Eswari

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Question Papers Set 4

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. Which of the following is an irrational number

1. \(\sqrt{5}\)
2. \(\sqrt{4}\)
3. 9
4. \(\sqrt{16}\)

Solution: 1. \(\sqrt{5}\)

Question 2.The zero of the polynomial p(x)= x + 6 is

1. 0
2. 6
3. -6
4. 7

Solution: 3. – 6

Question 3. Which of the following are the coordinates of the point lying on the x-axis is

1. (0, 3)
2. (5,0)
3. (-3, -1)
4. (0,2)

Solution: 2. (5, 0)

Question 4. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other, then it is a

1. Parallelogram
2. Trapezium
3. Rectangle
4. Square

Solution: 1. Parallelologram

Question 5. The angle in a semicircle is

1. An acute angle
2. An obtuse angle
3. Right angle
4. A reflect angle.

Solution: 3. A right angle

Question 6. The total surface area of a cone is

1. πr (l- r)
2. 2πr(r + h)
3. 3πr²
4. l x b x h

Solution: 1. πr (l- r)

Question 7. In the adjoining fig. the value of ‘x’ is

1. 30°
2. 60°
3. 90°
4. 40°

Solution: 1. 30°

Class 9 Maths Model Papers Karnataka 2023 Set 4 Pdf

Question 8. If n is an even number, median = mean of the values of the and \(\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)^{t h}\) and

1. \(\left(\frac{n}{2}+3\right)^{t h}\)
2. \(\left(\frac{n+1}{2}\right)^{t h}\)
3. \(\left(\frac{n}{2}+1\right)^{t h}\)
4. \(\left(\frac{n}{2+n}\right)^{t h}\)

Solution: 3. \(\left(\frac{n}{2}+1\right)^{t h}\)

Question 9. x³+y³=(x + y)

1. (x²+ 2xy +y³)
2. (x²+2xy +y²)
3. (x²+)
4. (x²+xy +y²)

Solution: 4. (x²+xy +y²)

Question 10. Only one pair of opposing sides of a quadrilateral are parallel, then it is a

1. Square
2. Rhombus
3. Trapezium
4. Rectangle

Solution: 3. Trapezium

Answer the following :

Question 1.Express x+5y = 0.7 in the form of ax + by + c = 0

Solution: x +5y – 0.7 =0

Question 2. Find the value of \(32^{\frac{1}{5}}\)

Solution: \(32^{\frac{1}{5}}=\left(2^5\right)^{\frac{1}{5}}\)

Question 3. If \(\frac{1}{7}=0 . \overline{142857}\) then find the value of 5/7

Solution: 5/7 \(=0. \overline{714285}\)

Question 4. Find the remainder when p(x) = x³ — 4x²+ x+ 6 is divided by g (x) =x- 3

Solution:

p(x) = x³ -4x² +x+6

p (3) =3³-4(3)²+ 3 + 6

= 27-36 + 3 + 6

p(3) = 0

∴The remainder is ‘ 0 ’

Question 5.Find two solutions for πx + y = 9

Solution: πx+y = 9

x = 0, π(0) + y = 9  (0,9)

y = 9 (0,9)

x = 1, π(1) + y = 9

π + y = 9

y = 9 – π (1,9-π )

∴The two solutions are (0, 9) (1,9 –π)

Karnataka 9th Standard Maths Sample Paper Set 4

Question 6. Define perpendicular lines.

Solution: If two lines intersect each other at 90° then these are called perpendicular lines.

Question 7. In the fig, ∠1+∠2 is

Solution: ∠1 +∠2 <180°

Question 8. State whether the following statements are always true, always false, or ambiguous.

1. The temperature in Bangalore is 30°C
2. The earth has one moon.

Solution:

1. Ambiguous
2. Always true

Question 9. Name any two Quadrilaterals from fig.

Solution: PQRS and SRBA are two quadrilaterals

Question 10. In the given figure, if AB = PQ and PQ = XY then AB =

Solution: XY

Answer the following:

Question 1. Express \(0. \overline{6}\) the form of, where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0

Solution:

\(0. \overline{6}\) – 0-666………..

Let x = 0.6666………

10x = 6.666………

10x = 6 + 0.6666…….

⇒ 10x = 6 + x

⇒ lOx – x= 6

⇒ 9x = 6/9

⇒ x = 2/3

2023 Karnataka Class 9 Maths Set 4 Question Paper

Question 2. Simplify: \((3+\sqrt{3})(2+\sqrt{2})\)

Solution:

Question 3. Find the remainder when x³+3x²+3x + 1 divided by \(x-\frac{1}{2}\)

Solution:

Let p (x) = x³+3x²+3x + 1    g (x) = \(x-\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 4. Evaluate(99)³ using the suitable identity.

Solution:

(100-1)³

(a-b)³=a³-b³-3a²b + 3ab²

(100-1)³ -(100)³-(1)³3(100)²x 1 +3 x 100 x (1)²

(100-1)³ = 100000 – 1 – 30000 + 300

(100-1)³  = 970299

Question 5. Find the value of k, if x – 1 is a factor of p(x) = 2x²+ kx + \(\sqrt{2}\)

Solution:

If x -1 is a factor of p(x), then p(1) = 0

⇒2(1)²+ k(1) + \(\sqrt{2}\) = 0

⇒ 2 + k + \(\sqrt{2}\) = 0

⇒ k = – 2 – \(\sqrt{2}\)

∴k = – 2 – \(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 6. Express -2x + 3y = 6 in the form of ax + by + c = 0 and indicate the values of a, b and c.

Solution:

a – 2x + 3y = 6

– 2x + 3y-6 = 0

ax + by – c = 0

∴a = -2,b = 3.c = -6

Question 7. In the figure, lines XY and MN intersect at ‘o’. If
∠poy = 90° and a : b = 2 : 3  find c

Solution:

Let the common ratio between a and b be ‘x’

∴ xy is a straight line and rays OM and OP stand on it.

∠XQM + ∠MOP + ∠POY = 180°

⇒b + a + ∠POY = 180°

3x + 2x + 90° = 180°

5x + 90° = 180°

5x =180°-90°

x = 90°/5

x = 18°

∴ a = 2x = 2x 18° = 36°

b = 3x = 3×18°=54°

we know that, b + c = 180°

54° + c = 180°

∴ c = 126°

9th Standard Karnataka Maths Practice Papers Set 4

Question 8. ABCD is a parallelogram and AP and CQ are perpendicular from vertices A and C on diagonal a BD S.T AAPB ≅ ACQD

Solution: ABCD is a parallelogram,

In △APB and △CQD

∠APB = ∠CQD = 90°[ ∵ AP ⊥ DB and CQ ⊥ DB ]

AB = CD (opp. sides of a parallelogram)

∠ABP = ∠CDQ (Alternate interior angles)

∴ △APB ≅ △CQD (By AS A congruency)

Question 9. In the fig, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AC and BD are its diagonals. If ∠DBC = 55° and ∠BAC = 45°, find ∠ BCD

Solution:

∠CAD = ∠DBC =55° (Angles in the same segment)

∴∠DAB = ∠CAD + ∠BAC

= 55° + 45“

= 100°

But ∠DAB +∠BCD = 180° (opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral)

so, ∠BCD = 180°-100°

∠BCD = 80°

Question 10. Construct an angle of 22 1/2° at the initial point of a given ray.
Solution:

Question 11. The diameter of the base of a cone is 10.5cm and its slant height is 10cm. Find its curved surface area.

Solution:

The curved surface area of a cone = πrl

= 22/7 x 5.25 x 10

r = d/2

r = 10.5/2

=  5.25cm CSA of a cone = 165cm² h= 10cm

Question 12. What are primary and secondary data?
Solution:

1. Primary Data: When the information was collected by the investigator herself or himself with a definite objective in her or his mind, the data obtained is called primary data.
2. Secondary data: When the information was gathered from a source that already had the information stored, the data obtained is called secondary data.

Question 13. Find the mean for the following goals scored by a team in a series of 10 matches. 2, 3, 4, 5, 0,1, 3,3, 4, 3.
Solution:
The No. of goals scored by the team is 2, 3, 4, 5, 0,1, 3, 3, 4, 3

Mean=2.8 goals

Latest Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Papers Set 4

Question 14. Two coins are tossed simultaneously 500 times, and we get two heads; 105 times, and no heads; 120 times, one head; 275 times. Find the probability of occurrence of each of these events.

Solution: Let us denote the events of getting two heads,

no head and one had byE₁, E₂&E₃ respectively.

∴ P(E₁) = 105/500 = 0.21, P(E₂) = 120/500 = 0.24

P(E₃) = 275/500 = 0.55

P(E₁) + P(E₂) + P(E₃)

= 0.21 + 0.24+0.55

= 1

Ep E2 and E3 cover all the outcomes of a trial.

Question 15. ABCD is a rhombus S.T. diagonal AC bisects ∠C as well as ∠A.

Solution:

ABCD is a rhombus,

AC is diagonal.

In △ABC, AB=AC

∴ ∠BAC

∴ ∠BCA (Angles opp. to equal sides are equal)

But ∴ ∠BAC = ∠DCA (Alternate angles)

∴ ∠BCA= ∠DCA (Axiom- 1)

∴ AC bisects ∠C

Now ∠BCA =∠DAC (Alternate angles)

and ∠BAC- ∠DAC

∴ AC bisects ∠A

Question 16. Prove that “If each pair of opposite sides of a quadrilateral is equal, then it is a parallelogram”.

Solution:

Let the sides AB and CD of the quadrilateral ABCD  be equal and also AD = BC

Draw diagonal AC.

∴ △ABC ≅ △CDA

So, ∠BAC = ∠DCA [Alternate angles]

∠BCA = ∠DAC

then AD || BC       AD =BC [given]

and AB || CD         AB = CD

Question 17. State whether the following statements are always true, always false, or ambiguous. Justify your answers.

1. There are 8 days a week
2. Gauri is a kind girl.

Solution:

1. This statement is always false since there are 7 days in a week.
2. This statement is ambiguous since it is subjective-Gauri may be kind to some and not to others

Question 18. Find counterexamples to disprove the following statements.

1. If the corresponding angles in two triangles are equal, then the triangles are congruent.
2. A quadrilateral with all sides equal is a square.

Solution:

1. You can give any two triangles with the same angles but of different sides.
2. A rhombus has equal sides but may not be a square.

Answer the following:

Question 1. Find the value of

1. \(64^{1 / 2}\)
2. \(125^{-1 / 3}\)

Solution:

1. \(64^{1 / 2}=\left(2^6\right)^{1 / 2}\)
   \(=2^{6^3 \times 1 / 2}=2^3=8\)
2. \(125^{-1 / 3}=\left(5^3\right)^{-1 / 3}\)
   \(=5^{\not x \times 1 / 8}=5^{-1}=\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 2. Factorise using suitable identity :

8x³+125y³-64z³+120xyz

Solution:

8x³+125y³-64z³+120xyz

a³+b³+c³-3abc = (a + b + c) (a²+b²+c²-ab-bc-ca)

(2x)³+(5y)³+(4y)³-3(2x)(5y)(-4z)

= (2x + 5y – 4z) (4x²+ 25y²+16z²-10xy+ 20yz + 8zx)

Question 3. Does Euclid’s fifth postulate imply the existence of parallel lines? Explain.
Solution: yes, consider the following figures

In the above fig. line, ‘n’ falls online l, and when ∠l + ∠4 < 180°, then ∠2 + ∠3 > 180°. When l and m are produced on the side of ∠1 and ∠4 they meet.

In the above fig. if ∠l+∠4 = 180°, then the lines l and m do not meet at the side of ∠1 and ∠4 or at the side of ∠2 and ∠3. This means the lines are parallel.

Question 4. In fig. AB || CD and CD|| EF, Also EA ⊥ AB If ∠BEF = 55°, find the values of x, y, and z.

Solution:

y+ 55° = 180° (Interior angles on the same side of the transversal ED)

∴ y = 180 – 55°

y= 125°

Again x = y (AB || CD)

∴ x = 125°

∠EAB = ∠FEA = 180° [Interior angles on the same side of the transversal EA]

90° + (z + 55°) = 180°

90° + z + 55° = 180°

z+ 145°= 180°

z = 180°- 145°

z = 35°

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Question Papers Set 4

Question 5. The angles of the quadrilateral are in the ratio 3 : 5: 9:13. Find all the angles of the quadrilateral

Solution:

The four angles of the quadrilateral are 3x, 5x, 9x and 13x

∴ 3x + 5x + 9x + 11x = 360°

30x = 360°

x = 360/60

x = 12

∴ The four angle are 3x = 3 x 12 = 36°

5x = 5 x 12 = 60°

9x = 9 x 12= 108°

13x = 13 x 12= 156°

Question 6. Hameed has built a cubical water tank with a lid for his house, with each outer edge 1.5m long. He gets the outer surface of the tank excluding the base, covered with square tiles of side 25cm. Find how much he would spend for the tiles if the cost of the tiles is ₹ 360 per dozen

Solution:

Edge of the cubical tank = 1.5m= 150cm (a)

surface area of the tank = 5 x 150x 1 50cm²

Area of each square tile = side x side

= 25 x 25 cm²

∴ the no. of tiles required

\(=\frac{5 \times 150^{30} \times 150^{30^6}}{25_{\beta_1} \times 25^6}\) = 180

cost of 1 dozen tiles, i.e., cost of12 tiles =₹360

∴ cost of one tile =₹ 360/12 = ₹30

∴ The cost of 180 tiles = 180 x ₹30= ₹5400

Answer the following:

Question 1. Factorise: x³– 23x²+142x-120

Solution:

x³– 23x²+142x-120

= x³– x²– 22×2 + 22x +120x-120

= x²(x-1)- 22x(x-1) +120(x-1)

= (x-1) (x²– 22x +120)

= (x-1) [x²-12x-10x +120]

= (x-1)[x(x-12)-10(x-12)]

= (x-1) (x-12) (x-10)

Question 2. Draw the graph of x + y = 4

Solution:

Scale: x-axis ; 1 cm = 1 unit

y-axis ; lcm= 1 unit

Question 3. In the fig, PQRS and ABRS are parallelograms and X is any point on side BR. S.T.

1. ar (PQRS) = ar (ABRS)
2. ar (AX S) = — ar (PQRS)

Solution:

1. PQRS and ABRS are parallelograms, stand on the same base SR and between the same parallels PB and SR.
   ∴ar(▱PQRS) = ar(▱ABRS)……….. (1)
2. ▱ABRS and ▱AXS stand on the same base As and between the same parallels BR and AS
   ∴ar (△AXS) =1/2 ar(▱ABRS)…………(2)
   From(l)and(2)
   ar (△AXS) = 1/2 ar(▱PQRS)

Class 9 Maths Model Papers Karnataka 2023 Set 4 

Question 4. Prove that “The line segment joining the midpoints of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third side and half of it?

Solution:

Given: △ABC in which D is the midpoint of AB, and E is the midpoint of AC. Draw DE.

To prove DE || BC and DE = 1/2 BC.

construction: produce DE to F such that DE = EF and draw CF

Proof: In triangles ADE and CFE

AE = EC (E is the midpoint of AC)

DE = EF (by construction)

∠PEA = ∠CEF (V. O.A)

∴ △ADE ≅ △CFE (SAS congruence rule)

∠ADE = ∠CFE [CPCT]

AD = CF

considering AC as transversal between AB and CF,

∠ADE = ∠CFE

∴AB || CF

we also have CF = AD = BD

In the quadrilateral BCFD,

BD || CF and BD = CF

∴BCFD is a parallelogram

∴DF || BC (DE = EF)

BC = 2DE

∴DE || BC

DE = 1/2 BC

Hence it is proven.

Karnataka Class 9 Science Model Question Papers 2023 Set 5

Choose The Correct Alternative And Write The Complete Answer Along With Its Alphabet In The Sheet Provided:

Question 1. Evaporation of liquid occurs at

1. Boiling point
2. A fixed temperature
3. A temperature lower than the boiling point
4. All temperatures

Answer: 3. A Temperature lower than the boiling point

Question 2. Chalk dissolved in water is an example of

1. True solution
2. Colloid
3. Suspension
4. Saturated solution

Answer: 3. Suspension

Question 3. The atomicity of K₂Cr₂O₇ is

1. 9
2. 11
3. 10
4. 12

Answer: 2.11

Question 4. The isotope used to remove brain tumors and ____________treatment of cancer is

1. U – 235
2. Na – 24
3. Iodine
4. CO – 60

Answer: 4. CO – 60

Question 5. The animal cell which does not possess a nucleus is

1. Egg of hen
2. White blood cell
3. Red blood cell
4. Nerve cell

Answer: 3. Red blood cell

Question 6. Sieve tubes and companion cells are present in

1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Cork
4. Cambium

Answer: Phloem

Question 7. The plants whose leaves have parallel variation and whose roots are fibrous are called

1. Dicotyledonous
2. Gymnosperms
3. Pteridophyta
4. Monocotyledonous

Answer: 4. Monocotyledonous

Question 8. A particle travels 100 meters after starting from rest In 10 seconds. Its acceleration is

1. 2m/s²
2. 4m/s²
3. 1m/s²
4. 20m/s²

Answer: 1. 2m/s²

Class 9 Science Model Papers Karnataka Set 5 

Question 9. When a bullet is fired from a gun, it recoils. This is due to the conservation of

1. Energy
2. Mass
3. Momentum
4. Weight

Answer: 3. Momentum

Question 10. The relation connecting acceleration due to gravity and gravitational force is

1. \(\mathrm{g}=\frac{G M}{R^2}\)
2. \(\mathrm{g}=\frac{G M}{R}\)
3. g = GMR²
4. g = GMR

Answer: 1. \(\mathrm{g}=\frac{G M}{R^2}\)

Question 11. If a body of mass 10 kg is pushed horizontally by a horizontal force of 5 newtons, then the work done by gravity is

1. 50 joule
2. 5 joule
3. 98 joule
4. 0

Answer: 4. 0

Question 12. Sound waves with frequencies below the audible range are called

1. Infrasonic
2. Ultrasonic
3. Supersonic
4. Sub supersonic

Answer: 1. Infrasonic

Question 13. AIDS is not transmitted by

1. Hugs
2. Breastfeeding of the child
3. Infected blood transfusion
4. Many sexual partners

Answer: 1. Hugs

Question 14. The organisms that damage the standing crops in a field are called

1. Pathogens
2. Pests
3. Weeds
4. Seeds

Answer: 2. Pests

Answer The Following:

Question 1. Differentiate between Homogeneous and Heterogeneous mixtures
Answer:

Homogeneous:

1. It has uniform composition
2. No visible boundaries of separation
3. They consist of only one phase

Heterogeneous:

1. It does not have a uniform composition
2. Shows visible boundaries of separation
3. They consist of more than one phase

2023 Karnataka Science Model Papers Class 9 Set 5 

Question 2. On a hot sunny day, why do people sprinkle water on the roof or open ground?
Answer: During a hot sunny day, the surface of the roof absorbs a large amount of heat and remains hot sprinkling water on these surfaces, the water absorbs a large amount of heat from the surface due to its latent heat of vaporization thereby allowing the hot surface to cool.

Question 3. When we put raisins in water, why do they swell?
Answer: Raisins are dry with less water inside when they are kept in water, osmosis takes place, and water flows through the cell wall and cell membrane of the raisins and therefore it swells.

Question 4. What is a polyatomic ion? Give examples.
Answer: A group of atoms carrying a charge is known as a polyatomic ion.
Example : \(\mathrm{Co}_3^{2-}\)  , \(\mathrm{SO}_4^{2-}\)

Question What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits, and vegetables?
Answer: Cereals give carbohydrates which provide energy. Pulses give proteins that build our bodies. Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins & minerals.

Question 6. What is the greenhouse effect?
Answer: Some gases prevent the escape of heat from the earth. An increase in the percentage of such gases in the atmosphere would cause the average temperatures to increase worldwide and this is called the greenhouse effect.

Question 7. A baby is not able to tell her/his caretakers that she/he is sick. What would help us to find out

1. That the baby is sick?
2. What is the sickness?

Answer:

1. The symptoms like body temperature, fever, cough, cold, loose motions, nonstop crying improper or no food intake, etc., would help us to find that the baby is sick.
2. The symptoms and signs of disease could help us to find out the sickness of the baby.

Question 8. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.
Answer:
Question 9. Define

1. Atomic number
2. Mass number

Answer:

1. Atomic number: The total number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom is known as the atomic number. It is denoted by ‘Z’.
2. Mass number: The sum of the total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is known as mass number. It is denoted by ‘A’.

Question 10. Name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic material.
Answer: Plastids and mitochondria.

Question 11. The endoplasmic reticulum helps in membrane biogenesis. Explain how?
Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum manufacture proteins are then sent to various places in the cell depending on need, using the endoplasmic reticulum. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum helps in the manufacture of fat molecules, important for cell function. Some of these proteins and lipids help in building the cell membrane.

Karnataka Class 9 Science Exam Practice Papers Set 5 

Question 12. What are the constituents of phloem?
Answer: Sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem fibers, and phloem parenchyma.

Question 13. Why are skeletal muscles called striated muscles?
Answer: Skeletal muscles show alternate light and dark bands or striations when stained, appropriately, hence they are called striated muscles.

Question 14. The odometer of a car reads 200km at the start of a trip and 2400 km at the end of the trip. If the trip took 8h, calculate the average speed of the car in kmlr1 and ms1.
Answer:
Distance covered by the car
S = 2400km – 2000km = 400km
Time = 8h
The average speed of the car is

= 50kmh^-1

=13.9ms^-1

The average speed of the car is 50 kmh^-1 or 13.9ms^-1

Question 15.Distinguish between speed and velocity
Answer:

speed:

1. The distance traveled by an object in a given interval of time.
2. It does not have any direction
3. \(\text { speed }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { Time taken }}\)
4. The speed of an object can never be negative.

Velocity:

1. The displacement of an object in a given interval of time.
2. It has a unique direction
3. \(\text { velocity }=\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { Time interval }}\)
4. The velocity of an object can be negative

Question 16. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out of it, explain.
Answer: The carpet with dust is in a state of rest, when it is beaten with a stick the carpet is set in motion, but the dust particles remain at rest. Due to the inertia of rest, the dust particles retain their position of rest and fall down due to gravity.

Question 17. A hammer of mass 500g, moving at 50ms1 strikes a nail. The nail stops the hammer in a very short time of 0.01s, What is the force of the nail on the hammer?
Answer:
Mass of hammer m = 500g = 0.5kg
The initial velocity of hammer u = 50ms^-1
Final velocity of hammer v = 0 and time = 0.01s
∴ Acceleration of the hammer

∴ Force applied by the nail on hammer F = ma = 0.5 x (- 5000)
= – 2500 N
– ve sign of force suggests that the force is opposing the motion of the hammer.

Question 18. A ship made of Iron does not sink but the Iron rod sinks in water, why?
Answer: The Iron rod sinks due to high density and less buoyant force exerted by the water on it, but in the case of the ship the surface area is increased, and the upthrust experienced by the body is more, so it floats on water.

Class 9 Karnataka Science Model Papers Set 5 PDF 

Question 19. State the universal law of gravitation.
Answer: Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force that is proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Question 20.

1. What is the kinetic energy of an object?
2. Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.

Answer:

1. The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is called kinetic energy.
2. \(\mathrm{KE}=1 / 2 \mathrm{MV}^2\)
   where m = mass, v = velocity.

Question 21. An object of mass 15kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 4ms¹. What is the kinetic energy possessed by the object?
Answer:
mass of the object m = 15kg
The velocity of the object V = 4ms^-1

= 15 x 4 x 2
KE = 120J

Question 22. Why are sound waves called Mechanical waves?
Answer: Some mechanical energy is required to make an object vibrate. Sound energy cannot be produced on its own. The mechanical energy of a vibrating object travels through a medium and finally reaches the ear. Therefore, sound waves are called mechanical waves.

Question 23. Distinguish between loudness and intensity sound.
Answer: The loudness depends on the energy per unit area of the wave and on the response of the ear but intensity depends only on the energy per unit area of the wave and is independent of the response of the ear.

Question 24. State any two conditions for good health
Answer:

1. State of physical, mental, and social well-being.
2. Better surroundings or environment.

Answer The Following:

Question 1. State the principle of the process of centrifugation and write its two applications.
Answer: The principle is that the denser particles are forced to the bottom and the lighter particles stay at the top when spun rapidly.

Applications:

1. Used in diagnostic laboratories for blood and urine tests.
2. Used in washing machines to squeeze out water from wet clothes.

Karnataka 9th Science Model Papers Set 5 with Answers 

Question 2.Which elements of the xylem help in

1. Transport of water
2. Storage of water
3. Mechanical support

Answer:

1. Transport of water = xylem vessel & tracheids
2. Storage of water = parenchyma
3. Mechanical support = fibers

Question 3.

1. Why are road accidents at high speed very much worse than accidents at low speed?
2. State the law of motion involved in the removal of dust from a carpet is beaten with a stick
3. Name the physical quantity where a unit is kg m/s²

Answer:

1. Because the momentum of a high-speed vehicle is more than that of a low-speed vehicle.
2. Law of inertia
3. It is the momentum of the body

Question 4. Draw the structure of

1. Unstriped muscles
2. Cardiac muscle

Answer:

Answer The Following:

Question 1.

1. Define Retardation
2. Define SI unit of force
3. What is the effect of balanced forces on a body?
4. When do we say that work is done?

Answer:

1. Negative acceleration is called retardation.
2. kg ms^-2
3. The object does not change its position
4. Work is done when a force applied to a body moves it through a distance in the direction of the force.

Question 2. Mention the four differences between physical and chemical changes.
Answer:

Physical:

1. It is temporary and easily reversible
2. No new substance is formed during the change.
3. No alteration in mass takes place
4. No change in energy during a physical change

Chemical:

1. It is permanent times reversible.
2. New substances are formed
3. The mass of the substance is altered.
4. Energy is involved in a chemical change

Question 3.

1. write the significance of the universal law of gravitation.
2. Define acceleration due to gravity
3. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects if

(1)The mass of an object is doubled.
(2)The distance between the objects is halved.

Answer:

1. The force that binds us to the earth. The motion of the moon around the earth.
2. Whenever an object falls toward the earth, acceleration is involved which is due to the earth’s gravitational force hence it is known as acceleration due to gravity.
3. Let two masses are M₁ and M₂ distance be d and force F
   \(\text { Then } \mathrm{F}=\frac{\mathrm{GM}_1 \mathrm{M}_2}{\mathrm{~d}^2}\)
   

(1) If is M₁  doubled new force

Force will become twice the original force.
(2)  will become four times larger
\(\mathrm{F} \alpha \frac{4}{d^2}\)  force will become four times larger.

Karnataka Class 9 Science Model Question Papers 2023 Set 6

Choose The Correct Alternative And Write The Complete Answer Along With Its Alphabet In The Sheet Provided:

Question 1. As the pressure of air decreases, the boiling point of the liquid.

1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Does not changes
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Decreases

Question 2.50gm sugar is dissolved in a glass of water at 30″c, on heating this solution it will

1. Crystallize
2. Evaporate
3. Become unsaturated
4. Sugar will char

Answer: 3. Become unsaturated

Question 3. Fielder giving a swing while catching a ball is an example of

1. Inertia
2. Momentum
3. Newton’s second law of motion
4. Newton’s first law of motion

Answer: 3. Newton’s second law of motion

Question 4. The relative density of silver is 10.8 and the density of water is 103 kg/m². The density of silver is

1. 1.8 x10⁴N/m³
2. 10.8 x 103 N/m³
3. 1.8 x 10⁴ kg/m³
4. 10.8 x 10⁴ kg/m³

Answer: 4. 10.8 x 10⁴ kg/m³

Question 5. Speed (s), wavelength (x), and frequency (v) of sound are related as

1. s = u x v
2. v = s x u
3. u = s x v
4. u = s/v

Answer: 3. u = s x v

Question 5. For the following chemical equation if the law of conservation of mass is correct, what would be the number of H2 molecules? N₂+H₂→ 2NH₃

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6

Answer: 2. 3

Question 7. Rutherford’s experiment on the scattering of alpha particles showed for the first time that the atom has

1. Electrons
2. Protons
3. Nucleus
4. Neutrons

Answer: 3. Nucleus

Question 8. Which of the following produces seeds without fruit

1. Grapes
2. Fern
3. Paddy
4. Cycas

Answer: 4. Cycas

Question 9. BCG vaccine is used to curb

1. Pneumonia
2. Tuberculosis
3. Polio
4. Amoebiasis

Answer: 2. Tuberculosis

Question 10. Plant breeding methods include

1. Introduction of the crop
2. Selection of desired traits
3. Hybridization
4. All of these techniques

Answer: 4. All of these techniques

Class 9 Science Model Papers Karnataka Set 6 

Match the following:
A                                               B
Waterborne disease              keeps the body fit 
Exercise                                  contaminated water 
Improves our lung capacity  plasmodium
Malaria                                    Relaxation
Answer:
                A                                            B
Waterborne disease                  contaminated water
Exercise                                      keeps the body fit
Improves our lung capacity       Relaxation
Malaria                                       plasmodium

Answer The Following:

Question 1. State the numerical value of the Avogadro constant
Answer: Avogadro’s constant = 6.022 x 1023

Question 2. Find the number of electrons, protons, and neutrons possessed by the alpha particles \(\left({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}^{++}\right)\) used in the gold lead experiment
Answer: E = Nil, P = 2, N = 2

Question 3. Name any two groups of microorganisms from which antibiotics can be extracted.
Answer: Fungi and bacteria

Question 4. Who discovered the neutron?
Answer: James Chadwick

Question 5. How many joules make a one-kilowatt hour?
Answer: 1kwh = 3.6 x10⁶j

Question 6. What is reverberation?
Answer: Reverberation is the repeated reflection of sound waves that results in the persistence of sound for some time.

Question 7. When we jump into a swimming pool, we feel lighter, why?
Answer: This is because upthrust acts on us and our apparent weight is less than the actual weight

Question 8. What is immunization?
Answer: Immunization is the process of rendering our body immune to certain diseases through vaccination.

Question 9. Define the atomic mass unit.
Answer: Atomic mass unit is exactly equal to 1/12 th the
mass of one atom of carbon – 12

Question 10. Write the notation of an atom ‘X’ if the mass number is A and the atomic number is Z.
Answer: zX^A

Answer The Following:

Question 1. Convert the following temperatures to the Celsius scale

1. 293K
2. 470K

Answer:

1. 293 – 273
   = 20C°
2. 470 – 273
   =197C°

Question 2. Mention the properties of a solution.
Answer:

1. A solution is a homogenous mixture.
2. The particles are smaller. So they cannot be seen by the naked eye.
3. They do not scatter a beam of light passing through the solution.
4. The solute particles cannot be separated and the particles do not settle down.

Question 3. Calculate the molecular mass of K₂CO₃, given atomic mass K = 39u, C = 12u and 0 = 16u
Answer:
The molecular mass of K₂CO₃
=K x 2 + C x 1 + 0 x 3
= 39 x 2+ 12 5 1 + 16 x3
= 78+12 + 48
= 138u

2023 Karnataka Science Model Papers Class 9 Set 6 

Question 4. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon
(z = 6) and sodium (z -11) atoms.
Answer: C = 6 Na= 11

Question 5.Define

1. Endocytosis
2. Plasmolysis

Answer:

1. The flexibility of the cell membrane enables the cell to engulf food and other material from its external environment. Such processes are known as endocytosis.
2. when a living plant cell loses water through osmosis there is shrinkage or contraction of the contents of the cell away from the cell wall is known as plasmolysis.

Question 6. Mention the functions of the Golgi apparatus.
Answer:

1. Its functions include the storage, modification, and packing of products in vesicles.
2. complex sugars may be made from simple sugars in the Golgi apparatus.

Question 7. Striated muscles are also called voluntary muscles. Why?
Answer: Since these muscles are under our control and present in our limbs and hands

Question 8. Name different types of meristematic tissue present in the plant body.
Answer:

1. Apical meristem
2. Intercalary meristem
3. lateral meristem

Question 9. Draw a diagram of bacteria
Answer:

Question 10. Mention the classes of vertebrates.
Answer: Pisces, amphibia, reptilia, aves, and mammals.

Karnataka Class 9 Science Exam Practice Papers Set 6 

Question 11. Draw a distance-time graph of an object moving with uniform speed.
Answer:
Question 12. Derive an equation for position time relation.
Answer:
Let us consider that the object has traveled a distance ‘s’ in time ‘t’ under uniform accelerated ‘a’
Thus distance ‘s’ traveled by the object is given by
s = area OABC
= area of the rectangle OADC + area of the triangle ABD
= OA OC + 1/2  (AD  BD)
substituting OA-u, OC = AD = t and BD = at
S = u x t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) t x at

∴ S = u + \(\frac{1}{2} a t^2\)

Question 13. Which has more inertia a rubber ball and a stone of the same size?
Answer: mass of a stone is more than the a rubber ball. Hence inertia of the stone is greater than that of a rubber ball.

Question 14. A boy of mass 50kg runs up a staircase of 45 steps in 9sec. If the height of each step is 15cm. Find his power. Take g = 10msA
Answer:
weight of the body
mg = 50kg x 10ms^-2
= 500 N

Height of the staircase
h = 45 x \(\frac{15}{100}\)
= 6.75m
Time is taken to climb t = 9s

P = 375w

Question 15. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.
Answer: A fully charged battery has chemical energy which converts to electrical energy which eventually converts into heat and light energy.
chemical → Electrical → Heat → Light energy

Question 16. Give two practical applications of the reflection of sound waves.
Answer:

1. It is used to measure the distance and speed of underwater objects.
2. working of a stethoscope!s also based on the reflection of sound.

Question 17. How do we kill microbes that enter our bodies?
Answer: We kill these disease-causing microbes with the help of medicines that block the microbial synthesis pathways of microbes.

Question 18. How does the atmosphere act as a blanket?
Answer:

1. It keeps the average temperature of the earth fairly constant during day time and even during the course of the whole year.
2. It prevents a sudden increase in the temperature during day time.
3. It slows down the escape of heat from the surface of the earth.

Question 19. Name any two weeds
Answer: Parlhemum and xanthium.

Class 9 Karnataka Science Model Papers Set 6 PDF 

Answer The Following :

Question 1.

1. What is ultrasound? Name two animals that produce ultrasound
2. How are moths of certain families are able to escape capture from bats?

Answer:

1. Frequencies higher than 20KHZ are called ultrasound Ex: Dolphins, bats
2. These moths can hear the high-frequency squeaks of the bat and know when a bat is flying nearby and are able to escape capture.

Question 2. How can we prevent infectious diseases?
Answer:

1. By providing living conditions that are not overcrowded we can prevent airborne diseases.
2. By providing clean drinking water. We can prevent waterborne diseases.
3. Vector-borne diseases can be prevented by keeping our surroundings clean.

Question 3.

1. Name the term used for unwanted plants in a cultivated Held and give one example.
2. Why do farmers remove them from crop fields?
3. Mention one control measure by which these can be destroyed.

Answer:

1. Weeds
   Example: Xanthium
2. They extract the nutrients from the soil that are meant for the crop plant.
3. By manual weeding or by applying weedicides.

Question 4.

1. What is sublimation? Give an example
2. What happens when acetone is poured on the palm

Answer:

1. The change of a solid directly into the gaseous state without passing through the liquid state is known as sublimation. Example: Naphthalene, ammonium chloride
2. It will evaporate taking the latent heat of vaporization from the palm.

Karnataka 9th Science Model Papers Set 6 with Answers 

Answer The Following:

Question 1.

(1) State two characteristic properties of each of the following

1. Solid
2. Liquid
3. Gas

(2) Shiva dropped a crystal of KMno4 in two beakers A and B containing hot water and cold water respectively. After keeping the beakers undisturbed for some time what did he observe and why?

Answer:

(1) Solid:

1. They have fixed shapes and volume
2. They are rigid
3. Liquid
4. They have fixed volume and no mass
5. They are fluid

Gas:

1. They have no fixed shape or volume
2. They are highly compressible

(2) KMnO₄ crystals diffuse faster in hot water because as the temperature increases diffusion increases

Question 2.

(1) State two characteristic features of vertebrates

(2) State reasons for the following

1. Echidna and platypus lay eggs, but are considered mammals.
2. The forelimbs of birds are modified.

Answer:
(1)

1. They have a notochord.
2. The true body cavity is present.

(2)

1. They have mammary glands to feed their young ones.
2. Reduced body weight for flight.

Question 3. Explain Rutherford’s particle scattering experiment observations and conclusions drawn from this experiment.
Answer:

Observations:

1. Most of the fast-moving a – particles passed straight through the gold foil.
2. Some of the a – particles were deflected by the foil’s small angles.
3. One out of every 12000 particles appeared to rebound.

Conclusions:

1. Most of the space inside the atom is empty because most of the a – particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected.
2. Very few particles were deflected from the path, indicating that the positive charge of the atom occupies very little space.
3. A very small fraction of a – particles were deflected by 180°, indicating that all the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a very small volume within the atom.

Question 4. What is the work to be done to increase the velocity of a car from 30kmh to 60kmh 1 if the mass of the car is 1500kg?
Answer:
Mass of the car m = 1500kg
The initial velocity of car u = 30km^-1

similarly, the final velocity of the car
v = 60kmh^-1
\(=\frac{50}{3}\)ms^-1

∴ The initial kinetic energy of the car

E_ki = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu²

The final kinetic energy of the car

= 208333
Thus the work done = change in kinetic energy
= Ekf- Eki
= 208333 – 52083
= 156250J

Karnataka Class 9 Science Model Question Papers 2023 Set 7

Choose The Correct Alternative And Write The Complete Answer Along With Its Alphabet In The Sheet Provided:

Question 1. Dry ice is

1. The ice has no water for crystallisation
2. Ice that has been dried
3. Solid carbon dioxide
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Solid carbon dioxide

Question 2. On passing through a colloidal solution, the beam of light gets

1. Reflected
2. Refracted
3. Scattered
4. Absorbed

Answer: 3.

Question 3.Which of the following is not present in prokaryotes

1. Ribosomes
2. Cell wall
3. Plasma membrane
4. Nuclear membrane

Answer: 4. Nuclear membrane

Question 4. The cycling of elements in an ecosystem is called

1. Chemical cycle
2. Geochemical cycle
3. Biogeochemical cycle
4. Geological cycle

Answer: 3. Biogeochemical cycle

Question 5. Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide which

1. Reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
2. Causes gastric ulcers
3. Raises blood pressure
4. Is carcinogenic

Answer: 1. Reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

Class 9 Science Model Papers Karnataka Set 7

Question 6. A sound wave cannot propagate in

1. Air
2. Water
3. Vacuum
4. Metals

Answer: 3. Vaccum

Question 7. The unit of work is

1. Joule
2. Newton
3. kg m/s
4. dyne

Answer: 1. Joule

Question 8. The rate of change of momentum is known as

1. Work
2. Force
3. Impulse
4. Energy

Answer: 2. Force

Question 9. When a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in

1. Linear motion
2. Uniform motion
3. Non-uniform motion
4. Vibratory motion

Answer: 3. Non-uniform motion

Question 10. The formulae of Aluminium chloride is

1. Al₂Cl₃
2. AlCl₃
3. AICI
4. Al₃Cl

Answer: 2. AlCl₃

Match The Following:
            A                                            B
The simple tissue                          Root apex
Apical meristem                            nodes
lateral meristem                            parenchyma
Intercalary meristem                    cambium
                                                      xylem
Answer:
A                                       B
The simple tissue           parenchyma
Apical meristem             Root apex
lateral meristem             cambium
Intercalary meristem        nodes

Answer the following:

Question 1. Define the following

1. Melting point
2. Latent heat of fusion

Answer:

1. Melting point: The temperature at which solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called the melting point.
2. Latent heat of fusion: The amount of heat energy that is required to change 1kg of a solid into liquid at atmospheric pressure at its melting point is known as the latent heat of fusion.

Question 2. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?
Answer: The particles gain energy from our palm or surroundings and evaporate causing the palm to feel cool.

Question 3. What is chromatography? Mention any two applications of it.
Answer: chromatography is the technique used for the separation of those solutes that dissolve in the same solvent.

Application:

1. To separate colours in a dye
2. To separate pigments from natural colours

Question 4. To make a saturated solution, 36g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100g of water at 293k. Find its concentration at this temperature.
Answer:
mass of so lute (sodium chloride) 36g
mass of solvent (water) = 100g
mass of solution=mass of solute + mass of solvent
= 36g+ 100g
= 136g
mass percentage of solution

\(=\frac{36}{136} \times 100\)
= 26.47%

2023 Karnataka Science Model Papers Class 9 Set 7 

Question 5. Write down the names of compounds represented by the following formulae

1. Al₂(SO₄)₃
2. CaCl₂
3. K₂SO₄
4. CaCO₃

Answer:

1. Aluminium sulphate
2. Calcium chloride
3. Potassium sulphate
4. Calcium carbonate

Question 6. The cell is called the structural and functional unit of life why?
Answer:

1. All living organisms are made up of cells.
2. All the life processes such as respiration, digestion, excretion etc., take place in a cell or a single-cell organism.

Question 7. What are the functions of areolar tissue?
Answer:

1. It fills the space inside the organs and supports internal organs.
2. Helps in the repair of tissues.

Question 8. Name the following

1. Tissue forms the inner lining of our mouth.
2. Tissue that stores fat in our body.

Answer:

1. Squamous epithelial
2. Adipose tissue

Question 9. What are the features that all chordates possess?
Answer:

1. They have a notochord
2. They are coelomate
3. They are triploblastic
4. They have paired gill pouches

Question 10. List the differences between Amphibians and Reptiles.
Answer:

Amphibians:

1. Found both in water & on land
2. Breathe either through the gills or lungs.
3. smooth skin with mucus

Reptiles:

1. Found on land
2. Breathe through the lungs only
3. Rough dry skin with scale.

Question 11. An object has moved through a distance can it have zero displacements? If yes, support your answer with an example.
Answer: Yes, for example, if Ramu goes to market from home and then comes back home, then his displacement is zero but the distance travelled is not zero.

Question 12. Calculate the force required to change the velocity of an object of mass 8kg from 4ms^-1 to 6ms^-1 in 2 seconds.
Answer:
Data:
u = 4ms^-1
v = 6ms¹
t = 2 seconds
m = 8kg

\(-\frac{6-4}{2}=\frac{2}{2}=1 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}\)
∴ Force F = m x a
= 8×1
F= 8 newton

Karnataka Class 9 Science Exam Practice Papers Set 7 

Question 13. What is an echo? Mention the condition for the echo to be heard.
Answer: The sound heard after reflection from a rigid surface is called an echo.

condition:

1. The time interval between the original sound and the reflected sound must be lesser or equal to 0.1 sec
2. The reflecting surface should be at a minimum distance of 17m from the listener.

Question 14.Define the following

1. Wavelength of sound
2. The amplitude of a sound.

Answer:

1. The distance between two successive compressions or rarefactions is the wavelength of sound.
2. The highest displacement of a vibrating particle from its resting position is the amplitude of the sound.

Question 15.

1. When do we say that the work is done?
2. Define 1 J of work.

Answer:

1. A force acts on a body. The body is displaced by the force
2. when 1 Newton force displaces a body by 1m in the direction of applied force the 1 joule of work is said to be done.

Question 16. A girl pulls a bucket of water of total mass 5 kg from a well which is 10m deep in 10 sec, calculate the power used by her. (g = 10 m/s²)
Answer:
Data:
m = 5kg
h = 10m
t = 10 sec
g = 10m/s²

w = mgh
=  5 x 10 x 10
W = 500J

P = 50 watt

Question 17. Which of the following has more inertia?

1. A rubber ball and a stone of the same size?
2. A bicycle and train?

Answer:

1. A stone of the same size has more mass than that a rubber ball, therefore, the stone has more inertia.
2. A train has much more mass than a bicycle therefore a train has more inertia.

Question 18.

1. What is immunisation?
2. What are the immunisation programmes available at the nearest health centre in your locality?

Answer:

1. The practice of providing immunity to the body by giving vaccines is called immunisation,
2. The Administration of polio drops to children under the age of 5 years. Vaccines for measles, smallpox & Hepatitis.

Question 19. What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion?
Answer:

1. Reforestation or planting of trees.
2. Check to overgraze
3. Improved methods of farming in agriculture.

Question 20. Mention any four activity that pollutes the water resources.
Answer:

1. Pollutants from industries.
2. Agricultural wastes like fertilizers & pesticides
3. sewage water.
4. Thermal water from certain industries.

Karnataka 9th Science Model Papers Set 7 with Answers 

Question 21. For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries and beekeeping?
Answer:

1. Use local and imported varieties of the breeds.
2. It involves low investment in fanning.

Question 22. State the difference between manure and fertilizer
Answer:

Manure:

1. It consists of organic matter
2. prepared from animal excreta and plant waste
3. Its use causes no pollution

Fertilizer:

1. It consists of inorganic matter.
2. It is prepared commercially from chemicals.
3. It causes pollution in soil and water

Question 23. How many electrons, protons and neutrons will be there in an element \({ }_9^{19} \mathrm{X}\)? What will be the valency of the element?
Answer:
Atomic number = 9
mass number = 19
No. of electrons = 9
Number of protons = 9
Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic
number
= 19-9
n= 10
electronic configuration of X = 2,7
valency of X= -1 (∵ it receives one electron)

Question 24. Calculate the number of moles in 17gm of H₂O₂.
Answer:
1 mole of H₂O₂= 2 x 1 + 2 x16
= 2 + 32
= 34 gm
34gm  of H₂O₂  = 1 mole
17gm of H₂O₂ =  \(\frac{1}{34} \times 17\)
=\(\frac{1}{2}\)
= 0.5moles

Answer The Following:

Question 1. Draw a labelled diagram of a neuron.
Answer:

Question 2. State three features of the nuclear model of an atom put forward by Rutherford.
Answer:

1. There is a positively charged centre in an atom called the nucleus. Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.
2. The electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths.
3. The size of the nucleus is very small compared to the size of the atom.

Question 3. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?
Answer:

1. Particles of matter are very small
2. Particles have space between them
3. Particles attract each other
4. Particles are continuously moving.

Practice Papers for Karnataka Class 9 Science Set 7 

Question 4. Draw the diagram of the nitrogen cycle in nature
Answer:

Answer The Following:

Question 1. Differentiate between prokaryotic cells and Eukaryotic cell
Answer:

Prokaryotic cell:

1. It is a primitive cell
2. It is small in size
3. The nucleus does not have a nuclear membrane
4. Nucleolus is absent
5. A chromosome is a single circular

Eukaryotic cell:

1. It is an advanced cell
2. It is big in size
3. The nucleus has a nuclear membrane
4. Nucleolus is present
5. Many linear chromosomes are present

Question 2. List any six uses of ultrasonic waves
Answer:

1. Used in dry cleaning clothes
2. Used as insect repellants
3. Used to detect cracks and flaws in metal mouldings.
4. Used to break gallstones and kidney stones
5. Used for welding
6. Used in ultrasound scanning.

Question 3. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1ms for 2 minutes. Find

1. The speed acquired
2. The distance travelled.

Answer:
Data:
initial speedu= 0
Final speed v=?
a = 0.1ms^-2
t = 2min
= 60 x 2
= 120sec

1. v = u + at
   = 0 + 0.1 x 120
   v = 12ms^-1
2. s = ut +  at2
   = 0 + x 0.1.x ^SQ^60 x 120
   = 0.1  x  60  x 120
   s = 720m

Question 4. Draw a neat labelled diagram of plant cell
Answer:

Karnataka Class 9 Science Model Question Papers 2023 Set 8 

Choose The Correct Alternative And Write The Complete Answer Along With Its Alphabet In Sheet Provided:

Question 1.The temperature at which solids melt

1. Boiling point
2. Melting point
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Water point

Answer: 2. Melting point

Question 2. Which of the following is not a colloidal solution?

1. Sugar solution
2. Blood
3. Milk
4. Toothpaste

Answer: 4. Toothpaste

Question 3. The symbol of Glod is

1. Go
2. Ga
3. Gd
4. Au

Answer: 4. Au

Question 4. An element has electronic configuration 2, 6; the element is

1. Carbon
2. Nitrogen
3. Oxygen
4. Fluorine

Answer: 3. Oxygen

Question 5. Which of the following is used in radiocarbon dating?

1. \({ }_6 \mathrm{C}^{12}\)
2. \({ }_6 \mathrm{C}^{12}\)
3. \({ }_6 \mathrm{C}^{14}\)
4. \({ }_6 \mathrm{C}^{11}\)

Answer: 3. \({ }_6 \mathrm{C}^{14}\)

Question 6.The physical quantity which is not a vector

1. Displacement
2. Distance
3. Acceleration
4. Force

Answer: 2. Distance

Class 9 Science Model Papers Karnataka Set 8 

Question 7. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of

1. Mass
2. Energy
3. Momentum
4. Velocity

Answer: 3. Momentum

Question 8. S.I. unit of G is

1. N – kg²/m²
2. N – M / kg²
3. N – m²/ kg²
4. N – m²/ kg

Answer: 3. N – m2/ kg2

Question 9. Compressed spring has

1. Kinetic energy
2. Heat energy
3. Potential energy
4. Light energy

Answer: 3. Potential energy

Question 10. A sound wave cannot propagate in

1. Air
2. water
3. vacuum
4. Metals

Answer: 3. Vacuum

Match The Following:
A                                     B
Rutherford                  stationary orbits
J.J. Thomson                nucleus
James Chadwick          Neutron
Goldstein                      proton
                                      electron
Answer:
A                                        B
Rutherford                    nucleus
J.J. Thomson                  electron
James Chadwick            Neutron
Goldstein                       proton

Answer The Following:

Question 1. Who discovered cells and how?
Answer: Robert Hook discovered cells. He observed the cells in a slice of cork with the help of a primitive microscope.

Question 2. What are the functions of the endoplasmic reticulum?
Answer:

1. It functions as a passageway for intracellular transport.
2. It functions as a manufacturing surface.

Question 3. Give any two illustrations for Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:

1. when a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun recoils with an equal force in the opposite direction,
2. swimmer while swimming pushes the water backward and in turn, he moves forward.

Question 4. How many types of elements together make up the xylem tissue? Name them.
Answer:
xylem tissue is made up of:

1. Xylem parenchyma
2. xylem Fibres
3. xylem tracheids
4. xylem vessels or tracheids

2023 Karnataka Science Model Papers Class 9 Set 8 

Question 5. What is the role of the epidermis in plants?
Answer:
Role of the epidermis in plants:

1. It protects the internal parts of the plant’s body. Plant organs from external injury, temperature, micro-organisms, parasitic fungi, etc.,
2. It protects the plant from excessive loss of water. from internal tissues.

Question 6. How do gymnosperms and angiosperms different from each other?
Answer:

Gymnosperms:

1. Non-flowering plants
2. Plants bear naked seeds
3. They are perennial, evergreen woody

Angiosperms:

1. Flowering plants
2. Seeds are covered by fruit
3. They are annual, biennial, perennial, woody, or nonwoody.

Question 7. What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?
Answer:

1. Management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming.
2. Feeding of animals
3. Providing shelter for an animal
4. Animal health and care
5. Breeding of animals

Question 8. Why do we classify organisms?
Answer:
We classify organisms into groups and subgroups because:

1. There are a million types of (living) organisms.
2. It is difficult to study all of them.
3. It helps us to know about the organisms and groups of organisms of the same characteristics in groups and organisms of different characteristics

Question 9. Give the characteristics of poriferan animals.
Answer:

1. They have small pores called Ostia and a large
   aperture called the osculum. Hence they are called pore bearers (Porifera)
2. They have a canal system for the passage of water currents.
3. The body cavity is called spongocoel
4. Body organization is cellular and does not have tissues For Example sycon

Question 10. Why do organisms need water?
Answer:
Organisms need water because:

1. It is an important medium in which all the metabolic reactions and life processes take place in the cells and the body.
2. It is a universal solvent. It dissolves many substances within the cells for reaction to take place
3. Terrestrial organisms require fresh water for getting rid of high amounts of dissolved salts from the body.
4. It helps in the transportation of materials in the body.

Question 11. A substance has a fixed volume but no fixed shape. In which physical state does it exist? Give an example for that state.
Answer: Liquid
Example: water, oil

Question 12. Give any two uses of radioisotopes.
Answer:

1. Isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer
2. Isotope of Iodine is used in the treatment of goiter

Question 13. What is the importance of the universal law of gravitation?
Answer:

1. The force that binds us to the earth.
2. The motion of the moon around the earth.
3. The motion of planets around the sun.
4. The tides due to the moon and the sun

Question 14.Calculate the molecular mass of ammonia (NH₃) (Given atomic mass of H = 1, N = 14)
Answer:
Molecular mass of ammonia =N x 1 + H x 3
= 14 x 1 + 1 x 3
= 14 + 3
= 17u

Karnataka Class 9 Science Exam Practice Papers Set 8 

Question 15.Define

1. Frequency
2. Amplitude.

Answer:

1. Frequency: The number of complete oscillations per unit of time is called frequency.
2. Amplitude: The magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium on either side of the mean value is called Amplitude.

Question 16. What will be the acceleration of a body of mass 5kg if a force of 200N is applied to it?
Answer:
F = 200NM = 5kg
F = ma
a = ?

\(a=\frac{F}{M}=\frac{200^{40}}{\beta_1}\)
a = 40ms^-2

Question 17. Differentiate between potential energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:

Potential energy:

1. The energy possessed by a body due to its change in position or shape
2. PE = mgh
   Example: stretched rubberband

Kinetic energy:

1. The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion
2. KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
   Example: moving vehicle

Question 18. Compressed natural gas is used as fuel these days in vehicles. Why?
Answer: Due to its high compressibility large volumes of gas can be compressed into a small cylinder and transported easily.

Question 19. List the properties of a colloid.
Answer:

1. It is a heterogeneous mixture
2. The size of the particles is too small to be individually seen by the naked eye.
3. They scatter the beam of light passing through it
4. They do not settle down when left undisturbed
5. They cannot be separated from the moisture by the process of filtration

Question 20. Distinguish between distance traveled and displacement.
Answer:

Distance traveled:

1. It is a scalar quantity
2. It is the actual path taken by an object

Displacement:

1. It is a vector quantity
2. It is the shortest distance from the initial position.

Question 21. A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4ms1. What distance will it cover in 10s after the start?
Answer:
a = 4ms^-2

u = 0 t= 10s s = ?

s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a + 2

∴ S= 200

Question 22. Mention the difference between balanced and unbalanced forces.
Answer:

1. Balanced Forces: Forces that do not change the state of motion of a body are called balanced forces
2. Unbalanced Forces: Forces that cause a change in the state of motion of a body are known as unbalanced

Question 23. What is penicillin? Give its function.
Answer: Penicillin is a drug that does not allow bacteria to build a protective wall thus it dies off easily. It is used to cure diseases and infections caused by bacteria.

Class 9 Karnataka Science Model Papers Set 8 PDF 

Question 24. Name the diseases each caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa
Answer:

1. Bacteria: Typhoid, Cholera
2. Virus: Dengue fever, AIDS
3. Fungi: Ringworm, Jock itch
4. Protoza: Malaria, Kala-azar

Answer The Following :

Question 1. Differentiate between mass and weight.
Answer:

Mass:

1. It is a scalar quantity
2. It remains constant everywhere
3. Its SI unit is kg
4. It can never be zero.
5. Mass is the content of matter in a body

Weight:

1. It is a vector quantity
2. It changes as gravity changes
3. Its SI unit is newton
4. At the center of the earth weight of a body is zero.
5. Weight is the force by which the earth attracts it.

Question 2. State the three of Newton’s laws of motion.
Answer:

1. The first law of motion: An object continues to be in a state of rest or of uniform motion along a straight line unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
2. The second law of motion: The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of the force.
3. Third law of motion: To every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction and they act on two different bodies.

Question 3. Define the following

1. Melting point
2. Boiling point
3. Latent heat of fusion

Answer:

1. Melting point: The temperature at which solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point.
2. Boiling point: The temperature at which a liquid starts boiling at the atmospheric pressure is known as its boiling point.
3. Latent heat of fusion: The amount of heat energy that is required to change 1kg of a solid into liquid at atmospheric pressure at its melting point is known as the latent heat of fusion.

Question 4. Differentiate between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in the Mammalia group.
Answer:

Aves:

1. The body is covered by feathers
2. The body is streamlined that is boat-shaped
3. Forelimbs are modified into wings for flight
4. The mouth is modified into beaks.
   Example: Sparrow, Pigeon

Mammalia:

1. The body is covered by hair
2. The body is divisible into a head, neck, trunk, and tail
3. The animal has 2 pairs of limbs for walking and 2 limbs for doing work
4. The mouth has teeth for chewing food.
   Example: Man, cow

Answer The Following:

Question 1. A ball is thrown up vertically and returns to the thrower after 6 sec find.

1. The velocity with which it was thrown up
2. The maximum height it reaches and
3. Its position after 4s

Answer:
total time of flight = 6s

so the time to go up = \(\frac{6}{2}\) = 3

1. v = u -gt
   0 = u- 10 x 3
   ‍∴ u = 30ms^-1
2. v²-u²– 2gh
   0 =(30)²– 2 X 10 X h
   0 = 900 – 20h
   h= \(\frac{900}{20}\) = 45m
3. h= ut – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt²\(=30 \times 4-\frac{1}{\not 2} \times 10^5 \times(4)^2\)
   = 120 – 5 x 16
   = 120 – 80
   ∴ h=40m

Karnataka 9th Science Model Papers Set 8 with Answers 

Question 2. Draw a diagram to show that sound needs a material medium for its propagation
Answer:

Question 3.

1. State two characteristic features of Amphibians
2. Identify the following organisms.
3. organisms that have an open circulatory system with blood filled coelomic cavity.

Answer:

1. They are cold-blooded animals. They have a three-chambered heart
2. Amphibians, Echinoderms, Arthropods.

Question 4. State the differences between solid, liquid & gas.
Answer:

solid:

1. Have strong intermolecular force]
2. Very less intermolecular space
3. Have definite shapes, mass & volume
4. Have high density
5. Cannot be compressed

Liquid:

1. Weak intermolecular force
2. Large intermolecular space
3. Do not have shape but have volume
4. Density is low
5. Can be compressed

Gas:

1. Very weak intermolecular force
2. Very large intermolecular space
3. No definite shape & volume
4. Very low density
5. Highly compressed

Answer The Following:

Question 1. How can you separate the following mixtures

1. Sand and Iron
2. Copper sulfate and water
3. Gases from air
4. Acetone from water

Answer:

1. Magnetic separation
2. crystallization
3. Fractional distillation
4. Distillation

Practice Papers for Karnataka Class 9 Science Set 8 

Question 2. Write the conclusions drawn by Rutherford when the observed the following. Most of the alpha particles pass straight through the gold foil
Answer:

1. There is a lot of empty space inside an atom.
2. The center of the atom which is the nucleus is positively charged.
3. The nucleus is extremely hard and dense.

Question 3. For the same kinetic energy of a body, what should be the change in its velocity if its mass is increased sixteen times?
Answer:
Let initial mass M₁= m, velocity V₁= V
Final mass M₂= 16m, velocity V₂ =?

∴ \(v_2=\frac{1}{4} v \)

Thus velocity should be one fourth

Question 4. Draw a neatly labeled diagram of an animal cell.
Answer:

Karnataka Class 9 Science Model Question Papers 2023 Set 4

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. An example of a scalar quantity is

1. Force
2. Speed
3. Velocity
4. Acceleration

Answer:  2. Speed

Question 2. The area under the velocity time graph represents

1. Distance traveled
2. Displacement
3. Speed
4. Velocity

Answer: 1. Distance traveled

Question 3. Who introduced the system of scientific nomenclature of organisms

1. Robert Whittaker
2. Carolus linnaeus
3. Robert Hooke
4. Ernst Haeckel

Answer: 2.Carolus linnaeus

Question 4. The structural and functional unit of nerve tissue is

1. Axon
2. Dendrite
3. Neuron
4. Myelin

Answer: 3. Neuron

Question 5. Which of the following is an element?

1. Carbon
2. Water
3. Sodium chloride
4. Carbon dioxide

Answer: 1. Carbon

Question 6. Organelle without a cell membrane is

1. Golgi apparatus
2. Mitochondria
3. Chloroplast
4. Ribosome

Answer: 4. Ribosome

Question 7. Pathogens of disease are

1. viruses
2. Bacteria
3. Protozoa
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 8. What are the functions of cuboidal epithelium?
Answer:

1. It helps in absorption, excretion, and secretion.
2. It provides mechanical support.

Class 9 Science Model Papers Karnataka Set 4 

Question 9. Mention the general characteristics of Porifera
Answer:

1. Animals with pores all over their body.
2. The body is not well differentiated
3. Non-motile animals remain attached to the solid support.
4. The body is covered with a hard outer skeleton Example: second

Question 10. A trolley, while going down an inclined plane, has an acceleration of 2cms^-2. What will be its velocity 3s after the start?
Answer: Initial velocity of the trolley u = 0 Acceleration a = 2 cms’2 = 0.02 m/s2 Time t = 3s
According to the first equation of motion v = u + at v = 0 + 0.02 x 3 v = 0.06 m/s.

Question 11.Draw a neat labeled diagram of paramecium
Answer:

Question 12. How does a karate player breaks a shab of ice with a single blow?
Answer: Akarate player applied the blow with large velocity in a very short interval of time on the ice slab which therefore exerts a large amount of offeree on it and suddenly breaks the ice slab.

Question 13. While swimming why do we feel light?
Answer: The swimmer is exerted by an upward force by
water, this phenomenon is called buoyancy and it makes the swimmer feel light.

Question 14. A certain household has consumed 250 units of energy during a month. How much energy is this in joules?
Answer:
Energy consumed in a month = 250u
= 250kwh
= 250 kw x 1h
= 250 x 1000w x 3600s
= 900,000,000j
= 9.0 x108 J

Question 15. What are crest and trough?
Answer: When a wave is propagated as represented. A peak is called the crest and a valley is called the trough of a wave.

Question 16. Name the organs affected due to the following diseases.

1. Malaria
2. Jaundice
3. Typhoid

Answer:

1. Malaria: Infects liver and red blood cells
2. Jaundice: infects the liver
3. Typhoid: Infects blood.

Question 17. Mention the activity that pollutes the water resources.
Answer:

1. pollutants from industries
2. agricultural wastes like fertilizers & pesticides
3. sewage water
4. Thermal water from certain industries

Question 18. Name a few varieties of bees used for commercial honey production.
Answer:

1. Apis cerana indica – Indian, bee
2. Apis dorsata – rock bee
3. Apis florae – the little bee
4. Apis mellifera – Italian bee variety

2023 Karnataka Science Model Papers Class 9 Set 4 

Question 19.Define

1. Mixed cropping
2. Intercropping

Answer:

1. Mixed cropping: It is a method in which two or more crops grow simultaneously on the same piece of land. Example: Wheat + grain
2. Intercropping: It is a method of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern.Example: soybean + maize

Question 20.Define late the at of vaporization 
Answer: Latent heat of vaporization is the heat energy required to change 1kg of a liquid to gas at atmospheric pressure at its boiling point.

Question 21. What is a colloidal solution? Give an example
Answer: It is a heterogeneous, solution that appears to be homogeneous, particle size is very small and so cannot be seen with the naked eye but it is stable. Example: milk and blood.

Answer the following:

Question 1. Neha’s mother is a good cook. She uses natural colors to give colors to different foods. She uses turmeric yellow color, spinach for the green color, and pomegranate for the red color. She always avoids synthetic colors.

1. Name the technique used to separate pigments from natural colors.
2. Write the principle of that technique.
3. Explain the values that are displayed by Neha’s mother.

Answer:

1. Chromatography
2. Different colors got separated due to dissolution in the same solvent and different rates of rising due to different rates of adsorption.
3. Awareness, caring attitude for the family skillful person

Question 2.

1. Differentiate between epidermal and cork cells.
2. Why are they called protective tissues?

Answer:
Epidermal:

1. single layered
2. living
3. secrete cutin
4. present in younger plants

Cork:

1. multi-layered
2. Non-living
3. secrete suberin
4. present in older plants

They protect the plants from mechanical injury and infection. They prevent loss of water.

Karnataka Class 9 Science Exam Practice Papers Set 4 

Question 3. State any three differences between the crypto game and phanerogamae.
Answer:
Cryptogame:

1. Non-flowering plants
2. seedless plants
3. Body parts not well differentiated
4. Have an alternation of generation

Phanerogamae:

1. Flowering plants
2. Bear seeds
3. Body parts well differentiated
4. Have multicellular sex organs and are embryonic

Question 4. Draw the diagram of the carbon cycle in nature
Answer:

Answer the following:

Question 1. State the reason for the following statements :

1. The ceilings of good conference halls and concert halls are curved.
2. We hear the sound produced by the humming bees while that of the moving pendulum is not heard
3. Sound waves are mechanical waves
4. People in their old age suffering from hearing loss, wear hearing aids properly.

Answer:

1. Because sound after reflection reaches the target audience
2. Because the frequency of vibration of the wings of bees is in the audible range but the frequency of vibrations of the pendulum is below 20Hz and hence not heard.
3. Because they need a material medium to travel
4. Because hearing loss may occur due to an accident or listening to loud sounds / biologically. A hearing aid amplifies the signals and makes it easier to be heard.

Question 2.

(1) Write the chemical formula and name of the compounds formed between

1. Barium and nitrate ions
2. Ferrous and sulfide ions

(2) State the law of definite proportion

(3) Calculate the number of moles of 36gm of water

Answer:

(1)

1. Ba(NO₃)₂
2. Fes

(2) In a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.

(3) 18gm of H₂O = 1 mole
36gm of H₂O = \(\frac{1}{18} \times 36^2\)
= 2 moles

Class 9 Karnataka Science Model Papers Set 4 PDF 

Question 3.

1. How is the force of attraction depend on the masses of objects and the distance between them?
2. The mass of the earth is 6 x10²⁴kg and that of a natural satellite is 6.5 x10²⁰kg. If the distance between them is 3.35 x10⁶km. Calculate the force exerted by the earth on it. (G = 6.7 x10^-11NM²kg^-2)

Answer:

1. The Force of attraction between the two bodies is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
2. G = 6.7 x 10^-11NM²/kg^-2
   m1 = 6 x10²⁴ , m2 = 6.5 x10²⁰
   d = 3.35 x10⁶ km= 3.35 x10⁹km
   \(\mathrm{F}=\frac{\mathrm{GM}_1 \times \mathrm{M}_2}{\mathrm{~d}^2}\)\(\begin{aligned}
   & =\frac{6.7 \times 10^{-11} \times 6 \times 10^{24} \times 6.5 \times 10^{20}}{\left(3.35 \times 10^9\right)^2} \\
   & =\frac{6.7 \times 6 \times 6.5 \times 10^{33}}{11.225 \times 10^{18}} \\
   & =\frac{261.3 \times 10^{15}}{11.225}
   \end{aligned}\)F = 2327.85 x 1014 N

Question 4. Which separation techniques you will apply for the separation of the following mixtures?

1. Oil from water
2. Camphor from sand
3. Cream from milk
4. Sodium chloride from its solution in water.

Answer:

1. Separating funnel
2. Sublimation
3. Centrifugation
4. Evaporation

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Question Papers Set 3

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. Which of the following is an irrational number

1. \(\sqrt{9}\)
2. \(\sqrt{4}\)
3. \(\sqrt[3]{27}\)
4. \(\sqrt{10}\)

Solution: 4. \(\sqrt{10}\)

Question 2. The zero of the polynomial p(x) = x3 +1 is

1. \(\sqrt{7}\)
2. – 1
3. 2
4. 1

Solution:  2. – 1

Question 3. The expansion form of (x+ a)(x+ 6) is

1. x²-ab-a
2. x²  -(a-b)x-ab
3. x²+(a+b)x+ab
4. x²+2ab

Solution: 3. x²+(a+b)x+ab

Question 4.y = 3x+ 5 has

1. A unique solution
2. Only two solutions
3. No solutions
4. Infinitely many solutions

Solution: 4. Infinitely many solutions

Question 5. A sum of the angles of a quadrilateral is

1. 180°
2. 270°
3. 360°
4. 400°

Solution: 3.360°

Question 6. In a triangle ABC, E is the midpoint of median AD. Then ar (ABED) =

1. 1/4 ar(ΔABC)
2. 1/3 ar(ΔABC)
3. ar(ΔABC)
4. 1/6 ar(ΔABC)

Solution: 1. 1/4 ar(ΔABC)

Question 7. The total surface area of a hemisphere is

1. 4πr2
2. 2πr2
3. 3πr2
4. πr2

Solution: 3. 3πr2

Question 8. Heron’s formula –

1. \(\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)}\)
2. \(\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-c)}\)
3. \(\sqrt{s(s-a)}\)
4. \(\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}\)

Solution: 4. \(\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}\)

Class 9 Maths Model Papers Karnataka 2023 Set 3 PDF 

Question 9. The mode of the following score is 4, 6, 5, 9, 3, 2, 7, 7, 6, 5, 4

1. 5
2. 7
3. 6
4. 4

Solution: 2. 7

Question 10. In which quadrant does (-2, 4) lie?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Solution: 2. II

Answer the following: 

Question 1. Define a rational number

Solution: A number that can be expressed in the form of p/q, where ‘p’ and ‘q’ are integers and (q ≠0)

Example: 1/2,-7/5 ……..

Question 2. Is zero a rational number? can you write it  in the form of p/q,  where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0

Solution: yes, zero is a rational number as it can be represented as (0/1) or (0/2)…………….

Question 3. Write 36/100  in decimal form.

Solution = 36/100 = 0.36, terminating………..

Question 4. Simplify \((\sqrt{5}+\sqrt{2})^2\)

Solution:

Question 5. Write the general form of linear equation in two variable

Solution: ax + by + c = 0, where a, b and c are real numbers.

Question 6. Find the value of ‘x’ in the figure,

Solution: x = 1/2 x 80°

Question 7. The diameter of the base of a cone is 10cm and its slant height is 10cm. Find the curved surface area

Solution:

CSA of cone =πrl

= 22/7 x 5 x 5

= 7805cm²

Question 8. Find the value of (125)1/3

Solution: 

Question 9. Write any two polynomials whose degree is 2.

Solution: 2X² +X= 0  ,  3 y²+l = 0

Question 10. Name the quadrants in which the following points lie:

1. P(4,4)
2. Q (-4, 4)
3. R(-4,4)
4. S(-4,8)

Solution:

1. P(4,4) = I
2. Q(-4,4) = II
3. R(-4,-4) = III
4. S(-4,8) =II

Karnataka 9th Standard Maths Sample Paper Set 3 

Answer the following :

Question 1. Express locate \(\sqrt{2}\) on the number line.
Solution:

Question 2. Express \(0 \ overlines {99}\) in the form of p/q, where p and q are integers and 0.

Solution:

\(0 \ overlines {99}\)= 0.99999……..

Let x = 0.99999…………

100x= 100 x 0.9999…………..

100x=99.9999…………..

100x=99+0.9999……………

100x = 99 + x 1

100x-x = 99

99x=9

x = 99/99 = 1

Thus 0.99999 = 1 = 1/1

1 Here P = 1, q = 1

Question 3. Simplify: \((\sqrt{5}+\sqrt{3})(2+\sqrt{3})\)

Solution:

Question 4. Find the value of k, if (x-l) is a factor of
\(p(x)=k x^2-\sqrt{2} x+1\)

Solution: 

Question 5.Factorise : 6X² + 5x – 6

Solution:

6X² +5x-6

= 6X² +9x—4x — 6

= 3x(2x + 3) — 2(2x + 3)

= (2x + 3)(3x-2)

Question 6. Expand \(\left(x+\frac{2}{3} y\right)^3 \)using a suitable identity.

Solution:

(a + b)³=a³+b³ + 3ab(a + b)

Question 7.Which of the following options is true and why?
y = 3xr + 5

1. a unique solution
2. only two solutions
3. infinitely many solutions.

Solution: 3. infinitely many solutions.

As for every value of x, there will be a value for satisfying the above equation and vice-versa.

Question 8.Find the value of k, if x = 2,y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y=k

Solution:

2x + 3y = k

2(2) + 3(1) = k

4 + 3 = k

∴ k = l

2023 Karnataka Class 9 Maths Set 3 Question Paper 

Question 9. In AABC 5 AD is the perpendicular bisector of BC. S.T. ΔABCis an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC.

Solution:

ΔABC, AD ⊥ BC,

In ΔADB and ΔADC

∠APB = ∠ADC = 90°

DB = DC

∴ AD is the perpendicular bisector of BC

AD =AD (common)

∴ AADB ≅ AADC (SAS)

∴ AB = AC (CPCT)

Question 10. Find the volume of a sphere whose 7cm radius is

Solution:

The volume of the sphere = 4/3πr³

\(=\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times(7)^{\frac{2}{z}}\)

Question 11. Define a line segment.

Solution: A straight line joining any two distinct points is called a line segment.

Question 12. In the fig, sides QP and RQ of APQR are produced to points S and T respectively. If ∠SPR = 135° and ∠PQT = 110°, find ∠PRQ

Solution: ∠SPR + ∠QPR = 180° (linear pair)

135° + ∠QPR = 180°

∠QPR = 45°

∠PQT + ∠PQR = 180° (linear pair)

110″+ ∠PQR =180°

∠PQR = 70°

In APQR, ∠PQR + ∠QPR + ∠PRQ = 180°

70° + 45° + ∠PRQ = 180°

∴∠PRQ = 65°

Question 13. In fig, if x + y = w + z, then prove that AOB is a line.

Solution:

Let x + y — w + z = k

∴ x + y + w + z = 360°

k + k = 360°

2k = 360°

k = 360°/2

k= 180°

∴ x + y = w + z = k

x + y = w + z = 180°

9th Standard Karnataka Maths Practice Papers Set 3 

Question 14.ABC is a triangle in which altitudes BE and CF to sides AC and AB are equal  S.T.

1. ΔABE ≅ΔACF
2. AB = AC

Solution:

In ΔABE and ΔACF

∠AEB = ∠AFC = 90° (given)

altitude BE = altitude CF (given)

∠A is common

∴ΔABE = ΔACF

AB = AC (CPCT)

∴AB is an isosceles triangle

Question 15.ABCD is a quadrilateral in which P, Q, R, and S are midpoints of the sides AB, BC, CD, and DA. AC diagonal S.T. SR ||  AC and SR= 1/2 AC
Solution:

In A ADC, S, and R are the midpoints of the sides AD and CD respectively.

∴By the midpoint theorem, the line joining the midpoints of any two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third side and half of the third side.

∴SR || AC

and SR 1/2 AC

Question 16. The following table gives the lifetimes of 400 neon lamps.
Solution:

Represent the given information with the help of a histogram.

Scale : x-axis ; 1cm- limit y-axis; lcm = limit

Question 17. In a cricket match, a batswoman hits a boundary 6 times out of 30 balls she plays. Find the probability that she did not hit a boundary.

Solution:

Total number of balls played = 30

Number of boundaries hit = 6

Number of balls in which she has not hit the boundary =30-6 = 24 ∴Probability=

(No. of times she does not hit the boundary)/

(Total number of balls played)

p= 24/30 = 4/5

Question 18. Use deductive reasoning to answer the following.

1. Martians have red tongues. Gulag is a Martian. Based on these two statements, what can you conclude about Gulag?
2. If it rains for more than four hours on a particular day, the gutters will have to be cleaned the next day. It has rained for 6 hours today. What can we conclude about the condition of the gutters tomorrow?

Solution:

1. Gulag his red tongue.
2. we conclude that the gutters will have to be cleaned tomorrow.

Answer the following :

Question 1.Check whether 7 + 3x is a factor of 3x³+ 7x

Solution:

consider p (x) = 3x³ + 7x

Question 2. Visualize \(4. \overline{26}\) on the number line up to 4 decimal places.

Solution:  \(4. \overline{26}\)= 4.2626

Question 3. In fig, if PQ ⊥PS. PQ || SR, ∠SQR = 28° and ∠QRT = 65°, then find the values of x and y

Solution:

PQ || SR and QR is a transversal line

∴ ∠PQR = ∠QRT (Alternate interior angles)

x + 28° = 65°

x = 65°- 28°

x = 37°

By using the angle sum property in ΔSPQ

∠SPQ + x + y = 180°

90°+37° +y = 180°

y = 53°

∴ x = 37°

y = 53°

Latest Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Papers Set 3 

Question 4.In fig. AC =AE, AB = AD, and ∠BAD = ∠EAC S.T. BC = DE

Solution:

∠BAD = ∠EAC (given)

Adding ∠DAC on both sides,

∠BAD + ∠DAC = ∠EAC + ∠DAC

∴∠BAC-∠DAE

In ΔBAC and ΔDAE

AB =AD (given)

∠BAC = ∠DAE

AC = AE (given)

∴ ΔBAC ≅ ΔDAE (SAS)

∴ BC=DE (CPCT)

Question 4. S.T. the diagonals of a parallelogram divide it into four triangles of equal area.

Solution:

We know that the diagonals A and B of a parallelogram bisect, each other.

∴‘O’ is the midpoint of AC and BD.

BO is the median in ΔABC.

∴It will divide it into two triangles of equal areas.

∴Area (ΔAOB) =Area (ΔBOC)…………………..(1)

In ΔBCD, CO is the median

∴Area (ΔBOC) =Area (ΔCOD)……………………. (2)

similarly, Area(ΔCOD)=Area (ΔAOD) …(3)

From (1) (2) & (3)

Area (ΔAOB) = Area (ΔBOC)

= Area (ΔCOD) = Area (ΔAOD)

The diagonals of a parallelogram divide it into four triangles of equal area.

Question 5. Construct a triangle ABC in which Be = 8cm,
∠B = 45° and AB – AC = 3.5cm
Solution:

Answer the following:

Question 1. The diameter of the moon is approximately one-fourth of the diameter of the earth. What fraction of the volume of the earth is the volume of the moon?

Solution:

The volume of the moon = 4/3 πr³
   
\(\begin{aligned}
& =\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3\left(\frac{d}{8}\right)^3 \\
& =\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{\pi d^3}{512}
\end{aligned}\)

The volume of the earth = 4/3 πr³

The volume of the moon=1/64 volume of the earth.

Question 2. Find the area of a triangle with two sides which are 18cm and 10cm and the perimeter is 42cm.

Solution:

Let the third side of the triangle 42cm

perimeter = 42cm

18 + 10 + x = 42

28 + x = 42

x = 42 – 28

x = 14

x = perimeter/2 =42/2 = 21cm

By Heron’s formula

Area of a triangle= \(\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}\)

Question 3. Prove that equal chords in a circle are equidistant from the center.

Solution:

Data: A circle with center‘ O’, chords AB and CD such that AB = CD. Draw OP ⊥ AB and OQ ⊥ CD.

To prove: OP = OQ

Construction: Join  OB and OD

Proof: AP = PB

CQ = QD

PB = 1/2 AB and QD = 1/2 CD.

In ΔOPB and ΔOQD

∠OPB= ∠OQD (both equal to 90°)

OB = OD (radii of the circle)

PB = QD

∴ OPB≅ QQD

OB= OD (radii of the circle)

PB = QD

∴OPB≅ OQD (RHS theorem)

OP = OQ (CPCT)

Question 4. Draw the graph of 4x-y = 5
Solution:

Scale : x-axis ; 1cm = 1unit y-axis ; 1cm = 1unit

Karnataka Class 9 Science Model Question Papers 2023 Set 3

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The stratospheric ozone depletion leads to

1. Global warming
2. Forest fires
3. Increase in the incidence of skin cancers
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 2. Health is a

1. Complete physical well being
2. Mental well being
3. Social well being
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 3. Which gas is a product of photosynthesis

1. Oxygen
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Ozone
4. Nitrogen

Answer: 1. Oxygen

Question 4. AIDS is caused by

1. Bacteria
2. Fungus
3. Air
4. Virus

Answer: 4. Virus

Question 5. Sound waves with frequencies below the audible range are called

1. Infrasonic
2. Ultrasonic
3. Supersonic
4. Sub supersonic

Answer: 1. Infrasonic

Question 6. The rate of doing work is known as

1. Work
2. Energy
3. Impulse
4. Power

Answer: 4. Power

Question 7. The value of the gravitational constant is

1. 6.67 x10¹¹Nm² /kg²
2. 6.67 x10^-11Nm²kg^-2
3. 11.67 x 10¹¹ Nm²/kg
4. 66.7 x 10¹¹ Nm² /kg

Answer: 2. 6.67 x10^-11Nm²kg^-2

Question 8.A physical quantity that cannot be negative
is_____________.

1. Displacement
2. Velocity
3. Acceleration
4. Distance

Answer: 4. Distance

Question 9. Which of the following is thallophyte?

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Algae
4. All of these

Answer: 3. Algae

Class 9 Science Model Papers Karnataka Set 3 

Question 10. The molecular formulae of sodium sulfide is

1. Na₂S
2. NaS
3. NaS₂
4. Na₂0

Answer: 1. Na₂S

Match the following: 
        A                                         B
Sublimation                    Changing vapor into liquid 
Condensation                 Bulk phenomenon
Boiling                            Surface phenomenon 
vapourization                 Solid into vapor without becoming liquid
Answer:
A                                                    B
Sublimation                   Solid into vapor without becoming liquid
Condensation                Changing vapor into liquid
Boiling                           Bulk phenomenon
Vapourization                Surface phenomenon

Answer the following:

Question 1. An object travels a distance of 16m in 4s and then another 16m in 2s. What is the average speed of the object?
Answer:
\(\text { Average speed }=\frac{\text { Total distance }}{\text { total time }}\)

\(=\frac{16+16}{4+2}=\frac{32^{5.33}}{6}\)
=5.33m/s

Question 2. If a balloon is filled with air and its mouth untied, the air is released from its mouth in the downward direction, and the balloon moved upward.
Answer: The release of air in the downward direction is the active movement of the balloon in the upward direction is a reaction.

Question 3. Define latent heat of fusion.
Answer: The amount of heat energy required to change 1 kg of solid into liquid at its melting point is known as latent heat of fusion.

Question 4. What types of mixtures are separated by the technique of crystallization?
Answer: Impure samples can be converted into pure form.

Question 5. What is meant by the term chemical formula?
Answer: The chemical formula of a compound is a symbolic representation of its composition.

Question 6. Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons does it have?
Answer:
mass number = p + n
4 = 2 + n .
4 – 2 = n
∴ n = 2

Question 7. Where are proteins synthesized inside the cell?
Answer: In Ribosomes.

Question 8. Define inertia
Answer: The natural tendency of objects to resist a change in their state of rest or of uniform motion is called inertia.

Question 9. What is relative density?
Answer: The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to that of water.

Question 10. In which kingdom would you place an organism which is unicellular, eukaryotic, and photosynthetic?
Answer: Protista

Answer the following:

Question 1. State any two characteristics of Mammalia. Name two egg-laying mammals.
Answer:

1. They have mammary glands to feed their young ones
2. They are warm-blooded with four-chambered hearts.
   Egg-laying mammals: – platypus, Echidna

Question 2. Twenty waves pass through a point in two seconds. If the distance between one crest and the adjacent through is 1.5m calculate

1. The frequency
2. The wavelength

Answer:

\(1.5 \mathrm{~m}=\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
λ = 15.2
λ = 3m

Question 3.

1. How is work done by a force measured?
2. A porter lifts luggage of 20kg from the ground and puts it on his head 1.7m above the ground. Find the work done by the porter on the luggage (g = 10m/s²)

Answer:

1. The product offered and displacement w = F X S
2. given
   m= 20kg, g = 10m/s², h= 1.7m
   work done = mgh
   = 20 x 10 x 1.7
   = 340 J

2023 Karnataka Science Model Papers Class 9 Set 3 

Question 4. What happens when

1. The buoyant force exerted by the fluid is greater than the weight of the body.
2. The buoyant force exerted by the fluid is equal to the weight of the body.

Answer:

1. The Body will float on the surface
2. The body will float but will stay slightly immersed in the fluid.

Question 5. State any four ways by which an AIDS virus spreads from an infected person to a healthy person.
Answer:

1. sexual contact with the infected person.
2. pregnant mother to her fetus
3. Blood contact with an infected person
4. Using needles or syringes of the infected person.

Question 6. Name the types of tissue present in

1. The lining of the kidney tubule.
2. The inner lining of the intestine.

Answer:

1. Cuboidal epithelium
2. Columnar epithelium

Question 7. When we put raisins in water, why do they swell?
Answer: Raisins are dry with less water inside, when they are kept in water, osmosis takes place, water flows through the cell wall and cell membrane of the raisins and therefore it swells.

Question 8. Why do we see water droplets collected on the outer surface of a glass container, containing ice?
Answer: The water vapor present in the air, comes in contact with the cold outer surface of the container thereby condensing it to form water droplets

Question 9. Draw a flow diagram showing the process of obtaining gases from the air.
Answer:

Question 10. Draw the velocity time graph for the uniform motion of an object.
Answer:

Question 11. Write the chemical formula for

1. Zinc phosphate
2. Lead carbonate

Answer:

1. Zn₃(PO₄)₂
2. PbCO₃

Question 13. The composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under
                                             X       Y
protons =                            6       6
Neutrons =                          6       8
give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?
Answer:
mass number of X = P + N
= 6 + 6
= 12
mass number of Y = P + N
= 6 + 8
= 14
∴ The atomic number is the same that is 6 Hence X and Y are isotopes of the same elements.

Karnataka Class 9 Science Exam Practice Papers Set 3 

Question 14. Name different types of meristematic tissues
Answer: Apical meristem, lateral meristem intercalary meristem.

Question 15. In a high jumps athletic event, why are athletes made to fall either on a cushioned bed or on a sand bed?
Answer: In a high jumps athletic event, athletes are made to fall either on a cushioned bed or on a sand bed so as to increase the time the athletes fall to stop after making the jump. This decreases the rate of change of momentum and hence the force.

Question 16. A person holds a bundle of hay over his head for 30 minutes and gets tired. Has he done the same work or not? Justify your answer.
Answer: The person does not do work because no displacement takes place in the direction of applied force as the force acts in the vertically upward direction.

Question 17. How are clouds formed?
Answer: The water evaporates due to the heating up of water bodies and other biological activities. The air also heats and rises. On rising, it expands and cools to form tiny droplets. These droplets grow bigger, expands, and form clouds. The collection of dust and other suspended particles facilitates the process.

Question 18. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?
Answer: Pasturage is the availability of flowers from which bees collect nectar and pollen. It is related to the production of honey as it determines the taste and quantity of honey.

Question 19. How are fish obtained?
Answer: There are two ways of obtaining fish, one is from natural resources, which is called capture fishing. The other way is by fish farming which is called culture fishery.

Question 20. What is echo ranging? State any one application of this technique.
Answer: The usage of ultrasound in sonar is known as echo ranging. This method is used to determine the depth of the sea, to locate underwater hills, valleys, submarine icebergs, sunken ships, etc.,

Answer the following:

Question 1. Differentiate between mass and weight.
Answer:
Mass:

1. It is a scalar quantity
2. It remains constant everywhere
3. Its SI unit is kg
4. It can never be zero
5. Mass is the content of matter in a body Weight

Weight:

1. It is a vector quantity
2. It changes as gravity changes
3. Its SI unit is newton
4. At the center of the earth weight of a body is zero.
5. Weight is the force by which the earth attracts it.

Question 2. State the three of Newton’s laws of motion.
Answer:

1. The first law of motion: An object continues to be in a state of rest or of uniform motion along a straight line unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
2. The second law of motion: The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of the force.
3. Third law of motion: To every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction and they act on two different bodies.

Question 3. Define the following

1. Melting point
2. Boiling point
3. Latent heat of fusion

Answer:

1. Melting point: The temperature at which solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point,
2. Boiling point: The temperature at which a liquid starts boiling at the atmospheric pressure is known as its boiling point.
3. Latent heat of fusion: The amount of heat energy that is required to change 1kg of a solid into liquid at atmospheric pressure at its melting point is known as the latent heat effusion.

Class 9 Karnataka Science Model Papers Set 3 PDF 

Question 4. Differentiate between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in the Mammalia group.
Answer:
Aves:

1. The body is covered by feathers
2. The body is streamlined that is boat-shaped
3. Forelimbs are modified into wings for flight
4. The mouth is modified into beaks.
   Example: sparrow, pigeon

Mammalia:

1. The body is covered by hair
2. The body is divisible into a head, neck, trunk, and tail
3. The animal has 2 pairs of limbs for walking and 2 limbs for doing work
4. The mouth has teeth for chewing food.
   Example: Man, cow

Answer the following:

Question 1. Calculate the number of moles for the following

1. 52g of He (finding mole from mass)
2. 12.044 x10²³ number of He atoms (finding mole from the number of particles)

Answer:

1. The number of moles given mass molar mass\(\frac{\text { given mass }}{\text { molar mass }}=\frac{52^{13}}{4}[/llatex]∴ n = 13
2. 1 mole = 6.022 x10²³
   The number of moles = (Given number of particles)/(Avogadro number)
   [latex]=\frac{12.044 \times 10^{23}}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\)
   = 2

Question 2. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon, sodium, and sulfur atoms.
Answer:
carbon (z – 6):

1. No. of protons = 6
2. No. of electrons = 6
3. No. of neutrons = 6

Sodium (z = 11):

1. No. of protons = 11
2. No. of electrons = 11
3. No. of neutrons = 12

Sulphur (z = 16):

1. No. of protons P 16
2. No. of electrons = 16
3. No. of neutrons = 16

Karnataka 9th Science Model Papers Set 3 With Answers 

Question 3. A car falls off a ledge and drops to the ground in 0.5s. Let g = 10ms2 (for simplifying the calculations)
Answer:
Solution:
Time (t) = 1/2 sec
Initial velocity u = 0ms^-1
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10ms²
Acceleration of the car a = 10ms² (downward)

1. speed v=at
   = 10 ms-2 x 0.5sec v = 5ms^-1
2. average speed = \(\frac{u+v}{2}\)\(=\frac{0 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}+5 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}{2}\)= 2.5ms^-1
3. Distance travelled s = 1/2 at²\(=\frac{1}{2} \times 10 \times(0.5)^2\)\(=\frac{1}{2} \times 10 \times 0.25\)
   s = 1.25n

Question 4. Draw a neat labeled diagram of the Prokaryotic cell
Answer:

Karnataka Class 9 Science Model Question Papers 2023 Set 1

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. Which of the following reactions is not suitable to verify the law of conservation of mass in a chemical reaction?

1. Precipitation
2. Displacement reaction
3. Redox reaction
4. Nuclear reaction

Answer: 4. Nuclear reaction

Question 2. Which of the following processes is not involved in the carbon cycle?

1. Photosynthesis
2. Burning of fossil fuels
3. Transpiration
4. Respiration

Answer: 3. Transpiration

Question 3. Which one of the following diseases have been eradicated?

1. Polio
2. Sleeping sickness
3. Smallpox
4. Kala-azar

Answer: 3. Smallpox

Question 4. Which of the following is metal?

1. Iodine
2. Boron
3. Sodium
4. Chlorine

Answer: 3. Sodium

Question 5. particles of matter are continuously moving hence they possess

1. Potential energy
2. Kinetic energy
3. Light energy
4. Heat energy

Answer: 2. Kinetic energy

Question 6. The valency of Aluminium is

1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4

Answer: 3. 3

Question 7. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius 7m in 10sec his speed is

1. 4.4ms^-1
2. 2.2ms^-1
3. 44ms^-1
4. 0

Answer: 1. 4.4ms^-1

Question 8. If the forces acting on an object are balanced, then

1. The object will be accelerated
2. The object will be in motion.
3. The object will have zero acceleration
4. The object loses its shape.

Answer: 3. The object will have zero acceleration

Karnataka 9th Standard Science Sample Papers 2023 Set 1 

Question 9. The Rolling of thunder is due to

1. Refraction
2. Dispersion
3. Interference
4. Successive reflection

Answer: 4. Successive reflection

Question 10. The part of the human ear that converts sound vibrations into electrical signals are

1. Tympanic membrane
2. Hammer
3. Cochlea
4. Stirrup

Answer: 3. Cochlea

Match the following:
    A                                      B
Algae                                Fungi
Bread mold                      Thallophyta
moss                                Gymnosperm
cycas                                Bryophyta

Answer:
A                                     B
Algae                            Thallophyta
Bread mold                   Fungi
moss                             Bryophyta
cycas                            Gymnosperm

Answer the following:

Question 1. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases
Answer: Applying pressure and reducing temperature can liquefy gases.

Question 2. Name the technique to get different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
Answer: chromatography

Question 3. What is atomicity?
Answer: The number of atoms constituting a molecule is known as atomicity.

Question 4. Who discovered the neutron?
Answer: James Chadwick

Question 5. Name the organelle that helps in membrane biogenesis
Answer: endoplasmic reticulum

2023 Karnataka Science Model Papers Class 9 

Question 6. Where is apical meristem found?
Answer: Apical meristem is present at the growing tips of stems and roots to increase the length of the stem and the root.

Question 7. Which division among plants has the simplest organisms?
Answer: Thallophyta

Question 8. What is the frequency?
Answer: The number of complete oscillations per unit of time is called the frequency (v)

Question 9. What is mechanical energy?
Answer: The sum of the kinetic and potential energies of an object is called mechanical energy.

Question 10. Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.
Answer: \( K \cdot E=1 / 2 m v^2\)

Answer The Following

Question 1. The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of solids. Why?
Answer: The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of solids due to the fact that in the liquid state, particles move freely and have greater space between each other as compared to particles in the solid state.

Question 2.Define:

1. crystallization
2. compound

Answer:

1. The process that separates a pure solid in the form of its crystals from a solution is called crystallization.
2. A compound is a substance composed of two or more elements chemically combined.

Question 3. Write the chemical formula of

1. sodium carbonate
2. Ammonium chloride

Answer:

1. \(\begin{array}{cc}
   \mathrm{Na}^{+} & \mathrm{CO}_3 \\
   -1 & -2 \\
   \mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3
   \end{array}\)
2. \(\begin{array}{cc}
   \mathrm{NH}_4 & \mathrm{Cl} \\
   +1 & -1 \\
   \mathrm{NH}_4 & \mathrm{Cl}
   \end{array}]\)

Question 4. What are Isobars? Give an example
Answer: Atoms of different elements with different atomic numbers which have the same mass number are known as Isobars
Example: \({ }_{20} \mathrm{Ca}^{40}\)  and  \({ }_{18} A r^{40} \)

Question 5. What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down?
Answer: If the organization of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influences, the content of the cell will come out, as it is protected by a cell membrane.

Question 6. What are the functions of the stomata?
Answer: Exchange of gases between plant and atmosphere Loss of water in the form of water vapor through it.

Question 7. Which organisms are called primitive? How are they different from advanced organisms?
Answer:

• Primitive: Groups of organisms with simple ancient body designs that have not changed much over evolutionary time.
• Advanced: Groups of organisms with complex body designs, that have changed over evolutionary time.

Question 8. Kingdom fungi have a cell wall, but still, they cannot be classified under kingdom Plantae. Give any two reasons.
Answer:

• Saprophytic mode of nutrition.
• The cell wall is made up of chitin.

Question 9. A bus decreases its speed from 80 kmh1 to 60 km 1 in 5s. Find the acceleration of the bus.
Answer:
Initial speed u = 80 Kmh^-1

Final speed v = 60kmh^-1 = 60 x 5/18 = 16.66ms^-1

time take t= 5s

a=-1.11ms^-2

Karnataka Class 9 Science Exam Preparation Papers 

Question 10. When will you say a body is in

1. Uniform acceleration
2. Nonuniform acceleration

Answer:

1. When the velocity of the body changes by an equal amount in equal intervals of time, acceleration is said to be uniform,
2. When the velocity of the body changes by an unequal amount in equal intervals of time, then acceleration is non-uniform.

Question 11. Which of the following has greater momentum?

1. An object of 1 kg mass moving with uniform velocity 3ms¹
2. An object of 2kg mass moving with uniform velocity 2ms^-1

Answer:

1. Momentum = m x v = 1 x 3 = 3kgms-1
2. Momentum = m x v = 2 x 2 = 4kgms-1
   The object of mass 2 kg and velocity 2ms’1 has greater momentum

Question 12. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion to their masses. Why then, a heavy object does not fall faster than a light object?
Answer: The rate of fall is decided by the acceleration due to gravity which is independent of the mass of the body which is falling. That is why every object larger or small falls at the same rate

Question 13. Why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of the water?
Answer: As the density of plastic is less than that of water buoyant force on plastic is greater than the weight of plastic as a result it comes up.

Question 14. A girl pulls a bucket of water of total mass 5 kg from a well that is 10m deep in lOsec. Calculate the power used by her. (g = 10 m/s²)
Answer:
m=5kg, h= 10m, t = 10sec, g= 10m/s2
w = mgh
= 5x10x10
w= 500 j
P = w/t = 500/10
P = 50 watt

Question 15.Define and give examples of a vaccine
Answer: A vaccine is an antigenic substance prepared from the agent causing the disease, which is given in advance to a body to provide immunity against certain diseases.
Examples: Chickenpox vaccine, hepatitis vaccine

Question 16. In which of the three media, air, water, or iron, does sound travel the fastest at a particular temperature?
Answer: The speed of sound depends on the nature of the medium, sound travels the fastest in solids. Its speed decreases in liquids and it is the slowest in gases. Therefore for a given temperature sound travels fastest in iron.

Question 17.State the difference between egg layers and broiler
Answer:
Egg layer:

• They are fed on protein-rich feed.
• Used for laying eggs

Broiler:

• They are fed oil vitamin-rich supplementary feed for a good growth rate
• Used for meat purposes lot of protein is included in the diet.

Question 18. Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer:

1. Amino acids
2. Deoxyribonucleic acid and Ribonucleic acid

Question 19. List the human activities which would lead to an increase in the carbon dioxide content of the air.
Answer:

• combustion of fuels
• Automobiles and factory emissions
• Deforestation
• waste inceration

Class 9 Karnataka Science Sample Papers PDF 

Answer The Following

Question 1. Give the differences between mixture and compound.
Answer:
Mixture:

• Impure matter
• Constituents combine in any ratio to form the mixture
• Constituents retain their properties.
• Constituents can be separated by physical processes.

Compound:

• Pure matter
• Constituents combine in a fixed ratio to form a compound.
• Constituents cannot be separated by physical processes

Question 2. Give the difference between monocots and dicots.
Answer:
Monocots:

• Seeds with one cotyledon
• Leaves have parallel venation.
• Fibrous root system
• Vascular bundles are scattered

Dicots:

• Seeds with two cotyledon
• Leaves have reticulate venation.
• Taproot system
• Vascular bundles are rings.

Question 3. Distinguish between longitudinal and transverse waves.
Answer:
longitudinal waves:

• It needs a medium for propagation
• Particles of the medium move in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of the distance.
• The wave travels in the form of compression and rarefaction Example: sound waves

Transverse waves:

• It may or may not need a medium for propagation.
• Particles of the medium move in a perpendicular direction of propagation of the disturbance
• The wave travels in the form of a crest and trough. Example: Lightwave.

Question 4. Name all the different types of tissues present in animal
Answer:
There are four main types of tissues:

1. Epithelial tissue is present on the outer and inner lining of the body.
2. muscular tissue is made up of muscles that help in movement.
3. connective tissue connects the different organs in the body.
4. Nervous tissue consists of nerve cells and is present in the nervous system.

Question 5. An 8000kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of 2000 kg, along a horizontal track. If the engine exerts a force of 40,000N and the track offers a friction force of 5000N, then calculate

1. The net accelerating force
2. The acceleration of the train and
3. The force of wagon 1 on wagon 2

Answer:

1. The net acceleration = Force exerted by the engine – friction force
   = 40,000 N – 5000N
   = 35000N
2. The acceleration of the train =?
   F = 35,000N
   mass of 5 wagons pulled by engine = 5 x 2000
   = 10,000kg
   F = ma
   35000 = 10000 x a
   a = 35,000/10,000 = 3.5m/s²
3. The force of wagon 1 on wagon 2 mass of wagon 2 —>2000 x 4 F =?
   a =f 3.5 m/ s²
   F = ma = 8000 x 3.5
   F = 28,000 N

Karnataka 9th Science Model Papers with Answers 

Question 6.If a bromine atom is available in the form of say two isotopes j5Br(49.7%) and 3jBr(50.3%). Calculate the average atomic mass of the bromine atom.
Answer:
The average atomic mass of=

Question 7. A freely falling object eventually stops reaching the ground. What happens to its kinetic energy?
Answer: As the object hits the hard ground, its kinetic energy gets converted into

• Heat energy (object and the ground becomes slightly warm)
• Sound energy (sound is heard when the object hits the ground)
• The potential energy of a configuration of the body and the ground (the object and the ground get deformed a little bit at the point of collision)

Question 8. Draw a neat labeled diagram of the animal cell.

Karnataka Class 9 Social Science Model Question Papers 2023 Set 4

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. Which one among the following statements is WRONG regarding Qutub Minar?

1. Qutub Minar is the tallest tower in India.
2. QutubuddinAibak started to construct the Qutub Minar.
3. Iltamush completed the construction of Qutub Minar.
4. Qutubminar is located in Uttar Pradesh

Answer: 4. Qutub Minar is located in Uttar Pradesh

Question 2. Shankaracharya propagated the philosophy of

1. Dwarka
2. Adwaita
3. Vshistadwaitha
4. Shakthidwaitha

Answer: 2. Adwaita

Question 3. The Governor may send certain Bills for approval to

1. The President
2. The Chief Minister
3. The Vice President
4. The Prime Minister

Answer: 1. The President

Question 4. Parochialism and regionalism are posing threats to

1. Regional Unity
2. National unity
3. Local unity
4. State unity

Answer: 2. National unity

Question 5. The region which has tribes like Bhumi Santhalas is

1. Southern, region
2. Central Region
3. Andaman and Nicobar region
4. Eastern Region

Amswer: 2.Central Region

Question 6. Which one among the following statement is wrong regarding the Silicon city of India?

1. It is the leading producer and exporter of software components
2. It is one of the world’s top ten major advanced hi-tech cities
3. This city alone has 12001T and B T Industries
4. This city was constructed on the model of Silicon valley of U S A.

Answer: 4. This city was constructed on the model of Silicon valley of U S A.

Question 7. The waterfall which is called Niagara of Karnataka is

1. Jog falls
2. Iiabbe falls
3. Gokak falls
4. Chayabhagavati falls

Answer: 3. Gokak falls

Question 8.The great leader who stated that “Be the change you want to see in others” is

1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Vishveshwaraiah
4. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: 1. Mahatma Gandhi

Question 9. State Finance Corporation Act was passed in the year

1. 1951 C.E.
2. 1953 C.E
3. 1952 C.E
4. 1954 C.E.

Answer: 1.1951 C.E.

Question 10. The option which is not the area of managerial functions is

1. Directing
2. Controlling
3. Staffing
4. Foresightedness.

Answer: 4. Foresightedness.

Class 9 Social Science Model Papers Karnataka Set 4 

Fill in the blanks:

1. The Supreme Court headquarter is in New Delhi
2. The border security force training center is in Yelahanka in Bangalore.
3. Kittle defined the term tribe as a family or clan
4. The district which has the least population is Kodagu
5. In recent days, the growth of the Indian economy has been described as jobless.

Match the following
A                                                 B
Michael Angelo                   Africa
Raphael                                Monalisa                    
Leonardo da Vinci               Sistine Madonna
Titian                                    Adam and Final Decision
Petrarch                               Assumption of the Virgin
                                             Tom’s Cabin
                                              Utopia   
                                              Divine Comedy
Answer:
A                                       B
Michael Angelo          Adam and Final Decision
Raphael                      Sistine Madonna
Leonardo da Vinci       Monalisa
Titian                           Assumption of the Virgin
Petrarch                       Africa

Answer the following

Question 1. Who are Khalifs?
Answer: Khalifs are known as the successors of Paigambar.

Question 2. What were the basic tenets of the Bakthi path?
Answer: Absolute belief in God and total surrender to God were the basic tenets of the Bakthi path.

Question 3. Why was Din-e-IIahi established?
Answer: Akbar established a new religious order named Din-e-Ilahi in 1582 A.D., which was based on the motto ‘Peace with all’ (sal-i-kul)

Question 4. Which are the two kinds of Subordinate Courts?
Answer:
The two kinds of the court are:

1. Civil Courts
2. Criminal Courts

Question 5. What is the significance of Article 52 of our constitution?
Answer: Article 52 of our Constitution has created the post of the President.

Question 6.What is a two-generation family?
Answer: The family of father-mother and children is called a two-generation family.

Question 7. What are the basic elements of Coexistence?
Answer: Adjustment and cooperation are the basic elements of Coexistence.

2023 Karnataka Social Science Model Papers Class 9 Set 4 

Question 8. Why is Davanagere called the ‘Manchester of Karnataka’?
Answer: Davanagere became the state’s most important cotton textile industrial center so it is called the ‘Manchester of Karnataka’.

Question 9. What are the uses of tobacco?
Answer: Tobacco is used in the manufacture of beedis, cigarettes, cigars,s and snuff.

Question 10. Name the two types of coffee produced in Karnataka.
Answer: Karnataka produces two types of coffee namely Coffee Arabica and coffee Robusta.

Question 11. What was the total population of Karnataka according to the 2011 census?
Answer: 6,11,30,704 was the total population of Karnataka according to the 2011 census

Question 12. What is the main aim of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme?
Answer: The scheme aims at providing wage employment for a minimum of 100 days in a year to at least one adult member of poor households.

Question 13. Why is the ‘Nirmal Gram’ program introduced?
Answer: ‘Nirmal Gram’ program was introduced to construct toilets.

Question 14. What is Single-entry System?
Answer: Here only one aspect of the transaction is taken into consideration. Some aspects are recorded in two accounts, some are recorded on one side and some aspects are not recorded at all.

Answer the following

Question 1. What are the teachings of Prophet Mohammed?
Answer:

• God is one. A simple prayer is enough to win the heart of God.
• One should lead an honest and principled life and should keep away from all bad habits.
• One should have respect for women and compassion for the poor and weak.

Question 2. How was the feudal system useful?
Answer: The vassals took the help of laborers for agriculture. These laborers were given land sufficient for survival as long as they worked with the vassals. Independent farmers had small portions of land and were paying rent for the land used.

Karnataka 9th Social Science Model Papers Set 4 with Answers 

Question 3. In spite of advances in agricultural practices and Industries, productivity was low in France. Why?
Answer: The yield from the land was very low. The farmers were the most affected. Famines were frequent. As a result, there used to be revolts and riots for food. Industries were under the control of trade unions. Due to internal strife and interference from authorities, the development of these unions was sluggish. Hence, productivity was low.

Question 4. Explain the role of Count Cavour in Italian unification.
Answer: The Sardinian Prime Minister Count Cavour was an important person in the unification of Italy. He was a journalist and he began a newspaper Risorgimento meant for the rejuvenation of Italian literature. He had a strong influence on the minds of people and kings through his powerful writings.

Question 5. How are the members of Lok Sabha elected?
Answer: The members of the Lok Sabha are elected directly by the people, so, it is known as the House of People. The maximum number of seats is 545. 543 members are directly elected by the people. Whereas two Anglo-Indians are nominated by the President. 79 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 41 seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes.

Question 6. The success of democracy is depending on the voter. Justify.
Answer:
The success of democracy depends on the voter because

• Voters choose the administrative people through election.
• They question ruling parties when they go wrong
• They fight for their rights and basic facilities.
• They reject politicians in elections when they go wrong

Question 7. Is Social change necessary? Why?
Answer: Yes It is necessary for the all-round development of human society

Question 8. Why is the Canara coast very famous in Karnataka?
Answer:
Canara coast is very famous in Karnataka due to the following reasons

• It has many beautiful beaches which attract tourists.
• It has some small islands located near the sea-coast which tourist centers
• It is best suitable for Fishing and Agriculture,

Question 9. Which are the four administrative divisions of Karnataka?
Answer:
The four administrative divisions of Karnataka are:

1. Bengaluru
2. Mysuru
3. Belagavi
4. Kalaburagi

Question 10. Write a brief note on river water disputes.
Answer:

• The Cauvery water dispute and the Krishna water disputes in Karnataka are of this kind.
• The catchment area of the river Cauvery is spread in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Puducherry.
• The river water dispute between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu is more than a century old, yet it is a burning issue even today.
• The river Krishna flows through different states, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. This has given rise to river water disputes.

Question 11. An efficient transport system is very essential to every country. Why?
Answer: It is the lifeline in the progress of agriculture, industry, and commerce. Karnataka is a land with varied natural resources. Minerals, commercial crops, forest products, and sources of energy are available here. In order to achieve economic development through the proper use of these resources, an efficient transport system is essential.

Question 12. Why are the gold mines closed in Kolar?
Answer: The gold deposits in these mines are almost exhausted due to continuous mining for many years.

Question 13. In recent days the capital city of Bengaluru is attracting a large number of tourists. Why?
Answer:

• Bengaluru has a pleasant climate, wonderful buildings like Vidhana Soudha, and beautiful gardens like Lalbagh and Cubbon Park hence it is called ‘Garden City’.
• It is Karnataka’s largest city and one of the megacities of the country.

Question 14. What are the unique features of labor?
Answer:
The unique features of labor are that :

• It cannot be separated from the laborer
• It cannot be accumulated
• Its supply varies Overtime the
• It is less mobile
• It differs in efficiency

Question 15. What is accounting according to the American Institute of Certified Public Accounts (AICPA)?
Answer: The American Institute of Certified Public Accounts (AICPA) defined accounting as “the art of recording, classifying and summarising in a significant manner and in terms of money, transactions and events which are, in part at least, of a financial character and interpreting the results there off.

Practice Papers for Karnataka Class 9 Social Science Set 4 

Answer the following

Question 1. Describe Shivaji’s system of administration.
Answer:
Shivaji’s system of administration

• Shivaji had organized an efficient administrative system in his vast kingdom.
• He divided his kingdom into many provinces which were called Swaraj and Moghul areas.
• Marathi was the language of administration. >There were ministers known as Asthapradhans in the central government to assist the king.
• Province, district, and village were the administrative units. (OR)

Question 1. Explain the causes of the decline of the Mughal Empire
Answer: Aurangzeb had to face the revolts of Rajputs of Mewad, Rathods, Sikhs, Jats, Bundles, and sathanaamis in the north. He waged war against AdxlShahi of Bijapur and Nizam shahi of Golkanda and annexed them to his kingdom. Finally, his femininity with powerful Rajputs led to the downfall of the Moghuls. Aurangzeb attempted to implement the philosophies advocated in Quam strictly. Many popular Hindu temples were spoiled during his reign. He prohibited sati system, musical performances, processions, Gambling, and consumption of liquor and Ganja plant extracts in his kingdom.

Question 2. How does the Supreme Court protect fundamental rights?
Answer: No law of any government Central or state, or any organization can deny these rights. If the Fundamental Rights are taken away or endangered, the citizen can directly appeal to the High Court or the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court issues writs like a. Habeas Corpus b. Mandamus c. Prohibition d. Certiorari e. Cowarrant. Public interest litigations can be filed in courts in order to protect the social rights denied to citizens and to protect the public interest. Public interest litigations can be filed for the purpose of protecting legal rights, rights that are essential to protect life and to protect the environment from being polluted. These public interest litigations can be filed by individuals and social institutions. In recent years we see that courts on their own are filing such public interest litigations when situations arise. (OR)

Question 2. What are the Qualifications required to become an M.L.C?
Answer:
The Qualifications required to become the M.L.C are:

• Should be a citizen of India.
• Should have completed 30 years of age.
• Should possess all qualifications required for an M.L.A.

Question 3. Give the reasons for the increasing nuclear family.
Answer:
The reasons for the increasing number of nuclear families are:

• Privacy
• personal happiness
• Property rights.
• Changed social values.
• Advances in science and technology
• Urbanization
• Principles of democracy and equality (OR)

Question 3. Explain the characteristics of an urban community.
Answer: The characteristics of an urban community are Large in size Cultural diversity Non-agricultural jobs Neglected primary relationships Providing basic public facilities and Formal social control.

Karnataka Board Class 9 Social Science Solved Papers Set 4 

Question 4. Differentiate between Laterite soil and Coastal Alluvial soil.
Answer:
Laterite Soil:

• It is found in areas that receive heavy rainfall and have high temperatures.
• Iron and aluminum, which are non-soluble, remain in the top layers.
• Cashews, coffee, tea, cardamom, pepper, rubber, coconut, and other commercial crops are grown in this soil.
• Uttar a Kannada, Udupi, Dakshina Kannada, Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru, Shivamogga, and Belagavi have more of this soil

Coastal Alluvial Soil:

• It is formed along the coast due to the deposition of alluvium and sediments carried by the rivers and sea waves.
• It is found in the coastal districts of Karnataka like Udupi, Dakshina Kannada, and Uttara Kannada have this type of soil.
• It consists of sand and clay and is very rich in organic nutrients.
• Paddy, cashew, coconut, areca nut, banana, and other crops grow well in this type of soil. (OR)

Question 4. What are the geographical factors required for the cultivation of Jowar?
Answer:

• Jowar crop also belongs to the grass family. Its botanical name is ‘Sor-gbum vulgare’.
• It is a tropical crop, requiring moderate rainfall and moderate temperature,
• Mixed black and red soil and alluvial soil are suitable for jowar.
• It is a rain-fed crop and is grown by using broadcasting methods.
• It depends on the South-West Monsoons.
• In South Karnataka, jowar is primarily grown for cattle feed.

Question 5. How can we overcome from increasing scarcity of resources?
Answer:
The suggestions to overcome from increasing scarcity of resources are:

• Exploration and discovery of new sources
• Discovering alternatives and substitutes
• Increasing efficiency of resources
• Regulating overuse of resources and pollution through government policies
• Educating people about the conservation of resources. (OR)

Question 5. How can we convert people into productive assets?
Answer: Human resource conducts new research to provide better facilities to the people. Electricity, televisions, computers, mobiles, and fast-moving vehicles are all contributions of human resources. Till now, India’s large population was considered a burden. But now it is being viewed as a resource. It is possible to convert people into productive assets by providing good education, training, and health facilities.

Question 6. What are long-term public deposits? What are their advantages to the public?
Answer: Long-term public deposits which a company can accept public deposits to meet long-term financial needs. The advantages of long-term public deposits to the public are:

• The procedure to get these deposits is simple and does not involve many formalities.
• A company can accept these deposits for a period not exceeding 5 years (60 months).
• The deposits are unsecured and 8% to 10% of interest is allowed.
• The maximum amount that can be raised under public deposit shall not exceed 25% of the paid-up capital of the company (OR)

Question 6. Why is decision-making very important in the management of the business?
Answer:
The need for decision-making in the management of a business is

1. In order to achieve objectives and goals the business organization has to take decisions.
2. There is a number of choices available even in a small matter.
3. Suppose a businessman has to transport goods, he has to take a decision about the mode of transportation.
4. He has to choose one among the several alternatives and that alternative should be best suited and economical.

Answer the following

Question 1. Explain the administrative system of the Vijayanagara Empire.
Answer:

• The central administration was strong and some powers were decentralized.
• The Council of Ministers, strong military, provincial chieftains, or the king would give land to the leader or chieftain in return for military service.
• There were different bodies like the State Council leader (Nayankar), village administration, etc.
• The kingdom had various administrative levels like the state, Naadu, and village.
• The village was the last level of administration and the Grama Sabhas used to carry on the administration there.
• The Gowda, Karnam, and Talwar used to assist in the village administration.
• In the Provinces the Nadagowdas and in the cities the Pattanaswami or Pattanashetty used to look after the administration.