: Solar energy

(e)Give five ways in which you can save energy at home.

Answer. Five ways in which we can save energy at hone are as follow:

(a)Switching off the appliances when not in use.

(b)Keeping the lights dust free.

(c)The appropriate maintenance and usage of appliances as per the given instructions.

(d) Maximising the use of natural breeze and light by keeping the windows open.

(e)Using CFL tube lights.

Class 8 Geography Minerals and Power Resources KSEEB Notes 

Question 2. Tick the correct answer

(a)Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of minerals?

(a)They are created by natural processes.

(b) They have a definite chemical composition.

(c) They are inexhaustible.

(d) Their distribution is uneven.

Answer. (c) They are inexhaustible

(b)Which one of the following is NOT a producer of mica?

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Karnataka

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Andhra Pradesh.

Answer. (c) Rajasthan

(c)Which one of the following is a leading producer of copper in the world?

(a) Bolivia

(b) Ghana

(c) Chile

(d) Zimbabwe.

Answer. (c) Chile

(d)Which one of the following practices wi I NOT conserve LPG in your kitchen?

(a) Soaking the dal for some time before cocking it.

(b)Cooking food in a pressure cooker.

(c)Keeping the vegetables chopped before lighting the gas for cooking.

(d)Cooking food in an open pan kept on low flame.

Answer. (d) Cooking food in an open pan kept on low flame.

Question 3. Give Reasons:

(a)Environmental aspects must be carefully looked into before building huge dams.

Answer.

Dams are built for developing canals and generating water power. But sometimes huge dams cause environmental problems. Many large dams produce environmental impacts upstream, downstream and in the vicinity of the reservoir and hence controversies surround such development. So, all these should be carefully looked.

(b)Most industries are concentrated around coal mines.

Answer.

Most industries are concentrated around coal mines because coal is an important source of energy. It is a key mineral and fuel for the industries. It is used as a power resource :n many industries. Many industries use it as a raw material. So, most industries are concentrated around coal mines.

(c)Petroleum is referred to as black gold.

Answer.

Now-a-days, petroleum is a major source of energy in the world. Many by-products such as kerosene, fuel, lubricating oils, etc. are obtained from L Petrochemical products have become very useful. Petroleum is used in agro-industry, paints, perfumes, trAnswerport, etc. So it is rightly called black gold.

(d)Quarrying can become a major environmental concern.

Answer.

Quarrying can become a major environmenta concern because this process is used to dig out those minerals that lie near the surface. It causes land degradation and soil erosion all over the world.

KSEEB Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Questions And Answers 

Question  4 Distinguish between the following.

(a)Conventional and Non-conventional sources of energy.

(b) Biogas and natural gas.

(c) Ferrous and Non-ferrous minerals.

Answer.

(a) Ferrous minerals: These minerals contain iron. For example: Iron ore, manganese and chromite,
(b) Non-ferrous minerals: These minerals do not contain iron but may contain some other metal, i.e., gold, silver, etc.

(d) Metallic and Non-metallic minerals.

Minerals and Power Resources Activity

(a)Use pictures from old magazines to show different kinds of fuels used by us in our lives and display them on your bulletin board.

Answer. Students will do it. They can take help from their teacher.

(b)Design a poster highlighting energy conservation, tips you would take for your school.

Answer. Students will do it.

(c)Salma’s class took up an action campaign to do an energy audit of their school by surveying electricity consumption. They prepared survey sheets for the students of the school.

Using the data collected during the survey, students calculated the units consumed for one month and the approximate expenditure and compared it with the electricity bill of the previous month.

They also calculated the approximate cost of electricity consumed by fans, lights and other appliances not switched off. Thus they highlighted the amount that could be saved and suggested simple energy conservation habits like:

• Switching off the appliances when not in use.
• Minimal usage as per requirement.
• Maximising the use of natural breeze and light by keeping the windows open.
• Keeping the lights dust free.
• The appropriate maintenance and usage of appliances as per given instructions.

Can you add some more tips to this list?

You could conduct a similar survey at home and then extend it to your apartment and make your neighbours also energy wise.

Minerals and Power Resources Text Questions

Question 1. List uses of any five minerals Answer.

(a) Sand: used as building material

(b) Salt: used in food

(c)Gold: used for ornamental purposes

(d) Iron: used for making tools and machines

(e)Copper: used for making wires

Minerals And Power Resources KSEEB Class 8 Textbook Solutions 

Minerals and Power Resources Activity

Question   1 With the help of an atlas, on an outline map of India, mark the distribution of iron, bauxite, manganese and magnesium.

Minerals and Power Resources Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1 By which properties we can identify minerals?

Answer. Minerals can be identified on the basis of their physical properties such as colour, density, hardness and chemical properties such as solubility.

Question 2. Where do we find oldest rocks in the world?

Answer. The oldest rocks in the world are h western Australia.

Question 3. Why are Kolar mines famous?

Answer. Kolar gold mines are located in Karnataka, India. These mines are among the deepest in the world.

Question 4. Name three large producers of iron ore in the world.

Answer. Russia, U.S.A. and Brazil.

Question 5. Which energy is called geothermal energy?

Answer. Heat energy obtained from the earth is called geothermal erergy.

Question 6. Mention two ways by which the reserves of minerals resources can be saved.

Answer. Reusing and the rec/cling of minerals can help to use the discarded materials once again.

Question 7. Which is the lowest quality of coal?

Answer. Peat is the lowest quality of coal, with 50-60% of carbon.

Question 8. What is an alloy?

Answer. A new mineral formed due to combination of minerals.

Question 9. Mention the two hydro-electric projects of India.

Answer. Bhakhra Nangal project, Nagarjuna sagar project.

Question  10. Name some chemical properties of two rocks.

Answer. Salt is soluble, quartz is insoluble.

Question 11. Name three ages based on minerals.

Answer. Copper age, Bronze age, Iron age.

Question 12. What is tidal energy?

Answer. Energy generated by tides is called tidal energy.

Question 13. Give two advantages of wind energy.

Answer.

(a) It is non-polluting
(b) It is clean and safe.

Question 14. What is thermal power?

Answer. Electricity generated from coal is called thermal power.

Question 15. Name the leading coal producers of the world.

Answer. China, U.S.A., Germany, Russia, South Africa and France.

Question 16. What are commercial sources of energy?

Answer. Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, Hydro-electricity and Nuclear energy.

Question 17. How is coal formed?

Answer. Coal originated from wood. It is buried beneath the earth’s surface. Wood is changed to carbon after a long time. Thus, coal is formed.

Question 18. Name four important iron ore producing states of India.

Answer. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Goa.

Question 19. What is a mineral?

Answer. A naturally occurring substance that has a def nrte chemical composition is called a mineral.

Question 20. Name two inaccessible areas where minerals are found.

Answer. Arctic ocean bed and Antarctica.

Important Questions For KSEEB Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 

Question 21. What is an ore?

Answer. A rock from which mineral is mined.

Question 22. What is the importance of sources of energy?

Answer. Energy plays a vital role in our lives. We need erergy for industry, agriculture, trAnswerport, communication and defence.

Minerals and Power Resources Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Distinguish between a mine and a quarry.

Answer. The process of mineral extraction is called mining. A mine is an excavation in the ground for digging out minerals. It may be deep. Surface mines are called open pit mines or quarries.

Question 2. Name the three types of energy and their sources.

Answer.

(a) Thermal power: From coal and natural gas;

(b) Nuclear energy: From uranium;

(b) Hydro-electricity: From falling water.

Question 3. What are the alternative sources of energy?

Answer. There are other sources of energy as well. They include hydropower, geothermal, nuclear, solar and wind. These are also referred to as alternative energy sources.

Question 4. Describe the different types of coal.

Answer.

(a) Peat: Peat is the first stage of coal development. It is dark brown in colour. It has about 35 per cent carbon content

(b)Lignite: Lignite is the next stage of coal formation, which has nearly 50 per cent carbon.

(c) Anthracite: Lignite becomes sub-bitumnous, bituminous and eventually anthracite coal.

Anthracite has more than 85 per cent carbon. It is the best quality of coal. It is very hard, compact, black in colour. It ignites slowly and bums with a short blue flame.

Question 5. List three basic ways through which energy s obtained.

Answer. Energy is the capacity to do work It car be obtained by:

(a)Direct heating like fire, sun, etc.,

(b) Electricity;

(c)Stored energy in the form of a battery.

Question 6. ‘Mineral conservation can delay a crisis.’ Explain.

Answer. Due to growing population, the use of minerals is increasing at an alarming rate Minerals will riot last long.

We need to find substitutes, reduce consumption and recycle mineral resources It can delay a mineral crisis.

Question 7. Classify metals.

Answer. Metals are classified as follows:

(a) Precious metals – gold and silver;

(b) Ferrous – iron and manganese;

(c) Non-ferrous – copper and lead;

(d) Light metal – aluminium;

(e) Rare metals – zirconium.

Question 8. What is an alloy? Give example.

Answer. Sometimes a metal is combined with another The new metal is called alloy.

Such as: Copper + tin = Bronze

Iron + nickel + chromium = Steel alloy.

Question 9. Name four main belts where iron ore is found.

Answer. The four main iron ore belts are:

(a) Odisha-Jharkhand belt;

(b) Durg-Bastar Chandarpur belt

(c) Bellary-Chikmagalur belt

(d) Maharashtra-Goa belt.

KSEEB Geography Chapter 3 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 10. Describe the different methods of extracting minerals.

Answer. Taking out minerals from rocks is called mining.

(a) Open cast mining: Minerals at shallow deoths are taken out by removing the surface layer.

(b)  Shaft mining: Minerals at depth are taken out by making deep bores.

(c)  Drilling: Deep wells are bored to take out petroleum.

(d)  Quarrying: Minerals at the surface are dug out

Question 11. Describe the uses of some important minerals.

Answer.

(a) Gems are used in jewellery.

(b)Copper is used in coins, pipes.

(c)Silicon is used in computer industry.

(d) Aluminium is used in automobiles and aeroplanes.

Question 12. Distinguish between the following:

(a)Thermal power and Hydel power.

Answer. (a) Thermal power and Hydel power.

(b)Anthracite coal and Bituminous coal.

Answer .(b)Anthracite coal and Bituminous coal.

Minerals and Power Resources Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Describe the distribution of coal and mineral oil in the world.

Answer. Coal:

(a)          Russia has about 1-3rd of the world’s coal reserves.

(b)          U.S.A. has about 1-4th of the world’s coal reserves.

(c)           It is also found in China, Australia, parts o’Western Europe, South Africa and India.

(d)         90% of the coal reserves of the world are found in these places and rest of it is scattered in different parts of the world.

Mineral Oil:

(a)          The Persian Gulf and the surrounding areas have about 2/3rd supply of the total reserves of oil available.

(b)          Saudi Arabia has the largest reserves.

(c)           Oil reserves are also found in Russia, Venezuela, Mexico, Libya and Nigeria.

(d)          90% of the world’s reserves come from these countries.

(e)          Germany, Norway, Denmark, U.S.A., U.K. also produce oil.

(f) India also has several oilfields.

Question 2. What are alternative sources of energy?

Answer. Alternative sources of energy are:

(a)          They include hydropower, geothermal, nuclear, solar and wind power.

(b)          All these resources are renewable.

(c)           They are inexpensive in nature.

(d)          They do not cause pollution.

(e)          They can be developed in rural areas ard maintained at low costs.

Thus, because of their qualities, there is a possibility that they might replace fossil fuels in the future.

Question 3. Why is recycling of metals and minerals necessary?

Answer.

Mineral resources are limited. But man is using these at a fast rate. Developed countries with 16% of world population use 70% minerals (such as USA, Europe, Japan). The existing mineral resources will not last long. Thus, reducing consumption, reusing and recycling are ways to conserve these. Metals like aluminium can be recycled easily. Discarded metals can be recycled arid used again.

Question 4. Discuss distribution of iron, copper and bauxite in the world.

Answer.

(a) Iron: Iron is the most widely used metal. Because of its importance, it is taken as the symbol of modern civilisation. Iron-ore is found ir large amount in Ukraine, Kazakhstan, U.S.A., China, Brazil, Australia and India. In Europe, the best quality of iron-ore is found in Sweden. France and Germany also have iron ore deposits. Liberia and South Africa in Africa have iron ore deposits with over 60 per cent iron content. India has many important iron-ore fields. Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are major producers of iron-ore in our country.

(b)Copper: Copper is used largely in electrical industries because of its quality of electrical conductivity’. Its ore is found in Chile, U.S.A., Canada, Poland, Russia, Kazakhstan, Georgia, Armenia, Congo and Zambia. In India, re serves of copper are found in Jharkhand and Rajasthan.

(c)Bauxite: Aluminium is a light and versatile metal. It is used for making aeroplanes, machines tools, utensils, packaging, construction and electricals. It is extracted from bauxite using electrolysis smelting process, which requires large amount of electrical energy. For this reason, aluminium is manufactured mostly in developed countries, where abundant electric energy is available at a low cost. Australia, Guinea, Jamaica and Brazil are the main producers of bauxite in the world.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Guide On Minerals And Power Resources KSEEB 

Question 5 .Discuss the potential of alternative sources of energy.

• Nuclear Power: Power is emitted by Uranium and Thorium, which are put into nuclear reactors where nuclear fission takes place. USA and Europe are large producers of nuclear power in the world. In India, the nuclear power stations are Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rana Partap Sagar (Rajasthan), Narora (U.P.) and Kaiga (Karnataka).
• Tidal Energy: It is generated from high tides. Russia, France and Gulf of Kachchh have huge tidal mills.
• Solar Energy: Solar energy can be trapped using solar collectors, which can heat water for homes. Photovoltaic cells convert sunlight directly into electricity. Experiments are going on to make it more efficient and less expensive. Some countries like Japan, France, Germany, U.S A, Canada and India are producing photovoltaic cells in small quantities. They are still in early stage of development.
• Wind Energy: More recently, wind has been used to generate electricity. The potential for wind energy is tremendous. Yet. there are problems in its use because it is highly variable in time, place and intensity. Regions with greatest potential for wind energy in North America are the Pacific north-west coastal area and the coastal region of north- eastern U.S.A. and southern California. Netherlands in Europe is using windmills for a long time. The Gujarat coast has few wind mill farms in India.
• Geothermal Energy: It is the useful conversion of natural heat from the interior of the Earth to heat buildings and generate electricity. As early as 1904, geothermal power was developed in Italy. Natural internal heat is now being used to generate electricity in Russia, Japan, New Zealand, Iceland, Mexico, Hawab and California.

Question 6. Describe the production of petroleum in India.

Answer.

Production: In about 10 lakh sq. km. oil bearirg rocks are found in India. The oil re serves in India are estimated to be 50 crore metric tons. The first oilfield in India was discovered in 1867 at Makum in Assam. At present, the production is as under

(a) Assam: In Assam, oil is produced in Digboi, Moran, Naharkatiya and Sibsagar regions.

(b )Gujarat: In Gujarat, oil is produced in Gulf of Khambat region at Kalol, Ankleshwer, Lunej, etc.

(c) Maharashtra: Oil has struck in offshore region at Mumbai High along the coast of Mumbai. It is the leading producer of crude oil in India. North Basin and South Basin and Albet islands are the important oil fields.

The product on of oil in India is increasing everywhere under the organization of Oil and Natural Gas Commission. The production of oil in India was estimated to be about 210 lakh tonnes in 2001.

Question 7. Describe the distribution of important minerals in India.

Answer.

(a) Iron-ore: Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra, Karnataka.

(b)Bauxite: Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu.

(c)Mica: Jharkhand, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan.

(d)Copper: Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh.

(e) Manganese: Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh.

(f)Limestone: Bihar, Jhar<hand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Rajasthan.

(g)Gold: Kolar (Karnataka).

Minerals and Power Resources Hots Corner

Question 1. . Describe the formation of coal.

Answer. Coal is a black or brown rock consisting mainly of carbon. Coal is formed by the decomposition of vegetation of last ages. Most of coal deposits were formed in carboniferous age about 300 million years ago.

Question 2. ‘Human civilisations are associated with discovery of minerals.’ Give example.

Answer. Mining is an age-old activity. The use of minerals is marked with different stages of human civilisation. During 5000 B.CE., Copper Age existed. During 3000 B.C.E., Bronze Age and during 1400 B.C.E., Iron Age started.

Question.3. On what factors does the commercial extraction of mineral depend?

Answer. Factors on which commercial extraction of mineral depends are:

(a) Sufficient ore content

(b) Easy structure

(c) Low cost of extraction

(d) Easy mining

Question 4. Describe the economic importance of minerals. Describe major types of minerals.

Answer.

Minerals: Mineral resources are of great use to man. Minerals have been called *the Gifts of Nature’. Mineral resources have been used since pre-historic times. Human civilisation has seen many ages like Stone Age, Copper Age and Iron Age. Modem industrial and economic development depends upon the production and utilisation of minerals.

Types of Minerals: There are 70 to 80 minerals found on the surface of the Earth. These can be divided into three types:

(a)Non-Metallic Minerals: These include salt, mica, limestone, graphite, potash, gypsum.

(b)Metallic Minerals: These include iron, copoer, aluminium, gold, silver. These can be melted into useful metals.

It also includes coal, oil and natural gas. These are called sources of power.

Importance of Minerals:

(a) Industries: Minerals form the Oasis of heavy industries like iron and steel. Minerals are called ‘vitamins’ of industry-.

(b)Machinery: Minerals provide machinery for modern manufacturing.

(c)TrAnswerport: Minerals are used in the making of different meAnswer of trAnswerportation.

(d)Sources of Energy: Minerals provide energy to the modem industries.

KSEEB Class 8 Minerals And Power Resources Study Materials 

Minerals and Power Resources Map Based Questions

Question 1 .Show the distribution of important minerals in India.

Question.2. Show distribution of iron ore in India.

Question 3. Show the distribution of petroleum in India.

Question 4. Show the distribution of coal in India.

Minerals and Power Resources Miscellaneous Questions Multiple Choice Questions

Tick the correct option from the choices provided:

Question 1. A substance that has a definite chemical composition is called:

(a) Ore
(b) Mineral
(c) Rock
d) Energy

Ans.(b) Mineral

Question 2.Which of these is not a property of minerals?

(a) Colour
(b) Density
(c) Hardness
(d) None

Ans. (d) Luster

Question 3.Which of these is a metallic mineral?

(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Iron ore
(d) Luster

Ans.c) Iron ore

Question 4.Which of these is a non-metallic mineral?

(a) Iron ore
(b) Manganese
(c) Chromite
(d) Lime stone

Ans.(d) Lime stone

Question 5.Which of these is a ferrous mineral?

(a) Iron ore
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Gold

Ans.(a) Iron ore

Question 6.Which of these is a non-ferrous mineral?

(a) Iron ore
(b) Manganese
(c) Chromite
(d) Copper

Ans.(d) Gold

Question 7.Mineral is mined at agreat depth using:

(a) Open cost mining
(b) Shaft mining
(c) Drilling
(d) Quarrying

Ans.(b) Shaft mining

Question 8.Which of these is a conventional source of energy?

(a) Wind energy
(b) Nuclear power
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Coal

Ans.(d) Coal

Question  9.Which of these is a non-conventional sourceof energy?

(a) Coal
(b) Waterpower
(c) Petroleum
(d) Wind energy

Ans.(d) Wind energy

Question 10.Manikaran is located in the state of:

(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) J&K

Ans.(c) Himachal Pradesh

Solutions for Minerals And Power Resources KSEEB Class 8 Geography 

Minerals and Power Resources B.One Word-Sentence Answer

Answer the following questions in one word/sentence:

(a)Which is the leading producer of iron-ore in the world?

Answer. Europe.

(b)Who is the largest producer of bauxite in the world?

Answer. Australia.

(c)Which is the highest quality of coal?

Answer. Anthracite.

(d)Which is the most widely used metal?

Answer. Iron.

(e)What is the process of separating metals from their ores called?

Answer. Smelting.

(f)Which country has the largest reserves of oil?

Answer. Saudi Arabia.

(g)Where was the oil first found in India?

Answer. Assam.

(h) Which mineral is called ‘Black Gold’?

Answer. Petroleum.

(i)Which country is the leading producer of copper in the world?

Answer. Ghana.

(j) The largest Solar Plant in India is located at which place?

Answer. Madhapar.

Minerals and Power Resources Fill in the Blanks

Fill the blanks with appropriate terms in the following sentences:

(a)_________is the softest mineral.

Answer. Talc

(b)_________has no known mineral deposit in it.

Answer. Switzerland

(c)_________are two groups into which the minerals are classified.

Answer. Metallic and non-metallic minerals

(d)_________are two examples of metallic minerals.

Answer. Iron, and copper

(e)_________are examples of two precious metals.

Answer. Gold and silver

(f)_________The windmills are found at in India.

Answer. the Gujarat coast

(i)_________ is the alternative sources of energy.

Answer. Solar energy and wind power

(j)_________ are two countries producing solar energy.

Answer. japan, and U.SA

(k)_________Solar energy is produced at in India.

Answer. the Gujarat coast

(i)_________ is used for sparkle in tooth pastes.

Answer. Mica

(j)_________is the biggest source of non-traditional energy.

Answer. Nuclear power

Minerals and Power Resources Picture Interpretation

Look at the following picture and Answerwer the questions that follow:

1. Carefully see the pictures given below and identify the use of these products shown in it.

Answer. The picture shows wind mills. Wind mills are sources of non-conventional and clean energy.

2.

Answer. The picture shows turbines near the shoreline. It is used in tapping tidal energy and is a source of non-conventional and clean energy.

KSEEB Class 10 Geography Chapter 9 Indian Transport and Communication Transport

Transport means movement of goods, service and passengers from one place to another.
Transport plays a very important role in the development of all sectors of human activities namely the primary sector, the secondary sector and the tertiary sector.
There are three modes of transport:

• Road Transport
• Water Transport
•  Airways
• Roads are the most ancient and universal means of transport. They play a vital role in the economic growth of a nation.
  On the basis of physical structure roads can be divided into two types:
• Metalled roads which are constructed with cement concrete or asphalt.
•  Unmetalled roads which are common in rural areas.
  On the basis of construction and maintenance roads are classified into five types:
•  Golden Quadrilateral and Super Highways
•  National Highways
•  District Roads
• State Highways
• Village Roads
• Railways are the other important mode of land transport. They are very useful to carry heavy goods and large number of passengers over a long distance.
• Railways form the largest public sector undertaking in India. It has a network of about 7031 stations and a length of 64,015 Kms.
• The railways are divided into 16 zones for the purpose of efficient management.
• Pipelines are a new mode of land transport.
• They are mostly used to transport crude oil from oil field to refineries, natural gas and mineral slurry.
• Waterways can be divided into two types:
• Inland waterways and
• Ocean waterways.
• There are 14 major ports in India, of which six are along the west coast and seven along the east coast.
• There are 141 airports in India of which 28 designated International Airports, 88 domestic airports and 25 civilenclaves at defence airfields.
• The Airport Authority of India manages these airports.

Class 10 SSLC Geography Indian Transport And Communication KSEEB Notes  Communication

• Conveyance of messages from one person to another or from one place to another is called ‘communication’.
  They may be broadly divided into two categorized:
• Personal
•  Mass communication.
  Postal Service is one of the most important communication system that existed since a long time in India.
  Telecommunication: It refers to communication over a distance by cable, telegraph, telephone, Fax etc. In India, telecommunication network has reached almost every remote corner.
  Radio and Television play a very important role in mass communication.
  All India Radio (AIR) was founded in 1936. TV broadcasting was started under the name of Doordarshan (DD) at Delhi in 1959.
  Newspapers are very important communication service, which come under print media.
  The development of electronic technology and space service has brought a great change in communication media.
  Artificial satellite has marked a new era in the history of global telecommunication. Radio and TV networking over India are done through satellite technology.
  GIS is a computer based system which can accumulate and interpret the data on the Earth’s surface.
  The GPS indicates the location of a stationary or moving object or person through pointing out the latitude and longitude and height above sea level.
  The Remote Sensing Technology collects information regarding the Earth’s surface.

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Confronting Marginalisation Textbook Questions

Question 1 List two Fundamental Rights in the Constitution that Details can draw upon to insist that they be treated with dignity and as equals?

• The Indian Constitution provides six Fundamental Rights to all citizens equally. The Dailts have a Fundamental Right to be treated with dignity and as equals.
• Right to Equality: The Constitution of India declares all the citizens of India to be equal in the eyes of law’ and provides equal protection of law within the territory of India. There can be no discrimination between one citizen and another on the basis of religion, caste, colour, gender, sex etc. Article 17 abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form is forbidden.
• Right against Exploitation: The Constitution of India recognises the dignity’ of the individual and protect him against any form of exploitation either by the state or by privileged classes in the society.

Question 2. Re-read the story on Rathnam as well as the provisions of the 1989 Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. Now list one reason why you think he used this law to file a complaint.

Answer

• Dalits and other weaker sections of the society were ill treated and humiliated. Ultimately, the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Prevention of Atrocities Act, 1989 was passed.
• The main aim of this Act was to keep an eye on the violence against the Do/its and to deliver severe punishment to those who still violate the law Rathnam, a member of Dalit Community, was asked to perform the ritual in which he had to wash the feet of the priest and bath in the same water.
• Rathnam refused to perform this ritual as he does not have faith in it. The powerful castes in the village where Rathnam lived, were greatly angered by this. In order to teach him a lesson, the villagers decided to expel him and his family. One night, although his hut was set on fire, he and his mother managed to escape.
• He went to the local poke station and file a case under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. The case was also supported by the media. Due to Rathnam’s efforts, the ritual was called off.

Question 3. Why do Adivasi activists, including C.K. Janu, believe that Adivasis can also use this 1989 Act to fight against dispossession? Is there anything specific in the provisions of the Act that allows her to believe this?

Answer

•  Aoivosi activists, including C.K. Janu, rightly beieve that Adivasis can also use Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention o^ Atrocities) Act 1989 to fight against dispossession.
• AoVosi activists refer to the 1989 Act as an attempt to reclaim the forest lands, which were originally theirs.
• Activists have asked that those who have forcibly occupied tribal land should be punished under 1989 Act According to 1989 Act, non-tribal people can not buy or sell land which originally belonged to the tribal people.
• The Indian Constitution gives the freedom to the tribal people to re-claim their land. According to C.IC Janu, an Aoivasi activist, governments of various states are also violators of this constitutional right.

Confronting Marginalisation Text Questions

Question 1 . State one reason why you think reservations play an important role in providing social justice to Dalits and Adivasis?

Answer

Reservation Polity has played an important role in providing social and economic justice to dalits and Adivasis as it provides an equal Opportunity to the SC and ST to compete with everyone

Question 2. Can you list two different provisions in the 1989 Act? Look up the glossary and write in your own words what you understand by the term ‘morally reprehensible’.

Answer

• Two provisions in the 1989 Act are:
• Legal aid: Legal aid is available for all victims regardless of financial status. For all others, legal aid depends on the financial status.
• Migration: On migration to another state, they lose their SC/ST status for affirmative actions, i.e. benefit of admission in educational institutes, reservation in government employment, etc., but the protection accorded under this Act stays.

Class 8 Civics Confronting Marginalisation KSEEB Notes 

Question 3. What do you understand by manual scavenging?

Answer

Manual Scavengers are the people thought to be the most oppressed class in our country. They perform menial tasks, like removing human excreta, etc. It is a caste-based occupation that continued for many centuries in both urban aid rural areas.

Confronting Marginalisation Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. By which article of the Constitution untouchability has been abolished?

Answer Article 17 has abolished untouchability in every form from the society.

Question 2. What do you know about tribals?

Answer The term Tribal refers to aboriginals or Adivasis—derived from Adi-meaning ‘beginning or earliest time’ and vasi-meaning the ‘original residents or inhabitants’. The tribals mostly live in forest or hilly areas. Tribals depend on the natural resources for their survival. They are easily exploited by money¬lenders and industrial contractors.

Question 3. Why did the Safai Karamchari Andolan file a PIL in 2003? What did they complain about in their petition?

Answer In 2003, the Safai Karamchari Anaolan filed a PIL. In the PIL, the Safai Karamchar complained that in government undertakings, like railways, manual scavenging still existed. The petitioners asked to be given their fundamental rights of freedom and equality.

Question 4. Which Fundamental Rights are violated by the practice of manual scavenging?

Answer

1. The practice of manual scavenging violates tie following fundamental rights:
2. Right to Equality,
3. Right to Freedom.

Question 5. What is the literacy rate among the tribal people?

Answer

Literacy rate among the tribal people is very low. According to 2001 census, only 29.5% of tribal people were literate while the general literacy rate was 64%.

KSEEB Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Questions And Answers 

Question 6. Explain the main provision of Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act 1993.

Answer The Act prohibits the employment of manual scavengers as well as the construction of Dry Latrines.

Confronting Marginalisation Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Mention the name of those states where scheduled tribes (Adivasis) are residing.

Answer
More than two-thirds of the tribal population live in the North-Eastern states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura. The rest of the tribal population is concentrated in Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Biha-, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Dadar and Nagar Havelli. Majority of them live in rural hilly tracts and forests.

Question 2. What are the main problems of tribal communities?

Answer The main problems faced by the tribals are—land alienation, lack of education, poverty and indebtedness, unemployment and exploitation. All the above stated problems are interlinked.

Question 3. What are the effects of Manual Scavenging?

Answer
Manual scavenging is a caste-based occupation, regarded as ‘dirty. The hereditary job led to their further segregation. These people lived away from the reach of other castes, mainly outside the town or village. They are subjected to various forms of discrimination and disabilities.

Question 4. Write in brief the New Forest Policy of 1983 with regard to tribal people.

Answer
New Forest Policy of 1988 is more sensitive to the rights and needs of the tribal people. It lays down that all forest management agencies should involve the tribal people in the protection, regeneration and development of forest as well as provide alternative employment opportunities to the people living in and around the forests.

Question 5. Mention the name of states and union territories having no tribal population.

Answer  Haryana, Punjab, Delhi, Chandigarh, Daman and Diu do not have any tribal population.

Question 6. The Safai Karamchari Andolan file a PIL in the Supreme Court in 2003? What did the Supreme Court do on hearing their case in 2005?

Answer
 It came into the notice of the Supreme Court that the number of manual scavengers has increased since the law was passed in 1993. The court asked the various government departments to verify the facts. If manual scavenging is still prevalent, the respective department has to take appropriate measures to ensure the liberation and rehabilitation of the scavengers.

Confronting Marginalisation Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Describe the various steps taken by the government to eradicate manual scavenging.

Answer

• After independence, various plans were started to liberate scavengers from social and occupational bondage.
• Many commissions were appointed to end this social evil. Various commissions unanimously suggested that as long as dry latrines exist, manual scavenging cannot be eradicated.
• Ultimately the ‘Employment of Manual scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act was passed in 1993.
• The Act punishes the employment of scavengers or the construction of dry (Non-flush) lavatories with imprisonment for upto one year and/or a fine of? 2000.
• Moreover, the responsibility of rehabilitation has been taken by the government. The scavengers got accommodated in the local municipal body as safai kavrachar’s.
• The government has also assisted the scavengers and their dependents to opt for alternative trade by providing subsidy, bank loan and training for such trades.

The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act 1976 and the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 also proved successful in discouraging the practice of manual scavenging.?

Confronting Marginalisation KSEEB Class 8 Textbook Solutions 

Question 2. Describe briefly the main provisions of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes j (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.

Answer

• The Scheduled Caste and the Scheduled Tribe Act was implemented in 1989. It was formed in response to the demands made by the Dalits and the Other Backward Communities (OBCs)
• who were inhumanly treated and humiliated. This Act contained a long list of social injustice and distinguishes them at several levels.

1. This act seems to punish those who:
2. Force a member of the Scheduled Tribe or Scheduled Caste to drink or eat any unedible or obnoxious substance.
3. Forcibily removes/tears the clothes of the person belonging to Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe or forces him/her to parade naked or painted face body or commits any other similar act that violates human dignity.
4. Force the SCs and STs to do begar or forced labour/and those who illegally occupy the land allotted to them or get their land transferred in their names.
5. Assault or use force on any women belonging to SC or ST with a purpose to dishonour her.

Question 3. What are the Constitutional Provisions which aim at social justice?

Answer
Constitutional Provisions which aims at social justice are:

1. Article 14, provides right to equality before the law.
2. Article 15(1), states that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on the basis of sex, religion, caste, place of birth, etc.
3. Article 16(1), provides equal opportunities for all citizens in employment
4. Article 17, abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form is a punishable offence.
5. Article 29(2), provides educational rights to the citizens. It further states that no citizen shall be denied admission to any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of the state funds on the basis of religion, race, caste or language or any of them.
6. Article 38, which directs the state to strive and promote social welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may in order to strive for justice—social, economic and political— shall inform all institutions of national life.
7. Article 39 of the Constitution directs the state to adopt policies that secure every citizen the right to an adequate means of livelihood; the equal pay for equal work; arid to ensure that children and youth are protected against exploitation.
8. Article 326 states that every citizen of India, not less than 18 years of age, shall be entitled to vote in elections.

Question 4. Mention the Constitutional Provision for safeguarding the interest of minorities and SCs and STs.

Answer
The following are the Constitutional Provisions for safeguarding the interest of minorities:

1. Article 29(1), states that all citizens of India have the right to conserve their distinct culture and language.
2. Article 29(2), further states that on the basis of caste, religion, race or language, no individual can be denied admission to any government or non-government institution.
3. Minorities have the right to establish and administer their educational institutes.
4. State shall not discriminate against any institution on the grounds that it is under the management of minority communities.
5. Implementation of Constitutional Provisions for SCs and STs
6. Government jobs are also reserved for them and they are adequately represented.
7. For the social-economic development of STs, Ministry of Tribal Affairs was set up in 1999.
8. For various competitive examinations, free of cost training is provided to students of SCs and STs.
9. Various vocational training programmes have been launched in the tribal areas. Educational institutions have also been opened to promote female literacy ratio.
10. Free textbooks are provided for SC and ST students in schools, colleges and for medical/ engineering courses.

Confronting Marginalisation Hots Corner

Question How is manual scavenging responsible for the backwardness of a section of society?

Answer
Manual scavenging means the practice of removing human excreta manually from dry lavatories (non¬flush), doing leather work, removing dead cattle, etc. Manual scavenging is a caste-based occupation, regarded as dirty.

1. The hereditary occupation of manual cleaning of human excreta has become the basis of their exploitation by others.
2. Scavengers constitute an underprivileged social group considered as impure and consequently excluded and avoided for practising polluting profession.
3. They have been treated like an infectious disease calling for the most minimal social contract.
4. Because of this discrimination, they are forced to live a socially disadvantaged life, and had no alternative but to accepted this degradation.
5. Social backwardness bred economic backwardness. Most scavengers live in object poverty because of low wage occupation.
6. Most of them are illiterate and therefore economically weak.
7. Educational backwardness has deprived them from taking advantage of the constitutional privileges specially meant for their welfare.

Confronting Marginalisation Miscellaneous Questions Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of the following is a Marginal group?

(a) Muslims
(b)dalits
(c)Adivasis
(d) All of the above

Answer (d) All of the above

Question 2. Untouchability is abolished under which article of the Constitution?

(a) Article 17
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 14

Answer (a) Article 17

Question 3. Reservation Policy is adopted by the government for the benefits of:

(a) Scheduled castes
(b) Backward classes
(c) Scheduled tribes
(d) All of the these

Answer (d) All of the these

Question 4. Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act was passed in:

(a) 1989
(b) 1983
(c) 1993
(d) 2003

Answer (c) 1993

Question 5. When Safai Karamchari Andolan and 13 other organisations filed a PIL in the Supreme Court?

(a) 1989
(b)2002
(c) 2003
(d)2000

Answer (c) 2003

Important Questions For KSEEB Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 

Question 6. What is the Literacy rate among the tribal people, according to 2001 census?

(a) 50%
(b)40%
(c) 31%
(d)29.5%.

Answer (d) 29.5%

Confronting Marginalisation Picture Interpretation

Study the following pictures and answer the question that follows:

1. What do you understand from the two pictures given above?

Answer In picture 1, dry latrines are being abolished. In picture 2, manual scavengers are at work.

KSEEB SSLC Class 9 Biology Notes Karnataka State Syllabus

• Chapter 1 The Fundamental Unit Of Life Notes
• Chapter 2 Tissues Notes
• Chapter 3 Diversity in Living Organisms Notes
• Chapter 4 Why Do We Fall ill Notes
• Chapter 5 Natural Resources Notes
• Chapter 6 Improvement In Food Resources Notes

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Civics Chapter 10 Law and Social Justice Textbook Questions

Question 1 Talk to two workers (For example, construction workers, farm workers, factory workers, or workers at any shop) to find out if they are -receiving the minimum wages laid down by law.

Answer No doubt Minimum Wages Act is passed almost in every state. In Haryana, The  Minimum Wages Act is also passed. We have talked with four-five workers but nobody is getting minimum wages fixed by the government

Qusestion.2 What are the advantages to foreign companies in setting up production in India?

Answer During the last fort)’ years, many foreign companies have established their factories in India. In the age of globalisation and liberalization. Multinational Companies came to India rapidly. The following are the advantages to foreign companies in setting up production in India.

1. The main advantage to foreign companies in India is cheap labor. In comparison to Indian workers, workers of USA and other countries are paid much higher wages. In India, companies pay lower wages for more working hours
2. The need to invest less in land and machinery is another advantage of foreign companies. The working conditions in India are lower, which means that fewer safety measures are required, which in turn helps in cost cutting. Less cost means more profit which is why foreign companies are coming to India.

Question 3 Do you think the victims of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy got justice? Discuss.

 Answer.

• At the late hours of night on December 2, 1984, a toxic gas known as methyl isocyanate, or MIC as it is popularly known leaked from the Un on Carbide factor in Bhopal.
  By 12.30 a.m. on December 3, toxic gas clouds enveloped the sky.
• While hundreds and thousands were affected, the municipal workers claimed to have cleared at least 15,000 dead bodies n the immediate vicinity of the plant. The death toll reached around 3,589 persons by 1989.
• Thousands of people who survived, still suffer from chronic illness, vision ailments like blindness, impaired immune system, and increased incidence of cancer.
• The government represented the victims in a civil case and demanded $ 3 billion as compensation in 1985 but accepted $ 470 million in 1989.
• Survivors went to the Supreme Court but Supreme Court decided that the settlement amount would stand. In fact, it was a great injustice to the victims who got very poor compensation.

Question 4 What do we mean when we speak of law enforcement? Who is responsible for enforcement? Why is enforcement so important?

Answer.

• There are three organs of government i.e., Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary. Law-making is the main function of legislature. But merely law-making is not sufficient. Enforcement of laws are equally important.
• Without implementation, law has no value. Law is implemented by the executive.
• The executive is to see that all the laws are properly obeyed and those who break the laws are punished. For example, Minimum Wages Act has no importance unless the government (Executive) also supervises and checks that workers get their wages in accordance with the provisions of the Act and punishes those who violate the law.

Qusestion.5. How can laws ensure that markets work in a manner that is fair? Give two examples to support your answer.

Answer.

• Law is a very important factor to control the market Everything can’t be left free to decide the market situation. For example, it is very essential that Minimum Wages Act of workers must be enacted.
• Without this Act, private companies, traders, business communities, and factory owners would normally pay very less to the workers to make maximum profit.
• Due to Minimum Wages Act, the employer cannot pay less than the Minimum Wage. The interests of the consumer and producers are also protected in a market by-law.
• These laws ensure the proper relations that exist between workers, producers, and consumers and none is in a position to exploit the other. In this way, laws ensure that markets work in a manner that is fair

Question 6 Imagine yourself to be a worker working in a chemical factory which has received orders from the government to move to a different site, 100 km away from the present location. Write about how your life would change.? Read out your responses in the classroom.

Answer. If my factory, where I am working, moves to a different site 100 km away from the present location, my life will be affected adversely. Either I have to lose the job or I have to shift my family near the factory. Near the factor)  problem of pollution will come up and the problem of safety conditions of workers will remain unchanged.

Question 7 Write a paragraph on the various roles of the government that you have read about in this unit.

Answer. Modern sidle is a welfd sidle. On the basis of Unit V, life government performs the following functions:

1. One of the major functions of the government is to ensure that public facilities are made available to everyone.
2. The government should provide safe drinking water to all.
3. The government should provide all facilities which are needed for the protection of the health of the people.
4. The government should provide proper sanitation facilities.
5. The government should enact laws and implement them properly to achieve social justice.
6. The government should enact minimum Wages Act for workers.
7. The government should ensure proper safety measures, good working conditions, etc.
8. The government should enact new laws for the protection of environment.
9.  The government is responsible for setting up laws and procedures that can check pollution, clean rivers, and introduce heavy fines for those who pollute the environment

Class 8 Civics Law And Social Justice KSEEB Notes 

Question 8 What are the sources of environmental pollution in your area? Discuss with respect to

(a) air  (b) water and (c) soil. What are the steps being taken to reduce the pollution? Can you suggest some other measures?

Answer. The major sources of environmental pollution are as follows:

1. The burning of fossil fuels gives out smoke which is released into the atmosphere.
2. The use of fossil fuels in automobiles like buses, cars, etc., leads to air pollution as these emit toxic gases.
3. Water pollution is a major environmental problem. Large sources of pollution are liquid wastes which flow from industry, agriculture, or human wastes.
4. Air pollution is caused mainly by the toxic smoke which comes out of the industries.
   Steps taken to reduce the pollution
   (a) The Supreme Court had ordered all public transport vehicles using diesel were to switch to compressed natural gas (C.N.G.).
   (b) To adopt cleaner technologies and processes in factories, the government has to encourage and support factories to do this.

Question 9 How was environment treated earlier? What has been the change in perception? Discuss.

Answer There is much change regarding environment in the present as compared with past People were not conscious about the environment in the past. But now they are conscious about environment and taking steps to protect.

Question 10 What do you think the famous cartoonist R.K. Laxman is trying to convey in this cartoon? How does it relate to the 2006 law that you read about on page 125?

Answer It’s really cruel burdening kids like this. I had to hire that boy to help my son!
The famous cartoonist R.K. Laxman in this cartoon wants to send out the message that people should protect the rights of the children. The October 2006 law on Child Labour Prevention Act states that children below the age of 14 should not be allowed work in mines, tea shops, restaurants, etc. They are also banned from working as domestic servants ur dl Dftobus.

Law and Social Justice Text Questions

Question 1 Why do we need a law on minimum wages?

Answer. We need a law on minimum wages for ensuring that the workers are fairly remunerated.

Qusestion.2. Find out:

(a)What is the minimum wage of a construction worker in your state?
(b)Do you think the minimum wage for a construction worker is adequate, low or high?
(c)Who sets the minimum wages?

Answer.
(a) Above  200 daily.
(b) Low.
(c) Labour Ministry of the state.

Question 3 Why do you think the enforcement of safety laws is important in any factory?

Answer. The enforcement of safety laws is important in any factory for the safety of the workers and general public.

Qusestion.4. Can you point to a few other situations where laws (or rules) exist but people do not follow them because of poor enforcement? (For example over-speeding by motorists)

Answer. Following are some examples where laws exist but people do not follow them:

1.  Crossing red light on the road.
2.  Encroachment of government land in residential and commercial areas.
3. Not crossing the road from the zebra crossing.

Question.5. What are the problems in enforcement?

Answer. Problems in enforcement:

1. People are not aware of such laws or don’t follow the law deliberately.
2. Government officials don’t perform their duties sincerely and honestly.
3. Culprits generally give bribes to the government officials.

Question 6 Can you suggest some ways in which enforcement can be improved?

Answer. Yes, following are some of the ways for improving enforcement:

(1) Deployment of adequate number of enforcement staff.
(ii )Stringent punishment for violators.
(iii) Summary trials.
(iv) Offence to be made unbailable.

Question 7 A clean environment is a public facility. Can you explain this statement?

Answer. A clean environment is a public facility because it is essential for the survival of the people.
The government has to provide this at its own cost in a democratic setup.

Question 8 Why do we need new laws?

Answer. We need new laws to ensure the safety of the people.

Question 9 Why are companies and contractors able to violate environmental laws?

Answer. Companies and contractors are able to violate environmental laws because of their connivance with government officials and corruption within the judicial system.

KSEEB Class 8 Civics Chapter 10 Questions And Answers 

Law and Social Justice Additional Questions (Solved)

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1 What is meant by environment?

Answer. Environment means surroundings or conditions under which a person or thing exists and develops its characteristics.

Question 2 Do you think the minimum wage for a construction worker is adequate, low, or high?

Answer. Minimum wage for a construction worker is very low.

Question 3 What is the minimum wage for a construction worker in your state?

Answer. It is  200 per day.

Question 4 Write those rights which are a part of Right to Life ?

Answer.

•  Right to Health
•  Right to Shelter
  
•  Right to Education

Question 5 Who directed industries in residential areas in Delhi to close down or shift out of the city?

Answer. Delhi High Court

Question6 Which issue is brought to the forefront by Bhopal disaster?

Answer. The issue of environmental degradation.

Question 7 Why foreign companies come to India for business? Give one reason.

Answer. One reason why foreign companies come to India for business is due to availability of cheap labor.

Question 8 What do you mean by environmental degradation?

Answer. it is the deterioration of the environment both in quality and quantity. Pollution is a major cause for it

Question.9. Who sets the minimum wages?

Answer. The government sets the minimum wages.

Question 10 Why did Bhopal Gas Tragedy occur?

Answer. Bhopal Gas Tragedy occurred due to leakage of poisonous gas — Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) from the Union Carbide factory.

Question 11 Write the health problems faced by the survivors of Bhopal Gas Tragedy.

Answer. Many people faced respiratory disorders, eye problems, and other disorders. Children who survived the tragedy developed many physical and mental abnormalities.

Question 12 Why do we need a law on minimum wages?
Answer. We need a law on minimum wages so that there is no exploitation of workers by the employers or by the capitalist Minimum wages law is required for ensuring just wages and to check underpayment

Law and Social Justice Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1 What is meant by environment?
Answer.

• Environment means surroundings or conditions under which a person or thing exists and develops its characteristics.
•  It is divided into the natural environment and human environment

Question 2 What is environmental degradation?
Answer. Environmental degradation refers to the deterioration of the environment both in terms of quantity and quality. If the resources are used in large quantities it leads to their depletion. If they are used in inefficient ways, it results in deterioration of the environment

Question.3. Explain the importance of social justice.

Answer. The importance of social justice is increasing day by day in a modem democratic state. Social justice is very essential for the maintenance of social harmony and peace in the society. To make democracy’ a success, social justice is very much essential.

Question 4 Discuss the articles of the Indian Constitution with regard to environment.
Answer.

1.  It is one of the fundamental duties of the State to protect and improve environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
2.  It is the duty of every- citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.

Question 5 What are environmental laws?

Answer. The laws passed by government regarding conservation of nature or for protection of some specific natural resources are called environmental laws. Such as Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981, Environmental (Protection) Act 1986, Forest (Conservation) Act 1980, Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution Act) 1974, etc.

Question 6 Why do you think enforcement of safety laws is important in any factory?
Answer. Enforcement of safety laws is important in any factory due to the following reasons:

1.  Under the Right to Life, guaranteed under Art. 21 of the Indian Constitution, the government has the responsibility to ensure safety to all workers.
2.  Majority of the industries did not include measures to save costs and earn more profits.

Law and Social Justice KSEEB Class 8 Textbook Solutions 

Law and Social Justice Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1 Write a detailed note on Right to Life. Mention those rights also which have become a part of the Right to Life due to various judgments of the court.
Answer.

• Right to Life is the most important fundamental right guaranteed to every citizen under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 21 provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
• At present, Right to Life has become more meaningful and substantial because many other rights have become a part of Right to Life due to various judgments of the High Courts and Supreme Court. For example, injured fanner Hakim Sheikh established the Right to Health as a part of the Right to Life.
• The judiciary has also established the Right to the “enjoyment of pollution-free water and air” for full enjoyment of life ‘as part of the Right to Life.

Question 2 Write a short note on Right against Exploitation.

Answer. The Constitution of India recognises the dignity of the individual and protects him against any form of exploitation either by the state or by the privileged classes in the society. Article 23 provides that trafficking in human beings and begar (forced labor) and similar other forms of forced labor are prohibited. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in any factory, mine, or any other hazardous (dangerous) employment.

Law and Social Justice Hots Corner

Question 1 What is Social Justice? How social justice is ensured?
Answer. Social Justice means the abolition of all social inequalities and provision of equal opportunities to all individuals living in the society. Thus, Sodal Justice means that all people living in the society are equal. The people should not be treated discriminately on the basis of caste, religion, sex, etc. The government controls the activities of individuals or private companies to ensure social justice.

Question 2 Why there exist such sharp differences in safety standards across countries? And even after the disaster happened, why was the compensation to the victims so low?

Answer. There was such a sharp difference in the safety standards across the countries because of the following reasons:

1. worth of an Indian worker was less in the minds of foreigners.
2. One worker can easily replace another.
3. Due to acute unemployment, there are many workers in India who are willing to work in unsafe
   conditions in return for a wage.
4. Taking advantage of the workers’ vulnerability, the company ignores safety in workplaces.
5. After the Bhopal Gas Tragedy, there have been regular reports of accidents in construction sites, mines, or factories because of the callous attitude of the employers.
6. The compensation to victims was low because the kins of the victims and the sur\ivors are not in a position to bargain and go to court against the verdict given by the courts to them because of their poor conditions.

Law and Social Justice Miscellaneous Questions

A.Multiple Choice Questions

Tick the correct option from the choices provided:

Question 1  The world’s worst industrial tragedy took place at:

(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c)Bhopal
(d)Jaipur

Answer.(c) Bhopal

Question.2. In the Bhopal gas tragedy, how many people died?

(a) 8,000 people
(b) 5,000 people
(c) 10,000 people
(d) 25,000 people

Answer. (a) 8,000 people

Question 3 Who is responsible for the enforcement of safety laws?

(a) State
(b) Government
(c) Nation
(d) Judiciary

Answer. (b) Government

Question 4 Who controls the activities of private companies by making, enforcing and upholding laws?

(a) People
(b) Judiciary
(c) Society
(d) Government

Answer. (d) Government

Question 5 Which of the following right is a part of the Right to Life?

(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Health
(d) None of these

Answer. (c) Right to Health

Question 6 Begar has been banned by the Constitution under:

(a) Article 21
(b) Article 22
(c) Article 23
(d) Article 24

Answer. (c) Article 23

Important Questions For KSEEB Class 8 Civics Chapter 10 

Question 7 Which of the following right is not a part of the Right to Life?

(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Information
(d) None of these

Answer. (c) Right to Information

Question 8 Begaar has been banned by the Constitution under:

(a) Article 21
(b) Article 22
(c) Article 23
(d) Article 24

Answer. (c) Article 23

Law and Social Justice B. Match the Following

Find and write the correct options from the given below columns:

Answer.
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d
4. (a)
5. (b).

Law and Social Justice C.Picture Interpretation

Study the given picture and answer the following questions:

1 Which social evil is depicted in the picture?

Answer. The social evil depicted in the picture is child abuse.

2 Which Constitutional Act bans such practice?

Answer. The Child Labour Prevention Act bans children under 14 years of age from working as domestic servants or as workers in any institution.

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 History Chapter 12 India After Independence Textbook Questions

Question 1. Name three problems that the newly independent nation of India faced.

Answer. The newly independent nation of India faces several problems. The problem of resettling refugees, division of society on the basis of caste and feeding the growing population were a few challenges.

Question 2. What was the role of the Planning Commission?

Answer. The government set up the Planning Commission in 1950 to help, design arid execute suitable policies for economic development in India.

Question 3. Fill in the blanks:

(a)Subjects that were placed on the Union UST were ____and
(b)Subjects on the Concurrent List were______ ______and
(c)Economic planning by which both the state and the private sector played a role in development was called a _____model.
(d)The death of_____ sparked off such violent protests that the government was forced to give in to the demand for the linguistic state of Andhra.

Answer.

(a) taxes, difference and foreign affairs
(b) forests, agriculture
(c) mixed economy
(d) Potti Sriramulu

Question 4. State whether true or false:

(a)At Independence, the majority of Indians lived in villages.
(b)The Constituent Assembly was made up of members from the Congress party.
(c)In the first national election, only men were allowed to vote.
(d)The Second Five Year Plan focused on the development of heavy industry.

Answer. (a) True (b) False (c) False (d) True

Question 5. What did Dr. Ambedkar mean when he said that “In politics, we have equality, and in social and economic life we will have inequality”?

Answer. Dr. Ambedkar meant that everyone has equal political rights in this country. Each one has the right to vote in India and everyone is equal in the eyes of the law’. However, the socio-economic structures and policies in India are such that people are not equal.

Class 8 History India After Independence KSEEB Notes 

Question 6. After Independence, why was there a reluctance to divide the country on linguistic lines?

Answer. After independence, many Indian leaders were reluctant to divide the country on linguistic lines. They thought that this would hamper national unity and encourage regional sentiments. It will prove to De an obstacle in the growth of nationalist spirit and lead to divisiveness among the people of India.

Question 7.Give one reason why English continued to be used in India after Independence?

Answer. After Independence, English continued to be used in India as many Indian states did not know the Hindi language. Moreover, some states threatened to separate from the Indian Un on if Hindi was imposed. English was seen as a common link among all the states and therefore, it continued to be a language for communication.

Question 8. How was the economic development of India vislised in the early decades after Independence?

Answer. The formation of a new nation was a difficult task. It was aimed that India should become a modern, self-sufficient, developed arid an industrilasied nation. The Planning Commission was set up in 1950 to design economic policies and strategies through Five Year Plans. The Second Five Year Plan proposed a large-scale growth of heavy and basic industries like iron and steel. The building of dams was also initiated. India adopted a mixed-economy model of development which was based on a combination of public and private sectors for creating economic growth

Question 9. Who was Mira Behan? Find out more about her life and her ideas.

Answer. Mira Behan was actually a British woman who had stayed in India for most of he’* life. Her’ real name was Madeleine Slate. She was fascinated by Gandhi and his ideas. She closely associated with Gandhi in his struggle and stay end at his ashram. After Independence, she was appointed by the government to advise upon development of agriculture in the state of Uttar Pradesh. She began several community projects to prevent cutting of trees and floods in hilly areas. She has been awarded with the Padma Vibhushan medal for her selfless service.

Question 10. Find out more about the language divisions in Pakistan that led to the creation of the new nation of Bangladesh. How did Bangladesh achieve independence from Pakistan?

Answer. At the time of its formation, Pakistan was divided into West and East Pakistan. West Pakistan mainly consisted of Urdu-speaking Muslims, while in East Pakistan, the Muslims spoke in Bengali. The Muslims in East Pakistan were not given their due share in administration. They were not given their basic rights as citizens. Slowly, a movement to free East Pakistan began to emerge, which was supported by India. India and Pakistan fought a war in 1971. Pakistan lost on 16th December, 1971, and the new country of Bangladesh was formed

India After Independence Text Questions

Question 1. Imagine a conversation between a father and son in a Muslim family. After Partition, the son thinks it would be wiser for them to move to Pakistan while the father believes that they should continue to live in India. Taking information from the chapter so far (and Chapter II), act out what each would say.

Answer. The father must have thought that India is a democratic country with scope for development. The son must have thought that Pakistan is an Islamic state where Muslims would be treated fairly.

Question 2. Discuss in your class, one advantage and one disadvantage today of the decision to keep English as a language of India.

Answer. The advantage of using English is that it a common language of communication irrespective of the region one comes from. The disadvantage of using English lies in its superiority over the Indian languages and over-reliance of people on English. People who do not know English are discriminated against, while the knowledge of Indian languages is not giver much importance in our country.

KSEEB Class 8 History Chapter 12 Questions And Answers 

Question 3. Discuss in your class whether Mira Behan was right in her view that science and machinery would create problems for human beings. You may like to think about examples of the effects of industrial pollution and deforestation on the world today.

Answer. Mira Behan was right in her view to some extent The mindless use of technologies’ has created an ecological imbalance and several problems for human race. The increasing pollution and environmental hazards have proved that uncontrolled use of scientific equipment has made it difficult for humans to survive. Most of us live in unhealthy surroundings. However, it is not to say that all developments in science and industry are bad. If development and use of resources is done wisely, we can avoid the degradation of the environment.

India After Independence Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What was the population of India in 1947?

Answer. India’s population in 1947 was around 45 million.

Question 2. When was the Constitution of India adopted?

Answer. The Constitution of India was adopted on 26*h January, 1950.

Question 3. What is universal adult franchise?

Answer. It means that all the adult citizens of India are allowed to vote in state and national elections.

Question 4.What is meant by equality before law?

Answer. This principle means that everyone is equal before the eyes of law irrespective of caste, community or religion. There is no discrimination on any basis.

Question 5. How has the powers been divided in India?

Answer. India is a federal country in which power is divided between central and state governments.

Question 6. What is the Union List?

Answer. It is a list of subjects on which only the central government is authorazised to make laws. It includes subjects like taxation, foreign relations as well as posts and telegraph.

Question 7. What is the Concurrent List?

Answer. it is a list of subjects on which both the central and state governments can make laws. In the case of any clash, the decision of the central government will prevail. Forests and agriculture are examples of subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List

Question 8. What do you mean by democracy?

Answer. Democracy means government of the private for the people and by the people. It is a political system in which power lies in the hands of the people.

Question 9. What is a mixed economy?

Answer. That economy in which both the private and the public sectors co-exist is known as a mixed economy.

Question 10. What do you mean by a republic?

Answer. A republican form of government is that where the head of the state is directly or indirectly elected by the people. In a republic, the citizens have some fundamental rights and the government functions according to a body of rules.

India After Independence Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. How was the Indian Constitution drafted?

Answer. The Constituent Assembly was formed in July 1946 and it set up a Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr.  B.R. Ambedkar. Between December 1946 and November 1949, three hundred Indians met several times to prepare the draft of the Constitution. These meetings were attended by individuals across India from different political parties. Laves existing in other parts of the world were also referred to. The discussions finally resulted in the framing of the Constitution, which was adopted on 26th January, 1950.

Question 2. How did the Constitution make provisions for the lower castes?

Answer. Our Constitution has offered special privileges for the people belonging to lower castes. The practice of untouchability was abolished. The government also reserved a certain number’ of seats in legislature and government jobs. Several other provisions were given to the people from socially disadvantaged communities.

Question 3. What do you mean by social democracy?

Answer. Social democracy means that all the people living in the society are equal. People should not be discriminated on the basis of caste, religion, color and sex. All the people should have equal opportunities to develop their personalities. Everyone has the right to use public places, religious centers and places of entertainment. The state should not support untouchability and the interests of the minorities should be safeguarded. The Right to Equality before law is mentioned in the Articles 14-18 of the Constitution.

India After Independence KSEEB Class 8 Textbook Solutions 

Question 4. How did Andhra Pradesh come into existence?

Answer. In 1920s, the Congress had declared that states would be divided in Independent India on linguistic basis. After Independence, when the political leaders saw no development in this direction, they strongly reacted. Potti Sriramulu went on a hunger strike in October 1952 demanding the formation of Andhra. He died after fasting for 58 days. After his death, there were widespread bandhs and hartals. The government was forced to accept this demand. Andhra Pradesh was made out of Madras Presidency as a separate state in independent India on 1st October, 1953.

Question 5. What was the focus of the Second Five Year Plan?

Answer. The Second Five Year Plan focused on the development of heavy industry in India, Large number of iron and steel industries were established. These basic industries would be regulated by the government The Plan was formulated in 1956 which also provided for construction of several dams across the country. It was important in shaping the economically of India in the coming years.

India After Independence Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What are the main features of the Constitution of India?

Answer. The main features of the Constitution of India are given as follows:

• The Constitution of India provides for a federal structure of governance. The subjects are divided between the Centre and the states. Also, it provides for an independent judiciary and a bicameral legislature (consisting of two houses).
• Universal adult franchise is another important feature of the Constitution of India. It means that any Indian citizen above the age of 18 has the right to vote in the elections.
• It guarantees equality before law to all the citizens. It means that all the citizens of the country are equal before law irrespective of their caste, creed, color, race, sex, etc.
• It gives special privileges to poor and the disadvantaged sections of the society. They are given special privileges like reservations to uplift their social status.

Question 2. Enlist some problems faced by India after Independence and Partition.

Answer. After Independence, India faced certain problems as mentioned below:

• Due to the Partition, lakhs of people left their homes on both the sides. Around 8 million refugees came to India from Pakistan. The-e were problems of food supply, housing facilities and rehabilitation of new occupants.
• There were about 562 Princely States in India at the time of Independence. It was a major challenge to persuade them to join the Indian Union.
• At the time of Independence, Indian society was divided into several castes, sub-castes, communities, sects and religious groups. There was a problem to keep these people united in the newly independent country.
• After’ Independence, there was a need to develop the country and its economy, which was ruined by the colonial government. The masses had to be freed from poverty, which was only possible through promoting industries and increasing agricultural output.

Question 3. Discuss the distribution of powers in Indian Federalism.

Answer . The Constitution of India distributed the powers between the Centre and the states. There are

three Lists of subjects on which the Centre and states can make laws:

• The Union List: There are 97 subjects n the Union List. Only the union government can make laws on these subjects. Railways, posts and telegraph, coinage and currency, difference and j foreign affairs are some subjects included in the Union List The laws framed are applicable to j all the states and citizens equally.
• The State List: There are 66 subjects in this list The state governments can make laws on these subjects. Agriculture, public works and police are included in the State List.
• The Concurrent List: There are 47 subjects in the Concurrent List On these subjects, both the Centre and the states can make laws. In case of a disagreement, the decision of the union government shall prevail.

The Residuary powers have been given to the central government in the Constitution.

Important Questions For KSEEB Class 8 History Chapter 12 

Question 4. “A huge division persists in Indian society over the last sixty six years”. Elaborate?

Answer. The Constitution of India laid down that all citizens are equal. However, in reality, differences and inequalities exist at many levels in our society. There is a sharp difference between the urban and rural areas. Some parts of the country are more developed than the others. A few Indians are very rich, while millions live below the poverty line. Thousands of people do not have shelter or enough food to eat. The gap between the rich and the poor classes is very wide.

Besides, caste and communal differences still plague the Indian society. The lower castes are discriminated against on a daily basis in every sphere of the society. People from different religious groups often clash with each other. There are differences among the people on the basis of region, language and ethnic background. Hence, we can say that differences still exist in the Indian society, ever after decades of Independence.

India After Independence Hots Corner

Question 1. Why did newly independent India have to adopt a new political system?

Answer. The newly independent nation of India had to adopt a new political system because the colonial rule had come to an end. It had to fulfill the hopes and expectations of a huge population. Hence, a viable political system was needed to govern the country.

Question 2. How was the practice of untouchability abolished?

Answer. The practice of untouchability was abolished through a law called The Untouchability Offence Act* passed in 1955. According to this law, anyone practicing untouchability will either be imprisond or fined.

Question 3. What were the recommendations of the States Reorganization Commission?

Answer. The States  Reorganization Commission submitted its detailed report in 1956. It suggested the redrawing of district and provincial boundaries on the basis of linguistic differences. As such, states in India should be carved out accordingly.

Question4. What were the problems faced by people in urban and rural areas at the time of Independence?

Answer.

• Most of the Indian population lived in the villages at the time of Independence. Peasants and farmers were highly dependent upon monsoon rains for growth of their crops. There were no proper irrigation facilities or other means of development available to the farmers. Most of the farmers were under heavy debts.
• In the urban areas, the workers lived in overcrowded slums and they had no provisions of health and education. The cities were not well equipped for the growing population to live comfortably.

India After Independence Miscellaneous Questions

A. Multiple Choice Questions

Tick the correct option from the choices provided:

Question 1. The Constituent Assembly of India started to prepare the new Constitution in

(a)July 1946
(b)Dec 1946
(c)Aug 1947
(d)Jan 1950

Answer. (a) July 1946

Question 6. Which of these problems were faced by newly independent India?

(a)Problem of refugees
(b)Problem of division of society
(c)Problem of development
(d)All of these

Answer. (d) All of these

Question 7. Which of these subjects is kept in the Union List?

(a)Currency
(b)Difference
(c)Foreign affairs
(d)All of these

Answer. (d) All of these

Question 8. Which of the following subjects is mentioned in the State List?

(a)Medical
(b)Police
(c)Local bodies
(d)All of these

Answer. (d) All of these

KSEEB History Chapter 12 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 9. At the time of Independence, a majority of Indians lived in_____

(a)Villages
(b)Towns
(c)Cities
(d)Buildings

Answer. (a) Villages

India After Independence B. True or False

State whether the following statements are true or false:

1. On 1st October, 1953, Andhra Pradesh came into being.

Answer. True

2. (Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

Answer. True

3. The Constituent Assembly was set up in July 1946.

Answer. True

4. On 26th November, 1947, the Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly.

Answer. False

5. India became independent on 15th August, 1951.

Answer. False

6. About 8 million refugees came to India during Partition.

Answer. True

7.  There were 562 Princely States in India in 1947.

Answer. True

8. The Second Five Year Plan was formulated in 1956.

Answer. True

India After Independence B. Picture Interpretation

Question 1 See picture (i) and identify his role in the Indian politics.

Answer. It is a picture of an Indian political leader named Potti Sriramulu. He led a powerful struggle and sacrificed his life which resulted in the formation of the state of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2. See picture (ii) and identify his role in nation building.

Answer. The picture is of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. He played a significant role in the Indian freedom struggle. He was the first Hone Minister of India. He took the challenging task of uniting all Princely States into the Indian Union.

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Sociology Chapter 4 Types Of Society Points To Remember

Sociology is a science devoted to the study of human society scientifically. Human beings and society are the two faces of the same coin. In Society, many aspects like jobs, lifestyle, culture, thoughts, and rituals differ from one geographical area to another.

If one enters a rural area, numerous cattle, sheep and other domestic animals are visible. A visit to cities like Mumbai and Bengaluru reveals high-rise buildings, crowded human beings, more number vehicles, slums and industries. The word Society originates from the Greek word ‘Socius’ which means companionship or friendship.
The structure that grows out of these interacting people can be called a society.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

“The web of social relationships in society. The complex relationship of social institutions and social groups is Society.” – Maclver and Page Grouping of people is called a community. Society is formed by grouping many communities.Every society has a family, neighbourhood, rural and urban settings, political parties and other communities. Hence, H.M. Johnson says “Communities community is society.”

The following are the types of societies:

1. Hunting and Gathering society.
2. Pastoral Society.
3. Agricultural Society/ Rural Society.
4. Urban Society.
5. Industrial Society.
6. Information Society.

Hunting and Gathering society is the first stage of human evolution.

The process of engaging in animal husbandry of cattle like sheep, goats, cows, and buffalo for general sustenance is called pastoral society.
Anthropologists had opined that only pastoral societies as the nomadic society in the beginning. According to encyclopaedia Britannica, Nomadic life is a type of life.
India is called a land of villages and agriculture. In the ancient literature of India, there are references to villages and their administration. In Rig-Veda, the head of the village is called ‘Gramastha’.

A group of villages was called ‘visa’, Jana’, or ‘Desha’ for administrative purposes.
In Mahabharata, the head of the village is called a ‘gaming’. The chief of a group of villages is called a ‘Dashamuki’, ‘Shatamuki’, or ‘Adhipathi’. Bogardus opines that “The human civilisation evolved in the cradle of Villages’. Though the village is an ancient system, it is not easy to define it. Bogardus says, “Village is a group of families engaged in the simple life of thrift with less population density, and have primary relationships.”

Class 8 Sociology Types of Society KSEEB Notes 

As per S.C. Dube, “A group of families residing in a place is called a village’. In this society, socialisation and social control function efficiently. In Karnataka, the neighbourhood is identified as ‘Keri’ or ‘Oni’. In Maharashtra, it is called a ‘wad’. The jamjar system was the basic nature of the Socioeconomic life of rural society. Zamindar is a Persian word. It means one who has landed. The system Zamindar has its root in the rule of Delhi Sultans.

The titles owned by Rajasthan ‘Roy’ and ‘Rana’ indicated land ownership.

In order to prevent the exploitation of farmers governments brought in “Tenancy Prevention’ acts. This move is called ‘Land Reforms’. A maximum land ceiling limit is put under this act. Urban societies are called ideal societies. They are very complex in their structures. Urban societies have dense populations involved in varieties of jobs and works. The information society helps to attain education, and do commerce and business needed for the future. The studies and theories on information societies focus on two issues related to the hold of knowledge on the economy.

Types Of Society Exercises

Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

1. The hunting societies use stone tools for hunting.
2. Plough is used to till the land in an agricultural society.
3. The distribution of skilled work is called a Division of Labour.
4. In industrial societies, there is an increase in transport and Communication
5. Mechanised production takes place in Industrial society.

Types Of Society Answer the following:

Question 1. What are the different types of Societies?
Answer:
The following are the types of societies:

1. Hunting and Gathering society.
2. Pastoral Society.
3. Agricultural Society/ Rural Society.
4. Urban Society.
5. Industrial Society.
6. Information Society.

Question 2. What is a pastoral society?
Answer: The process of engaging in animal husbandry of cattle like sheep, goats, cows, and buffalo for general sustenance is called pastoral society.

Question 3. How does agriculture gain importance in society?
Answer: With the invention of ‘plough’ during 3000 BC, the agricultural revolution started. Villages are the lifeline of this country. There are about six lakh villages in India and they have retained the Indian culture and tradition intact. The majority of the people live in rural India. in rural areas, 59% of men and 75% of women are engaged in agriculture directly for their sustenance.

KSEEB Class 8 Sociology Chapter 4 Questions And Answers 

Question 4. What is an industrial society?
Answer: Utilising scientific production ways and searching for energy sources is called Industrial society.

Question 5. The information society is growing fast. Prove.
Answer: People take help from information technologies to solve their problems and challenges. The information society helps to attain education, and do commerce and business needed for the future.

Types Of Society Answer The Following In Four-Five Lines:

Question 1. Explain the features of hunting and gathering societies.
Answer:

Hunting and Gathering society is the first stage of human evolution.

It is a simple and ancient society.

It is very small in size.

People engaged in fishing, hunting and

The role and status in society were fixed based on age and sex.

There was no desire for the accumulation of wealth.

Sharing the sources is an important trait.

Hunting was done using stone tools.

Question 2. Explain the features of pastoral societies.
Answer:

Pastoral Society is the second stage in the evolution of human societies.

People engaged in animal husbandry.

These consisted of several thousand people.

Cattle herding was the main occupation.

Society was under the leadership of a single leader.

The members were engaged in fishing, hunting and food gathering works.

Question 3. Explain the relationship between land and agriculture.
Answer:

Jajmani System: Jajmani and the caste system were working together once. The serving class provided services related to agriculture and agriculture-related works. And this class received provisions in return for its service.

Zamindari System: Zamindar is a Persian word. It means one who has landed. The system Zamindar has its root in the rule of Delhi Sultans. During the fourteenth century, the word Zamindar indicated the head of a region. The titles owned by Rajasthan ‘Roy’ and ‘Rana’ indicated land ownership. Any person who has the hereditary rights to have a share in the farmer’s corps’ was officially called a ‘Zamindar’. By the seventeenth century, the word Zamindari became prominent.

Ryotwari System: The British government undertook new ways of taxing the farmers in India. When the British government moved to tax farmers, Zamindars started harassing them more. In order to save farmers from this exploitation the court of directors introduced Ryotwari System.

Mahalwari System: When the Zamindari system and Ryotwari system failed to yield desired results, the British thought of another system name the Mahalwari system. Under this system, based on the yield of the estate or Mahal, a tax was fixed on the owners of such Mahal. A few among the Mahal owners were selected and given the roles of supervising and collecting taxes.

Types Of Society KSEEB Class 8 Textbook Solutions 

Tenancy System: Permanent tenants command little ownership over the land they are tilling, whereas temporary tenants have no claim over the land they are tilling. The landlords always had the right to take away land from the temporary tenants and hand it over to others as per their wish. In order to prevent this exploitation, governments brought in ‘Tenancy Prevention’acts.

Question 4. List out the features of industrial society.
Answer: Utilising scientific production ways and searching for energy sources is the feature of this society. The production depends on the automatic technology

The production is in large quantity

This depends on the division of labour.

The production process became mechanised.

Question 5. Write a note to the Information Society.
Answer:

People take help from information technologies to solve their problems and challenges.

The information society helps to attain education, and do commerce and business needed for the future.

The studies and theories on information societies focus on two issues related to the hold of knowledge on the economy

The first issue is the influence of information technology on socio-economical life.

It is no more the property of any individual or an institution.

Knowledge is getting exchanged over new tools.

Computers have become the information.

Types Of Society Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The word Society originates from the

1. Greek
2. Latin
3. English
4. French

Answer: 1. Greek

Question 2. The word Society originates from the Greek word ‘Socius’ which means

1. Neighbourhood
2. Friendship
3. Social relationship
4. Village community

Answer: 2. Friendship

Question 3. Grouping of people is called as

1. Friends
2. Society
3. Community
4. Family

Answer: 3. Community

Question 4.“Communities community is society.” This is stated by

1. Maclver
2. Page
3. H.M.Johnson
4. August Comte

Answer: 3.H.M.Johnson

KSEEB Sociology Chapter 4 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 5. Maclver and Page defined society as a

1. Group of social relationships
2. Web of social relationships
3. Family of social relationships
4. Village of social relationships

Answer: 2. Web of social relationships

Question 6. The first stage of human evolution is

1. Nomadic Society
2. Semi-nomadic Society
3. Pastoral Society
4. Hunting and Gathering Society

Answer: 4. Hunting and Gathering Society

Question 7. In Mahabharata, the head of the village is called as

1. Pramukh
2. Gramastha
3. Mukhya
4. Gramini

Answer: 4. Gramini

Question 8.“Village is a group of families engaged in the simple life of thrift with less population density, and have primary relationships.” It is stated by

1. GS Ghurye
2. Max Weber
3. Bogardus
4. S.C.Dube

Answer: 3. Bogardus

Question 9.“A group of families residing in a place is called a village” is stated by

1. GS Ghurye
2. Max Weber
3. Bogardus
4. S.C.Dube

Answer: 4. S.C.Dube

Question 10. The majority of the Indians live in villages as rightly noted by

1. GS Ghurye
2. Max Weber
3. Bogardus
4. S.C.Dube

Answer: 2. Max Weber

Types Of Society Fill in The Blanks With Suitable Words:

1. The word Society originates from the Greek word Socius
2. Getting together people to work towards a common goal is called Cooperation
3. Sharing tasks among a group of people is called the Division of labour
4. The second stage in the evolution of human societies is the Pastoral Society
5. A group of villages called visa
6. In Karnataka, the neighbourhood is identified as Keri or Oni
7. In Maharashtra, the neighbourhood is called a wad.
8. In Rig-Veda, the head of the village is called Gramastha.

Types Of Society Answer the following questions in a sentence each:

Question 1. What is a society?
Answer: The word Society originates from the Greek word ‘Socius’ which means companionship or friendship. The structure that grows out of these interacting people can be called a society.

Question 2. What is a society according to Maclver and Page?
Answer: “The web of social relationships in society. The complex relationship of social institutions and social groups is Society.” — Maclver and Page

Question 3. How are the Societies divided?
Answer: Societies are divided based on the nature of jobs and work.

Class 8 Sociology Chapter 4 Guide On Types Of Society KSEEB 

Question 4. What is the opinion of Bogarodus regarding the village?
Answer: Bogarodus opines that human civilisation evolved in the cradle of Villages. Bogardus says, “Village is a group of families engaged in the simple life of thrift with less population density, and have primary relationships.”

Types Of Society Answer The Following Questions In Four To Five Sentences Each:

Question 1. Explain the importance of Social.
Answer:
Universal
Necessary for protection and nourishment
Society plays a major role in personality formation
Reinforces life

Question 2. Why society is considered universal?
Answer: Human life and society go hand in hand. Human life is made possible by society. Society was there before the birth of an individual and remains even after his death. Hence society is universal

Question 3. Differentiate between Hunting and Gathering society and Pastoral society.
Answer:
Hunting and Gathering society:

Hunting and Gathering society is the first stage of human evolution.
It is a simple and ancient society.
It is very small in size.
People engaged in fishing, hunting and gathering.
The role and status in society were fixed based on age and sex.
There was no desire for the accumulation of wealth.
Sharing the sources is an important trait.
Hunting was done using stone tools. Pastoral society
Pastoral Society is the second stage in the evolution of human societies.
People engaged in animal husbandry.
These consisted of several thousand people.
Cattle herding was the main occupation.
Society was under the leadership of a single leader.
The members were engaged in fishing, hunting and food gathering works.

Question 4. Differentiate between Jajmani System and Zamindari System.
Answer:

Jajmani System: Jajmani and the caste system were working together once. The serving class provided services related to agriculture and agriculture-related works. And this class received provisions in return for its service.

Zamindari System: Zamindar is a Persian word. It means one who has landed. The system Zamindar has its root in the rule of Delhi Sultans. During the fourteenth century, the word Zamindar indicated the head of a region. The titles owned by Rajasthan ‘Roy’ and ‘Rana’ indicated land ownership. Any person who has the hereditary rights to have a share in the farmer’s corps’ was officially called a ‘Zamindar’. By the seventeenth century, the word Zamindari became prominent.

KSEEB Class 8 Types Of Society Study Materials 

Question 5. Differentiate between Ryotwari System and Mahalwari System.
Answer:

Ryotwari System: The British government undertook new ways of taxing the farmers of India. When the British government moved to tax farmers, Zamindars started harassing them more. In order to save farmers from this exploitation the court of directors introduced Ryotwari System

Mahalwari System: When the Zamindari system and Ryotwari system failed to yield desired results, the British thought of another system name the Mahalwari system. Under this system, based on the yield of the estate or Mahal, the tax was fixed on the owners of the Mahal. A few among the Mahal owners were selected and given the roles of supervising and collecting taxes.

Question 6. What are the features of urban societies?
Answer:

Industry Based Economy
Professional works
Transport and communication
Increase in migration

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Atmosphere Points To Remember

The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases, dust particles, and water vapor surrounding the Earth. The atmosphere traps heat and makes Earth a planet for all living organisms. The atmosphere is a mixture of different gases, dust particles, and water vapor. The atmosphere may be divided into five important layers on the basis of its characteristic features. These are Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere (Ionosphere), and Exosphere. The troposphere has all the atmospheric elements such as temperature, pressure, winds, clouds, rainfall, etc.

Temperature and pressure decrease with the increase in altitude.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

The stratosphere is the second layer of the atmosphere. Ozone is the most important gas which absorbs the ultraviolet rays of the sun and protects all forms of life on Earth.

The stratosphere is free from clouds and other important weather phenomena and provides ideal flying conditions for jet aircraft.

The mesosphere is the third layer in the Earth’s atmosphere. This layer has the coldest temperature in the atmosphere.

The thermosphere layer lies next to Mesosphere. In this layer, the temperature rises drastically. It is also called the ‘Ionosphere’ as the gaseous atoms are ionized due to very high temperatures. The ions found in this layer help in reflecting radio waves.

The exosphere is the topmost layer of the atmosphere. In this layer elements of the atmosphere are rare and pressure is extremely low.

The weather condition of a place is influenced by various elements such as temperature, pressure, wind, humidity, clouds, rainfall, etc.

The atmospheric condition of a place at a given time is called ‘Weather’. In contrast, the average weather condition of an area over a long period of time is called ‘Climate’.

Insolation means incoming solar radiation from the sun to the Earth. Temperature is recorded by an instrument called a ‘thermometer’. Centigrade and Fahrenheit are important thermometers used to measure atmospheric temperature.

The normal lapse rate is the decreasing rate of temperature with the increase of altitude. The rate of decrease is 10 C for every 165 meters or 6.40 C for every 1000 meters of height (1 km).

The wind is the horizontal movement of the air on the surface of the Earth.

The direction of the wind is shown by an instrument called a ‘wind vane’ or ‘weather cock’. ‘Anemometer’ is used to measure the speed of the wind.

Winds are classified into 4 major types. They are; Planetary winds, Seasonal winds, Local winds, Cyclones, and Anticyclones.

Polar winds are also called Easterlies. These winds blow from polar high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts.

Seasonal winds are also called periodic winds. These winds change their direction periodically or seasonally.

Periodic winds are the result of variations in local temperature, pressure, and humidity which in turn are attributed to the formation of air currents, crossing mountain ranges, valleys, and other relief barriers.

Class 8 Geography Atmosphere KSEEB Notes 

The important periodic and local winds are Land breeze, Sea breeze, Mountain breeze (Katabatic winds), Valley breeze (Anabatic winds) and other few winds are Loo (India), Chinook or Snow eater (USA), Fohn (Alps region), Mistral (France), Sirocco (Sahara region), Brick Fielder (Australia), Blizzard (Antarctica), etc.

Climate is the average condition of the atmosphere over a long period of time in a larger area Example:- Equatorial climate, Tropical monsoon climate, Desert climate, Mediterranean climate, Tundra climate, etc. The scientific study of climate is called ‘Climatology’.

The factors that influence the climate of a place or region are Latitude, altitude, winds, distance from the sea, distribution of land and water bodies, ocean currents, etc.

Atmosphere Exercises

Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

1. The two major gases of the atmosphere are Nitrogen and Oxygen.
2. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is Troposphere.
3. The average air pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is 1013.25 MB.
4. Westerlies is also known as Anti-trade Winds
5. The scientific study of weather is ‘Meteorology’

Answer the following questions:

Question 1. What is the atmosphere?
Answer: The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases, dust particles, and water vapor surrounding the Earth.

Question 2. Name the important layers of the atmosphere.
Answer: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere (Ionosphere), and Exosphere are the important layers of the atmosphere.

Question 3. What is the significance of the ozone layer?
Answer: Ozone is the most important gas which absorbs ‘ultraviolet rays’ of the sun and protects all forms of life on the Earth.

Question 4. What is Doldrum? Where is it found?
Answer: Equatorial low-pressure belt is a calm region with very little wind. So it is known as ‘Doldrum’ means ‘belt of calm’ (equatorial calm). It is found in the Equatorial low-pressure belt.

Question 5. Name the different types of planetary winds.
Answer: Trade winds, Anti-trade winds, and Polar winds are three types of planetary winds.

Question 6. What are local winds? Give any two examples.
Answer: Periodic winds are the result of variations in local temperature, pressure, and humidity which in turn are attributed to the formation of air currents, crossing mountain ranges, valleys, and other relief barriers. Examples: Land breeze, Seabreeze, Mountain breeze

Question 7. Mention the different types of clouds.
Answer: The important types of clouds are the Stratus, the Cumulus, the Cirrus, and the Nimbus clouds.

KSEEB Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Questions And Answers 

Question 8. Distinguish between weather and climate.
Answer: The atmospheric conditions of a smaller area at a particular time are called weather. For example cloudy, sunny, fine weather, etc. The scientific study of weather is called ‘Meteorology’. Climate is the average condition of the atmosphere over a long period of time in a larger area Example:- Equatorial climate, Tropical monsoon climate, Desert climate, Mediterranean climate, Tundra climate, etc. The scientific study of climate is called ‘Climatology’.

Atmosphere Define the following:

1. Ionosphere: Thermosphere is also called the ‘Ionosphere’ as the gaseous atoms are ionized due to very high temperatures.
2. Normal lapse rate: Normal lapse rate is the decreasing rate of temperature with the increase of altitude. The rate of decrease is 1 C for every 165 meters or 6.4 C for every 1000 meters of height (1 km).
3. Torrid zone: Torrid zone is found between 0 or the Equator and Tropic of Cancer in the north (2314 N) and the Equator and Tropic of Capricorn (2314° S) in the south.
4. Horse latitudes: North sub-tropical high-pressure belt is found between 30 and 35 north latitudes. This region is also popularly called ‘Horse latitudes’.
5. Orographic rainfall: The rainfall which occurs in mountain areas is called Orographic rainfall also called ‘Mountainrainfall’ or ‘Reliefrainfall’.
6. Climatology: The scientific study of climate is called ‘Climatology’.

Atmosphere Terms to remember:

1. Insolation: Insolation means incoming solar radiation from the sun to the Earth.
2. Inversion of temperature: In some situations, temperature also increases with increasing height. This takes place in mountain valleys during long winter nights with the dear sky, dry air, no wind, and snow-covered surface.
3. Anemometer: ‘Anemometer’ is used to measure the speed of the wind.
4. Roaring forties: The westerlies of the southern hemisphere are very strong over the oceans. Hence they are called ‘Roaring forties’ (40 south latitude)
5. Nimbus: Nimbus clouds are rain clouds that occur at low levels.
6. Meteorology: The scientific study of weather is called ‘Meteorology’.

Atmosphere Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is

1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Mesosphere
4. Thermosphere

Answer: 1. Troposphere

Question 2. All weather changes occur in the

1. Stratosphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Thermosphere
4. Tropo sphere

Answer: 4. Troposphere

Question 3. The ozone layer is present in

1. Stratosphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Thermosphere
4. Tropo sphere

Answer: 1. Stratosphere

Question 4. The layer which provides ideal flying conditions for jet aircraft is

1. Troposphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Exosphere
4. Stratosphere

Answer: 4. Stratosphere

Question 5. The coldest temperature is found in

1. Troposphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Exosphere
4. Stratosphere

Answer: 2. Mesosphere

Question 6. The layer which is also called ‘Ionosphere’ is

1. Troposphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Thermosphere
4. Stratosphere

Answer: 3. Thermosphere

KSEEB Geography Chapter 3 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 7. The topmost layer of the atmosphere is

1. Troposphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Exosphere
4. Stratosphere

Answer: 3. Exosphere

Question 8. The rate of decrease is lo C for every

1. 165 meters
2. 167 meters
3. 169 meters
4. 170 meters

Answer: 1. 165 meters

Question 9. The zone of high temperature is

1. Temperate zone
2. Torrid zone
3. Frigid zone
4. Isotherms Zone

Answer: 2. Torrid zone

Question 10. The region where the temperature is neither very hot nor cold is

1. Temperate zone
2. Torrid zone
3. Frigid zone
4. Isotherms Zone

Answer: 1. Temperate zone

Question 11. The place which has been recorded the highest temperature in summer in India is

1. A1 Aziziya
2. Verkhoyansk
3. Ganganagar
4. Vostok

Answer: 3. Ganganagar

Question 12. The coldest place on the Earth is

1. A1 Aziziya of Libya
2. Verkhoyansk of Siberia
3. Ganganagar of Rajasthan
4. Vostok of Antarctica

Answer: 4. Vostok of Antarctica

Question 13. The clouds which are associated with fair weather are

1. Stratus clouds
2. Cumulus clouds
3. Cirrus clouds
4. Nimbus clouds

Answer: 1. Stratus clouds

Question 14. The clouds which are popularly called ‘wool packs’ are

1. Stratus clouds
2. Cumulus clouds
3. Cirrus clouds
4. Nimbus clouds

Answer: 2. Cumulus clouds

Question 15. The rain-bearing clouds are

1. Stratus clouds
2. Cumulus clouds
3. Cirrus clouds
4. White clouds

Answer: 2. Cumulus clouds

Question 16. The highest clouds in the atmosphere are

1. Stratus clouds
2. Cumulus clouds
3. Cirrus clouds
4. Nimbus clouds

Answer: 3. Cirrus clouds

Question 17. The clouds which resemble ‘curls of hair’ are

1. Stratus clouds
2. Cumulus clouds
3. Cirrus clouds
4. Nimbus clouds

Answer: 3. Cirrus clouds

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Guide On Atmosphere KSEEB 

Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

1. Air pressure is measured by an instrument called a Barometer
2. Temperature is recorded by an instrument called a thermometer
3. The unit used to show the pressure is millibar (Mb)
4. The direction of the wind is shown by an instrument called ‘weather cock’.
5. The instrument which is used to measure the speed of the wind is an ‘Anemometer’
6. Humidity is measured by using an instrument called a Hygrometer or Psychrometer.
7. The dark grey or black clouds are Nimbus

Atmosphere Match The Following:

1. Match the following words in column A with their descriptions in column ‘B’
        A                                                  B
Mawsynram                      The driest region on the Earth
Agumbe                            The least rainfall region in India
Royal                                 The driest place in Karnataka
Nayakanahatti                  The highest rainfall region in the
                                                world
Atacama                            The highest rainfall region in
                                              Karnataka

Answer:
A                                                B
Mawsynram                   the highest rainfall region in the world
Agumbe                         the highest rainfall region in Karnataka
Royal                              the least rainfall region in India
Nayakanahatti                the driest place in Karnataka
Atacama                         the driest region on the Earth

2. Match the following words in column A with their descriptions in column ‘B’
   A                                   B
Loo                              France
Chinook                      Alps region
Fohn                            Sahara region
Mistral                          India
Sirocco                          USA

Answer:
A                                      B
Loo                             India
Chinook                      USA
Fohn                           Alps region
Mistral                        France
Sirocco                       Sahara region

3. Match the following words in column A with their descriptions in column ‘B’
    A                                                B
Japan                                      Whirlpool
Mexico                                    Typhoon
Australia                                  Cyclone
India                                        Hurricane
Russia                                      Willy willes
Answer:
A                                           B
Japan                               Typhoon
Mexico                             Hurricane
Australia                           Willy willes
India                                  Cyclone
Russia                               Whirlpool

Atmosphere Answer the following questions in a sentence:

Question 1. What are Isotherms?
Answer: Isotherms are lines drawn on the map or globe connecting places having the same temperature.

Question 2. Why does the temperature decrease in Frigid Zone?
Answer: The temperature in this zone is very low due to the slanting rays of the sun. In summer the temperature is slightly high and in winter the temperature is low.

Question 3. What is atmospheric pressure?
Answer: Air has weight and it exerts pressure. This is called atmospheric pressure.

Question 4.The regions which have high-temperature record low pressure. Why?
Answer: The regions which have high-temperature record low pressure due to the expansion of air, while the regions of low temperature have high pressure due to the contraction of air.

Solutions For Atmosphere KSEEB Class 8 Geography 

Question 5. What are isobars?
Answer: Isobars are imaginary lines drawn on the map or globe connecting places having the same pressure.

Question 6. What is wind?
Answer: Wind is the horizontal movement of the air on the surface of the Earth.

Question 7. What is Cloud?
Answer: Cloud is a mass of small water drops or ice crystals, formed by the condensation of the water in the atmosphere, usually at a considerable height above the Earth’s surface.

Question 8. How are the Clouds classified?
Answer: Clouds are classified on the basis of their shapes and heights at which they occur.

Question 9. What is Humidity?
Answer: Humidity is the amount of water vapor or moisture present in the air.

Question 10. What is Absolute humidity?
Answer: Absolute humidity refers to the total amount of water vapor present in a given volume of air.

Question 11. What is Relative humidity?
Answer: Relative humidity is the ratio between the actual amount of water vapor present in the air and the amount of water vapor the air can hold at that temperature.

Question 12. What is Specific humidity?
Answer: Specific humidity is the actual amount of water vapor present in a given mass of air.

Question 13. What is Rainfall?
Answer: Precipitation in the form of water droplets is called rainfall.

Question 14. What is called ‘afternoon rain’?
Answer: In the equatorial region, convectional rainfall is called ‘afternoon rain’, as it occurs mostly in the afternoon.

Question 15. What is the ‘rain shadow region’?
Answer: The windward side of the mountain receives more rainfall, while the leeward side receives less. The leeward side is generally called the ‘rain shadow region’.

Atmosphere Answer the following questions in four to five sentences each:

Question 1. Write the extension of Atmosphere.
Answer: The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases, dust particles, and water vapor surrounding the Earth. This layer of gases forms a protective boundary between outer space and the Earth’s surface. The thickness of the atmosphere is around 1000 km.

Question 2. How does the Atmosphere support life?
Answer: The atmosphere is very important for all forms of life on earth. Different gases in the atmosphere help plants, animals, and human beings. The atmosphere traps heat and makes Earth a planet for all living organisms.

Question 3. Write the composition of the atmosphere.
Answer: The atmosphere is a mixture of different gases, dust particles, and water vapor. The important gases in the atmosphere are Nitrogen – 78.08%, Oxygen- 20.94% and the remaining 1% consists of Argon – 0.93%, Carbon dioxide – 0.03%, Ozone – 0.000005%, etc. The atmosphere also contains dust particles which help us in the formation of water droplets. The water vapor in the atmosphere is the source of clouds and precipitation.

Question 4. Which are the five layers of the Atmosphere?
Answer: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere (Ionosphere), and Exosphere are the five layers of the Atmosphere.

Question 5. Why is Troposphere called a Weather breeder?
Answer: Troposphere has all the atmospheric elements such as temperature, pressure, winds, clouds, rainfall, etc. All weather changes occur in the troposphere. Temperature and pressure decrease with the increase in altitude.

Question 6. Why is Thermosphere also called ‘Ionosphere’?
Answer: In the Thermosphere layer temperature rises drastically. It is also called the ‘Ionosphere’ as the gaseous atoms are ionized due to very high temperatures.

Question 7. Which are the important factors that influence atmospheric temperature?
Answer: The important factors that influence atmospheric temperature are latitude, altitude or height, distance from the sea, wind, ocean currents, relief, clouds, rainfall, etc.

Question 8. Name major pressure belts of the Earth.
Answer:
The major pressure belts of the Earth are:

1. The Equatorial low-pressure belt
2. North Sub- tropical high-pressure belt
3. South Sub-tropical high-pressure belt
4. North -Sub- Polar low-pressure belt
5. South Sub-polar low-pressure belt
6. North Polar high-pressure belt
7. South Polar High-pressure belt

Question 9. Why is the Equatorial low-pressure belt also called Inter- Tropical Convergence Zone?
Answer: Equatorial low-pressure belt is also called Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) where the trade winds converge.

Question 10. Name the different types of wind.
Answer: Winds are classified into 4 major types. They are; Planetary winds, Seasonal winds, Local winds, Cyclones, and Anticyclones.

Question 11. Name the three types of planetary winds.
Answer: Trade winds, Anti-trade winds, and Polar winds are three types of planetary winds.

KSEEB Class 8 Atmosphere Study Materials 

Question 12. Differentiate between Cyclonoes and AntiCyclones.
Answer:

A cyclone is a small low-pressure area in the center surrounded by high pressure. The winds blow spirally toward the low-pressure area

In the northern hemisphere, the direction of cyclonic winds is anti-clockwise or counterclockwise and in the southern hemisphere, it is clockwise.

An anti-cycling is a high-pressure area in the center with winds blowing outwards, towards the low-pressure areas.

In the northern hemisphere, the direction of the anti-cyclone wind is clockwise and in the southern hemisphere, it is anti-clockwise.

Question 13. Differentiate between Cumulus clouds and Nimbus clouds.
Answer:

Cumulus clouds are cauliflower-shaped clouds of great vertical extent. The base of cumulus clouds is nearly horizontal, while the top has a dome-shaped appearance. These are popularly called ‘wool packs’. Cumulus clouds are rain-bearing clouds.

Nimbus clouds are rain clouds that occur at low levels. These clouds have the shape of a stratus or cumulus. They are dark grey or black in appearance. They cause heavy rainfall or snowfall. The Nimbostratus are thick, heavy, rain-bearing clouds.

Question 14. Differentiate between Stratus clouds and Cirrus clouds.
Answer:

Stratus clouds are usually low clouds occurring at less than 2 km in height. They appear as thin sheets or layers of large extent. Stratus clouds are associated with fair weather.

Cirrus clouds are the highest clouds in the atmosphere. These clouds resemble curls of hair and have a feathery or fibrous appearance. They indicate fair weather and often give a brilliant sunset. They look like patches of cotton fibers floating in the air. Their popular name is ‘mare’s tail’ or ‘witch’s broom’.

Question 15. Name the different types of Humidity.
Answer: Absolute humidity, Relative humidity, and Specific humidity are the different types of Humidity.

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Biosphere Points To Remember

The biosphere is the fourth component of the earth and it is the totality of all living things on earth. Ecology is the study of the interaction of living organisms with their physical, chemical and biological environment. In a natural environment, there is a perfect balance between the various organisms living together in the biosphere. This is known as ecological. The environment is the surrounding where an organism, a community or an object exists. The environment is of two types- Natural or geographical and Cultural or man-made. Pollutants are substances that cause pollution. Pollutants are natural and man-made.

Manmade pollutants are considered to be more dangerous and hazardous than natural pollutants. The pollutants may be visible like smoke, gases, dust, garbage, sewage, etc., and invisible like bacteria, toxic chemicals mixed with water, food, soil, etc.

According to World Health Organisation (W.H.O)., air pollution is defined as, Substances put into the air by the activity of mankind in concentration, sufficient to cause harmful effects to health, vegetation and property.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

The important sources of air pollutants are Natural: Volcanoes, forest fires, cosmic dust, etc. Man-made: Gases from industries, domestic use, automobiles, mining, nuclear power plants, nuclear explosions, etc.

Water pollution is ‘an alteration in physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water which may have harmful effects on human and aquatic life.

Soil pollution is a ‘decrease in the quality of soils either due to human sources or natural sources or by both’.

Noise pollution is ‘any undesirable sound dumped into the atmosphere leading to health hazards ’. The temperature of the earth is increasing slowly over the years. For the last few years, global temperature has increased This phenomenon is termed Global warming.

The warming of the atmosphere is caused by the greenhouse effect and the trapping of heat by the atmosphere. The world getting warmer, climatic zones are shifting, glaciers are melting and the sea level is rising due to global warming Example:- the high rate of melting of ice in the Himalayas, Arctic and Antarctic regions.

Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases trap the heat radiated from the earth. Thus increasing in greenhouse gases is causing an increase in temperature. This is called the ‘Greenhouse effect. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet rays and protects all forms of life on the earth’s surface. In recent years the use of air conditioners, refrigerators, sprays and deodorants is destroying the ozone due to the synthetic chemicals released into the atmosphere, primarily ‘chlorofluorocarbons’ (CFC).

The highest ozone depletion in the world is recorded in the atmosphere over Antarctica. The ozone depletion has caused the ozone hole. This has to be controlled for the sake of the people of the present and future generations.

Acid rain contains high amounts of acids particularly sulphuric acid and carbon monoxide. Acid rain is also referred to as ‘ lake killer’. The ‘Black Triangle’ stretching over Poland, the Czech Republic and Southeast Germany is one of the worst acid rain-affected regions in the world. The variety of flora (plants) and fauna (animals) in a region is known as biodiversity.

The conservation of ‘Biodiversity’ is very important to save and protect rare plants and animal species. Providing a good environment. condition for their living is the best means of protection.

Class 8 Geography Biosphere KSEEB Notes 

Answer the following questions:

Question 1. What is Biosphere?
Answer: The biosphere is the fourth component of the earth and it is the totality of all living things on earth.

Question 2. Define ecology.
Answer: Ecology is the study of the interaction of living organisms with their physical, chemical and biological environment.

Question 3. Name the different types of environmental pollution.
Answer: Air pollution, Water pollution, Soil pollution and Noise pollution are the different types of environmental pollution.

Question 4. What are the measures to control water pollution?
Answer:
Measures to control water pollution are:

Industrial effluents must be treated

Drinking water sources must be kept clean

Sewage treatment plants must be established

Disposal of waste on the water bodies must be controlled, etc.

KSEEB Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Questions And Answers 

Question 5. What is Bio-diversity?
Answer: The variety of flora (plants) and fauna (animals) in a region is known as biodiversity.

Biosphere Define the following:

Biosphere: The biosphere is the fourth component of the earth and it is the totality of all living things on earth.

Ecological imbalance: In a natural environment, there is no perfect balance between the various organisms living together in the biosphere. This is known as an ecological imbalance.

Global warming: The temperature of the earth is increasing slowly over the years. For the last few years, global temperature has increased. This phenomenon is termed Global warming.

Greenhouse effect: The greenhouse effect is the increase of greenhouse gases causing an increase in temperature.

Ozone depletion: Damages caused in the Ozone layer are called Ozone depletion.

Acid rain: The rain contains high amounts of acids particularly sulphuric acid and carbon monoxide.

Biosphere Terms to remember:

Pollution: Pollution is the unfavourable alteration of our surroundings, wholly or partly by human action through direct and indirect effects.

Environmental Day: It is celebrated on 5’h June every year to protect Environment.

Climate change: Desirable or undesirable changes take place in the atmosphere.

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC): A pollutant which causes air pollution.

Earth Hour and Earth Day: A measure to save ‘Mother Planet’.

‘Save Earth’: To ‘Save Earth’ and ‘Mother Planet’ we must educate people, formulate awareness programmes, utilize resources judiciously, and control pollution awareness through education, symposiums, seminars, skits, films, and summits.

Biosphere Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The fourth component of the earth which is the totality of all living things on earth is

1. Atmosphere
2. Hydrosphere
3. Biosphere
4. Lithosphere

Answer: 3. Biosphere

Question 2. An Example of an invisible pollutant is

1. Smoke
2. Gases
3. Dust
4. Toxic chemicals mixed with water

Answer: 4. Toxic chemicals mixed with water

Question 3. An Example of visible pollutants is

1. Bacteria
2. Toxic chemicals mixed with soil
3. Dust
4. Toxic chemicals mixed with water

Answer: 3. Dust

Question 4. The Natural sources of air pollutants are

1. Volcanoes and forest fire
2. Cosmic dust and automobiles
3. Mining and nuclear power plants
4. Nuclear explosions and forest fire

Answer: 1. Volcanoes and forest fire

KSEEB Geography Chapter 5 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 5. The Man-made sources of air pollutants are

1. Volcanoes and forest fire
2. Cosmic dust and automobiles
3. Mining and nuclear power plants
4. Nuclear explosions and forest fire

Answer: 3. Mining and nuclear power plants

Question 6. Ozone depletion takes place due to

1. Soil pollution
2. Sound pollution
3. Air pollution
4. Water pollution

Answer: 3. Air pollution

Question 7. The effects of water pollution are

1. Cholera and typhoid
2. Wasteland and destruction of microorganisms
3. Headaches and restlessness
4. Cardiovascular diseases and behavioural changes

Answer: 1. Cholera and typhoid

Question 8. The Natural pollutants for Noise pollution are

1. Industrial noise and automobiles
2. Aircraft and domestic noise
3. Waterfalls and ocean waves
4. Domestic noise and mining

Answer: 3. Waterfalls and ocean waves

Question 9. The greenhouse gas which results in Greenhouse effects is

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxygen
3. Ethene
4. Nitrogen

Answer: 1. Carbon dioxide

Question 10. The highest ozone depletion in the world is recorded in the atmosphere over

1. Arctic
2. Antarctica
3. North America
4. Europe

Answer: 2. Antarctica

Biosphere Answer The Following Questions in a Sentence Each

Question 1. What is Ecological balance?
Answer: In a natural environment, there is a perfect balance between the various organisms living together in the biosphere. This is known as ecological balance.

Question 2. What is meant by Ecosystem?
Answer: An ecosystem is defined as the total assemblage of components entering into the interactions of a group of organisms.

Question 3. What is Soil pollution?
Answer: Environmental pollution is the unfavourable alteration of our surroundings, wholly or partly by human action through direct and indirect effects.

Question 4. What is Noise pollution?
Answer: Noise pollution is ‘any undesirable sound dumped into the atmosphere leading to health hazards.

Question 5. What is a killer lake?
Answer: Acid rain is also referred to as‘ lake killer’.

Question 6. What are the Pollutants?
Answer: Pollutants are substances that cause pollution.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Guide On Biosphere KSEEB 

Biosphere Answer the following questions in four to five sentences each:

Question 1. What is the significance of the ecosystem?
Answer: Without ecosystem or ecological balance in the biosphere one cannot imagine the existence of plants, animals and microorganisms either single or in a community. Every organism adjusts itself to its physical habitat.

Question 2. What is the Environment? Mention its types.
Answer: Environment is the surrounding where an organism, a community or an object exists. The environment is of two types:

1. Natural or geographical and
2. Cultural or man-made.

Question 3. What are the main causes of Environmental pollution?
Answer: The factors like overpopulation, industrialization, urbanization, over-exploitation of resources, over-utilization of automobiles, etc. have influenced a change in the living conditions of plants, animals and human beings.

Question 4. What is air pollution according to World Health Organisation (W.H.O)?
Answer: According to World Health Organisation (W.H.O)., air pollution is defined as, ‘Substances put into the air by the activity of mankind in concentration, sufficient to cause harmful effects to his health, vegetation and property.

Question 5. What are the main causes of air pollution?
Answer:
The important sources of air pollutants are:

Natural: Volcanoes, forest fires, cosmic dust, etc.

Man-made: Gases from industries, domestic use, automobiles, mining, nuclear power plants, nuclear explosions, etc.

Question 6. Air pollution affects human beings and the environment. Justify.
Answer: The important effects are changes in weather and climatic conditions, ozone depletion, the greenhouse effect, global warming, an effect on human health, a problem with the respiratory system, and an effect on the life of animals and plants.

Question 7. How can air pollution be controlled?
Answer: Control of gaseous pollutants, control of emissions from automobiles, planting of more trees, use of non-conventional energy sources, awareness programme, legal control, literacy and education etc.

Question 8. List out Natural and manmade causes of water pollution
Answer:
The important sources of water pollution are:

Natural: Soil erosion, landslides, volcanic eruption, decay and decomposition of plants and animals etc.

Man-made: Industrial effluents, urban waste, domestic waste, agricultural waste, thermal waste, oil spill, offshore drilling, nuclear waste etc.

KSEEB Class 8 Biosphere Study Materials 

Question 9. Mention the sources of soil pollution.
Answer: Sources of soil pollution are, industrial and mining waste, Domestic and urban waste, agricultural waste, nuclear waste etc.

Question 10. What are the effects of soil pollution?
Answer:
The Effects of soil pollution are:

It decreases the fertility of the soil

It converts the region into a wasteland

It destroys the microorganisms in the soil

Question 11. How can soil pollution be controlled?
Answer: Measures to control soil pollution are Controlled and judicious use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides, proper disposal of industrial and urban waste, proper use of land and crop management, awareness programmes on proper soil utilization and its maintenance etc.

Question 12. Why noise pollution is most dangerous than other pollution?
Answer: Noise pollution causes a temporary or permanent hearing problems, headaches, restlessness, cardiovascular diseases, Psychological disorder, behavioural changes, lack of concentration, etc.

Question 13. The temperature of the earth is increasing slowly over the years. Why?
Answer: The warming of the atmosphere is caused by the greenhouse effect and the trapping of heat by the atmosphere. The world getting warmer, climatic zones are shifting, glaciers are melting and the sea level is rising due to global warming Example:-the high rate of melting of ice in the Himalayas, Arctic and Antarctic regions.

Question 14. The conservation of ‘Biodiversity’ is very important. Why?
Answer:

To save and protect rare plants and animal species.

The earth is the only living planet in our solar system.

The way in which changes, disturbances, and hazards are taking place on the earth, can lead to the destruction of the quality of life on our earth in the near future.

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Sociology Chapter 2 Culture Points To Remember

Culture and society are two faces of the same coin. Human beings’ Social, religious, political, economic and spiritual aspects are decided by culture. Culture is considered the main aspect of social change. It is considered the biological system of social tradition. The word ‘Culture’ is used in a specific sense in Sociology and Anthropology.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

Culture means the transfer of knowledge, experience, belief, value, behaviour, hierarchy, and relationship from generation to generation. Hence, culture is called a system of life and knowledge shared among a social group.
The word culture is derived from the Latin word “Colere’. ‘Colere’ means cultivate or tend in Latin.
According to E.B. Tylor, “Culture is that complex whole which includes knowledge, belief, art, rules and regulations, traditions and any other capabilities earned by the human being as a member of society”.
According to Malinowski, “the tool created by the human being to design his aims of life is called as Culture”.
Culture is divided into material culture and non-material culture. In order to explain the unique features of culture, Ogburn divides culture into material and non-material culture. Both are human-made.
According to him, material culture is created by human beings by converting natural resources into man-made structures like houses, buildings, bridges, roads, dams, machines, production centres, industries, computers, technology and others.
Material culture is called civilisation. Material culture undergoes change swiftly. Non-material culture means human achievements.
Tradition, belief, ritual and custom, moral values, ideals, Art, literature, religion, language and many others are examples of non-material culture. Culture provides the knowledge needed for the social and physical existence of human beings.
The present and the past knowledge is stored in the form of proverbs, paintings, folksongs, and writings and passed on to the next generation either orally or by written texts.
Culture is the base of the evolution of human society. Culture is part and parcel of human society since the beginning of civilisation.
The social world of humans consists of various societies with numerous human relationships. Culture and society are two faces of the same coin. Culture makes human beings different from other animals.
Similarly, various artisans display their skills here. These displays are also cultural expressions. Many performers narrate the local versions of Ramayana and Mahabharata.
Similarly, during Republic day celebrations, the entire nation’s cultural diversity is showcased. Tableaus depicting various cultural aspects of India get displayed in our capital city. A tableau displaying the rural life of northern Karnataka is displayed along with another tableau displaying rural Rajasthan. Every year, the Republic Day celebrations showcase our unity in diversity.

Culture Exercises

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Culture means co-existence
2. Customs means Cultural activities.
3. Unity in diversity is found in India.
4. A mutual relationship is found between culture and society.
5. Culture is the Medium of transfer of ideas from generation to generation.

Culture Answer the following in a sentence:

Question 1. What is culture?
Answer: Culture means the transfer of knowledge, experience, belief, value, behaviour, hierarchy, and relationship from generation to generation.

Class 8 Sociology Culture KSEEB Notes 

Question 2. Give examples of cultural diversity present in your neighbourhood.
Answer: Tableaus depicting various cultural aspects of India get displayed during the republic day celebration. The groups of people who participate in fairs belong to different languages, customs and cultural groups.

Question 3. Who divided the culture into two groups?
Answer: Ogburn divides culture into material and non-material cultures.

Question 4. What is material culture?
Answer: Material culture is created by human beings by converting natural resources into manmade structures.
Example: House, buildings, bridges, roads, dams, machines, production centres, industries, computers, technology and others

Question 5. What is non-material culture?
Answer: Non-material culture means human achievements.
Example: Tradition, belief, ritual and custom, moral values, ideals, Art, literature, religion, language and many others are examples of non-material culture.

Culture Answer the following in four-five sentences:

Question 1. What is a custom? Give examples.
Answer: Aspects of culture followed by a particular group of people.

Question 2. Explain cultural diversity.
Answer: Every social group has its own culture. Hence, culture is not uniform. Aspects of culture like customs, moral values, art, and belief language differ from society to society considerably. The difference is also visible in rural, urban and tribal societies. In food habits, the difference is visible when comparing south Karnataka to North Karnataka. Not only this, even people living in the same place tend to have a different culture. Achieving unity in this diversity is important.

Question 3. Explain the features of Culture.
Answer:

Culture is abstract: The accepted way of life is carried from one generation to another generation.
Culture is social: Culture means sharing a community’s way of life, food, dress, and rituals and living with them.
Culture is Learnt: Culture does not come by birth. It is not nature made either. Children learn from teachers, form elders in the house, and they also learn from friends
Culture means co-existence: Culture ensures sharing of traditions, values, knowledge, beliefs, and other aspects necessary for human existence.
Culture is continuous: Though art, imagination, rules and regulations get formulated into a complex environment; it sustains itself with minor changes.
Culture is diverse: Every social group has its own culture. Hence, culture is not uniform. Aspects of culture like customs, moral values, art, belief, and language differ from society to society considerably.

Question 4. Culture and society are two faces of the same coin. How?
Answer: Culture and society are two faces of the same coin. Human beings’ Social, religious, political, economic and spiritual aspects are decided by culture. Culture is considered the main aspect of social change. It is considered the biological system of social tradition.

KSEEB Class 8 Sociology Chapter 2 Questions And Answers 

Question 5. Explain the features of the fair.
Answer:

Fairs are the most important cultural ritual of rural societies in India.
They function as a temporary market for the neighbouring villages.
It is a place where agricultural produce is sold or bought.
They are also the widow for entertainment soon after harvest season.
People participate in the fairs irrespective of their caste, creed and language. Fairs reinforce social relationships.
They display their cultural expressions.
The groups of people who participate in these fairs belong to different languages, customs and cultural groups.

Culture Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The word culture is derived from the Latin word

1. Colere
2. Colour
3. Culture
4. coolere

Answer: 1. Colere

Question 2.‘Colere’ means cultivate or tend in

1. English
2. Latin
3. Greek
4. Sanskrit

Answer: 2. Latin.

Question 3.According to Ogburn, which one among the following is material culture?

1. House
2. Tradition
3. Belief
4. Ritual

Answer: 1. House

KSEEB Sociology Chapter 2 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 4.According to Ogburn, which one among the following is non-material culture?

1. Building
2. Bridge
3. Road
4. Tradition

Answer: 4. Tradition

Culture Answer the following in a sentence:

Question 1. What is culture according to E.B. Tyler?
Answer: According to E.B. Tylor, “Culture is that complex whole which includes knowledge, belief, art, rules and regulations, traditions and any other capabilities earned by the human being as a member of society”.

Question 2. What is culture according to Malinowski?
Answer: According to Malinowski, “the tool created by the human being to design his aims of life is called Culture”.

Question 3. Which are the two types of culture?
Answer: Culture is divided into material culture and non-material culture.

Question 4. Culture makes human society unique and meaningful. Justify.
Answer: Culture indicates progress in lifestyle, music, literature, art, science and technology of any given human society. Culture makes human society unique and meaningful.

Question 5. Culture is called a system of life and knowledge shared among a social group. Justify.
Answer: Culture means the transfer of knowledge, experience, belief, value, behaviour, hierarchy, and relationship from generation to generation. Hence, culture is called a system of life and knowledge shared among a social group.

Class 8 Sociology Chapter 2 Guide On Culture KSEEB 

Question 6. Culture is abstract. Why?
Answer: Culture means the lifestyle of a social group. The accepted way of life is carried from one generation to another generation. This process of shifting remains abstract. Hence culture is abstract

Question 7. Culture is social. Why?
Answer: Culture is not personal. It means sharing a community’s way of life, food, dress, and rituals and living with them. Hence Culture is social.

Culture Answer the following in four to five sentences each:

Question 1. List out the importance of culture in human life.
Answer:

Culture is the treasure of knowledge
Culture explains situations
Culture defines Values
Culture explains behavioural models

Question 2. Differentiate between material culture and non-material culture.
Answer:

Material culture includes all those physical objects that are visible to the eyes and the tools used by human beings.
Material culture is created by human beings by converting natural resources into manmade structures like houses, buildings, bridges, roads, dams, machines, production centres, industries, computers, technology and others.
Material culture is called civilisation.
Material culture undergoes change swiftly.
Non-material culture includes thoughts, ideas, beliefs and values.
Non-material culture means human achievements.
Tradition, belief, ritual and custom, moral values, ideals, Art, literature, religion, language and many others are examples of non-material culture. Non-material culture undergoes slow to change.

Question 3. What are the features of culture?
Answer:
The features of culture are:

1. Culture is abstract
2. Culture is social
3. Culture is Learnt
4. Culture means co-existence
5. Culture is continuous
6. Culture is diverse

Question 4. Culture is learnt. Why?
Answer: Culture-doesn’t come by birth. It is not nature made either. This gets formed in interactions with various members of society. This means a child receives culture through the process of socialisation. Behaviours learned through interactions with various people, discussion is called culture. Children learn from teachers, and from elders in the house, and they also learn from friends.

Solutions For Culture KSEEB Class 8 Sociology 

Question 5. Culture is a treasure of knowledge. Justify.
Answer: Culture provides the knowledge needed for the social and physical existence of human beings. Animals survive and get adjusted to their natural environment with the help of instincts, Human beings have to utilise their learned knowledge in order to survive. Language is part of the culture. The future generation is guided by the present generation using language as a tool. The present and the past knowledge is stored in the form of proverbs, paintings, folksongs, and writings and passed on to the next generation either orally or by written texts:

Question 6. Culture has the capacity to strengthen human relationships. How?
Answer: People are expected to live without discrimination based on caste, creed and language. This value orientation creates a thought process. This thought process builds a set of attitudes. Hence, culture has the capacity to strengthen human relationships.

Question 7. Culture explains behavioural models. Justify.
Answer: Culture provides aims and means to achieve them in human society. It supports those behaviours that are complementary to societal aims. Similarly, it punishes those behaviours that are against societal aims. The correction done by the teachers and elders whenever undesirable behaviour happens in children is an example of this process.

Question 8. The relationship between culture and society is mutual. Why?
Answer: Culture is the base of the evolution of human society. Culture is part and parcel of human society since the beginning of civilisation. Culture is an indivisible part of society. Human interaction is based on culture. Without human interactions, no society can be in existence. Hence, without culture, there is no society and without society, there is no culture.

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Sociology Chapter 3 Social Institutions Points To Remember

Social institutions fulfil the social needs of human beings. The social institution is that whole of roles, status, moral values and functions catering to the social needs of human beings. Since the social rules and customs remain in operation, social institutions are born. According to ‘Summer and Keller, “Like living beings that have organs and cells, societies also have customs and institutions”.

Summer also says “A social institution is a permanent structure that fulfils the desires of human beings”. According to Maciver and Page, “Social Institutions are the structure devised to fulfil the desires of a particular social group”. Social institutions are found in all societies. They are as old as human civilisation. Social institutions fulfil the basic needs of human beings like shelter, food, sexual desire, procreation and personality development.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

Social institutions are the medium of transferring cultural aspects like knowledge, customs, values and others from generation to generation. Hence, social institutions are important for social life. Social institutions fulfil the basic needs of human beings and also regulate their behaviour. The social institutions assign roles to their members based on their age and other yardsticks. Family assigns relationships based on age. Similarly, social institutions assign roles to members by defining their relationships.

Important Questions For KSEEB Class 8 Sociology Chapter 3 

The main role of the family is to nourish its members. The elders like grandparents take care of the babies with caution till they become grown-ups. The family also provides nursing for the sick member or the weak elder member. The procreation of children, their upbringing, and nourishment take place within the family. Marriage directs the other relationships in the family. Religion is one of the main mediums of socialisation. It aids the spread of values like truthfulness, patience, peace, sacrifice and others through various customs and rituals.

Truthfulness, honesty and non-violence are some of the religious values that aid social unity. Religion aids in the preservation of values like truthfulness, honesty, and non-violence. Religion is one of the major means of achieving social control. It controls human life through God and spiritual concepts. Religion guides its members to be disciplined and civilised. There is a need to understand this function of religion and stop hating other religions.

Social Institutions Exercises

Fill in the blanks with a suitable answer:

1. Social institutions fulfil the social needs of human beings.
2. Family is a Social Institution
3. Social institutions are a Medium of cultural transfer.
4. Religion aids in the spread of values.

Social Institutions Answer the following:

Question 1. What is a social institution?
Answer: “A social institution is a permanent structure that fulfils the desires of human beings”.

Question 2. Explain the functions of the family.
Answer:

Nourishment of the members: The main role of the family is to nourish its members. The elders like grandparents take care of the babies with caution till they become grownups. The family also provides nursing for the sick member or the weak elder member.

Security and Socialisation: The family educates the children about interacting with society through socialisation. It also provides= social security to the members. It mainly provides skills and nourishment needed for the younger members to become part of society as adults.

Class 8 Sociology Social Institutions KSEEB Notes 

Question 3. What are the features of Social institutions?
Answer:
The features of Social institutions are:

Universal
Social Institutions have Rules
Social Institutions fulfil the basic needs
Written and unwritten rules and regulations
Interconnected relationship

Question 4. What are the types of Social institutions?
Answer: The state, family, marriage, and court of law are a few examples of social institutions.

Social Institutions Answer The Following In Four-Five Sentences :

Question 1. Explain the relationship between social institutions and society.
Answer: The social institutions in a given society remain interconnected. Ina traditional society, the family took care of bringing up a child, whereas, in modern society, the school shares the role of bringing up a child. Children who come from different families undergo socialisation in school. The social institutions remain interconnected and complement each other.

Question 2. Explain the ideals of religion as a social institution.
Answer:

Socialisation: Religion is one of the main mediums of socialisation. It aids the spread of values like truthfulness, patience, peace, sacrifice and others through various customs and rituals.
Social Unity: Religion fosters unity. By employing symbols and customs, religion creates unity among the members.
Protection of values: Religion aids in the preservation of values like truthfulness, honesty, and non-violence.
Social control: Religion guides its members to be disciplined and civilised. There is a need

Question 3. Explain the functions of the family as a social institution.
Answer:

Nourishment of the members: The main According to ‘Summer and Keller, “Like living to understand this function of religion and stop hating other religions role of the family is to nourish its members. The elders like grandparents take care of the babies with caution till they become grownups. The family also provides nursing for the sick member or the weak elder member.

Security and Socialisation: The family educates the children about interacting with society through socialisation. It also provides social security to the members. It mainly provides skills and nourishment needed for the younger members to become part of society as adults.

KSEEB Class 8 Sociology Chapter 3 Questions And Answers 

Question 4. Write a note on Marriage.
Answer:

Social Sanction: Marriage is an important social institution. It provides social sanction for a man and woman to live together. Marriage provides entry to family life. It allows the couple to stay together and lead a life of religious, economic and cultural life. Marriage is as old as human civilization. It has also undergone various changes too.

The base for the Family: Marriage is the base of the family. The procreation of children, their upbringing, and nourishment take place within the family. Marriage directs the other relationships in the family. Marriage often creates unity. Marriage brings together people from different social backgrounds and fosters unity.

Social Institutions Additional Questions And Answers

Answer the following questions in a sentence or two sentences each:

Question 1. What is a social institution according to ‘Summer and Keller’?
Answer: According to Summar and Keller, “Like living beings that have organs and cells, societies also have customs and institutions”.

Question 2. What is social institution according to Summer?
Answer: Summer also says “A social institution is a permanent structure that fulfils the desires of human beings”.

Question 3. What is a social institution according to Maciver and Page?
Answer: According to Maciver and Page, “Social Institutions are the structure devised to fulfil the desires of a particular social group”.

Question 4. Which are the values spread by Socialisation?
Answer: Socialisation aids the spread of values like truthfulness, patience, peace, sacrifice and others through various customs and rituals.

Social Institutions Answer the following in four-five sentences:

Question 1. Social institutions are Universal. Justify.
Answer: Social institutions are found in all societies. They are as old as human civilisation. Irrespective of time and space, social institutions are present in all human societies. Family, marriage and school have been part of human societies with necessary changes.

Question 2. The rules of the social institutions control society. Justify.
Answer: The rules of the social institutions regulate the behaviour of the members. The members who violate the rules are prohibited from participating. Social institutions direct their members to perform roles as per the rules strictly. In families, the role of elders and younger ones are fixed as per the rules framed by the individual

Question 3. How do Social Institutions fulfil basic needs?
Answer: Social institutions fulfil the basic needs of human beings like shelter, food, sexual desire, procreation and personality development. Various social institutions work in coordination to fulfil these needs

Social Institutions KSEEB Class 8 Textbook Solutions 

Question 4. Explain the importance of Social Institutions
Answer:

Medium of Culture: Social institutions are the medium of transferring cultural aspects like knowledge, customs, values and others from generation to generation. Hence, social institutions are important for social life.
Fulfil the needs of the members: Social institutions fulfil the basic needs of human beings and also regulate their behaviour.
Define and regulate the behaviour of members: The social institutions prescribe and define good and bad behaviours. Schools define our way of dressing and other behaviours. The school corrects our bad behaviour by various means like punishment, reprimands and rustication. If the desired correction is not achieved, then the school resorts to a legal course of action.
Social Institutions provide roles to individuals: The social institutions assign roles to their members based on their age and other yardsticks. Family assigns relationships based on age. Similarly, social institutions assign roles to members by defining their relationships.

Question 5. Why are social institutions important for social life?
Answer: Rural societies have a primary relationship. One can notice friendship, love and kinship among individuals here. Family influences most of social life. Joint families are another major feature of Indian rural societies.