KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement In Food Resources

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement In Food Resources Important Concepts

Crop yields, crop variety, crop production manure and fertilizers, Irrigation, cropping patterns. Animal husbandry – cattle farming, poultry farming, Fish production, Beekeeping.

Crop production: Crops are plants cultivated by human beings for food, fodder, and other materials. The important types of crops are. Cereal crops – Wheat, rice, maize, Pulses – Pea, Greengram, Oil seed – Groundnut, soybean
Crop seasons:
1)Kharif season -These crops are grown in the rainy season.
Example: Paddy, soybean.
2)Rabi season – These crops are grown in the winter season.
Example: Wheat, peas.

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Macronutrients: The essential elements utilized by plants relatively in large quantities.
Examples: Nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium, and calcium.
Micronutrients: The essential elements utilized by plants in small quantities.
Examples: Manganese, Boron, Zinc, and Copper.
Manures: Manures are organic substances obtained through the decomposition of plant waste and animal excreta. Manure can be classified into
1)compost
2)Vermicompost
3)Green manure.
Fertilizers: Fertilisers are commercially produced plant nutrients.
Types of fertilizers:
1)Nitrogenous fertilizers
2)Phosphatic fertilizers
3)potassic fertilizers
Organic Farming: It is a farming system with minimal or no use of chemicals as fertilizers, herbicides, pesticides, etc., and with a maximum input of organic manures, recycled farm wastes, etc.
Irrigation: It is the process of supplying water to crop plants in the fields by means of canals, reservoirs, wells, tube wells, etc.,
Mixed cropping: It is the practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land. Eg. Wheat + gram, ground nut T sunflower.
Intercropping: It involves growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern. A few rows of one crop alternate with a few rows of a second crop.
Example : soybean + maize + cowpea
Crop rotation: The growing of different crops on a piece of land in a preplanned succession is known as crop rotation.
Pest: Any destructive organism that causes great economic damage to crop plants.
Example:  Insects, mites, etc.,
Pesticide: It refers to a chemical that is used to kill a pest organism.

  1. Insecticides – killing the insects
  2. Weedicides – killing the weeds
  3. Fungicides – killing the fungi
  4. Rodenticides – killing rodents

Weeds: They are small-sized unwanted plants that grow along with a cultivated crop in a field.
Livestock: It refers to the domestic animals kept in use for milk, and flesh and includes cattle, buffaloes, sheep, and goats.
Animal husbandry: Animal husbandry is the scientific management of animal livestock. It includes various aspects such as feeding, breeding, and disease control.
Cattle farming: Cattle husbandry is done for two purposes milk and drought labor. Milk-producing females are called milch animals. Draught animals are used for farm labor.
Breeding: It means ‘to reproduce’ and is done to obtain animals with desired characteristics.
Poultry: It is the branch of animal husbandry concerned with rearing birds for eggs and meat. Poultry practices required good care for food, shelter, and disease control.
Fish production: There are two ways of obtaining fish. One is from natural resources, which is called capture fishing. The other way is by fish farming, which is called culture fishery.
Bee-keeping: Bee-keeping or Apiculture is the rearing, care, and management of honey bees for obtaining honey, wax, and other substances.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement In Food Resources

Improvement In Food Resources Exercises

Question 1. Explain any one method of crop production which ensures high yield.
Answer: Intercropping is one of the methods of crop production which ensures high yield because it ensures maximum utilization of the nutrients supplied and also prevents pests and diseases from spreading to all the plants belonging to one crop infield. In this way, both crops can give better returns.

Question 2. Why are manures and fertilizers used in fields?
Answer: Manures add a great amount of organic matter in the form of humus in the soil. Fertilizers are very rich in plant nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorous, and potassium.

Improvement In Food Resources KSEEB Class 9 Question Answers 

Question 3. What are the advantages of intercropping and crop rotation?
Answer:
Advantages of using intercropping:
1)It helps to maintain soil fertility.
2)Crops can easily be harvested and trashed separately.
Advantages of crop rotation:
1)It avoids the depletion of a particular nutrient from the soil.
2)It helps in weed control.

Question 4. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?
Answer: Genetic manipulation is a process of transferring genes or characteristics that are desirable from one plant to another plant for the production of varieties with desirable characteristics. Genetic manipulation is useful in increasing yield, better quality, and desirable characteristics.

Question 5. How do storage grain losses occur?
Answer:
There are mainly two types of factors
1)Biotic factors — Insects, rodents, birds & microorganisms.
2)Abiotic factors Moisture content, temperature, and humidity.

Question 6. How do good animal husbandry practices benefit farmers?
Answer:
Advantages of animal husbandry practices are.
1)Increasing the yield of foodstuffs such as milk, eggs, and meat.
2)It is beneficial for the farmers as increased yield brings more income to the farmer and raises his living standard.

Question 7. What are the benefits of cattle farming?
Answer:
Cattle fanning is beneficial in the following ways
1)Good quality of meat, fiber can be obtained.
2) Milk-yielding animals and a good breed of draught animals can be obtained.

Question 8. For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries, and bee-keeping?
Answer: Through cross-breeding, the production of poultry, fisheries, and beekeeping can be increased.

Question 9. How do you differentiate between capture fishing, mariculture, and aquaculture?
Answer:
Capture
fishing:
It is the process of obtaining fish from natural resources such as rivers, ponds, canals, etc.
Mariculture:
It is a practice of a culture of marine fish varieties in the open sea. 
Aquaculture:
It is the production of fish from freshwater resources.

Improvement In Food Resource Textual Questions

Question 1. What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits, and vegetables?
Answer: Cereals give carbohydrates which provide energy. Pulses give proteins that build our bodies. Vegetables and fruits provide all essential minerals.

Question 2. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?
Answer:
Biotic and abiotic factors affect poor crop production by the following factors.
1)Weight loss
2)Poor germination ability
3)Infestation of insects.
4)Degradation in quality.

Class 9 Science Chapter 15 KSEEB Textbook Solutions 

Question 3. What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?
Answer:
Desirable agronomic characteristics are.
1)Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characteristics for fodder crops.
2)Dwarfness is desired in cereals so that less nutrients are consumed by these crops.

Question 4. What are macronutrients and why are they called macronutrients?
Answer: Macronutrients are essential elements utilized by plants relatively in large quantities. They require for the plants in greater amounts for proper growth and development.

Question 5. How do plants get nutrients?
Answer: The nutrients which are found in the soil get dissolved in the water and is absorbed by the roots of a plant

Question 6. Compare the use of manure and fertilizers in maintaining soil fertility.
Answer:
Manure:
1)Manure is a natural substance
2)It adds a great amount of organic matter
3)It is not nutrient specific
Fertilizers:
1)A fertilizer is a man-made substance.
2)It does not add any humus to the soil.
3)It is nutrient specific

Question 7. Which of the following conditions will give the most benefits? Why?
1)Farmers who use high-quality seeds do not adopt irrigation or use fertilizers.
2)Farmers use ordinary seeds, adopt irrigation and use fertilizers.
3)Farmers use quality seeds adopt irrigation use fertilizers and use crop protection measures.
Answer: Option (c) is the right answer.
The use of only quality seeds and irrigation and fertilizers are not sufficient for better yield, but also crop should be protected by biotic and abiotic factors.

Question 8. Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be preferred for protecting crops?
Answer: Diseases are spread by pathogens so to get rid of pathogens some preventive measures, as well as biological methods, are preferred.
Example: To kill the pathogen biological method will be used without affecting the plant or soil quality.

Question 9. What factors may be responsible for losses of grains during storage?
Answer:
1) Biotic factors – Insects, birds, and rodents
2) Abiotic factors — moisture content, temperature, and humidity.

Question 10. Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why?
Answer:
Cross-breeding of cattle is commonly used for improving cattle breeds because.
1)It helps in getting the desired traits.
2)To get disease-resistant and high-yielding cattle breeds.

Question 11. Discuss the implications of the following statement. “It is interesting to note that poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low-fiber food stuff (which is unfit for human consumption) into highly nutritious animal protein food.
Answer: Poultry farming is to raise domestic fowl for egg production and chicken meat. The poultry birds are also efficient converters of agricultural byproducts.

Question 12. What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?
Answer:

  • Providing proper shelter.
  • Feeding
  • Caring for animal health.

Question 13. What are the differences between broilers and layers and in their management?
Answer: The poultry bird groomed for obtaining meat is called a broiler. The egg-laying poultry bird is called a layer. The proper nutrition and environmental requirements of broilers are somewhat different from those of egg layers.

Question 14. How are fish obtained?
Answer: The fish can be obtained by
1)Capturing
2)Culturing

KSEEB Solutions For Improvement In Food Resources Short Notes 

Question 15. What are the advantages of composite fish culture?
Answer: The composite fish culture is a combination of five or six fish species is used in a single pond.
Advantages
1. They do not compete for food among themselves.
2. The (fishes) have different types of food habits
3. Fishes feed in different zones.

Question 16. What are the desirable characteristics of the varieties suitable for honey production?
Answer:
1)The variety of bees should be able to collect a large amount of honey.
2)They (Bee) should stay in a given beehive for a long period.

Question 17. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?
Answer: Pasturage means the flowers available to the bees for nectar and pollen collection. In addition to an adequate quantity of pasturage, the kind of flowers available will determine the taste of the honey.

Improvement In Food Resources Additional Questions

Question 1. Name the crop whose production has increased by
1)blue revolution
2) yellow revolution
Answer:
1) Blue revolution—Fish production
2)Yellow revolution—Oil production

Question 2. Is organic farming beneficial and why?
Answer: Yes organic fanning is very beneficial because it is a farming system with no use of chemicals with a maximum input of organic manures, recycled from waste.

Question 3. Why removal of weeds is necessary?
Answer: Weeds should be removed because it takes up nutrients from soil and reduce the growth of crops.

Question 4. Which is the most advantageous fish culture system?
Answer: Composite fish culture because fishes do not compete for food among them.

Question 5. How genetically modified crops can be obtained?
Answer: Genetically modified crops can be obtained by introducing a gene that would provide the desired characteristics.

Question 6. How does catla differ from mrigal?
Answer: Catla is a surface feeder, while mrigal is a bottom-feeding fish.

Improvement In Food Resources High Order Thinking Questions

Question 1. On what factors does the growth of plants and flowering are dependent?
Answer: Temperature and photoperiod (duration of sunlight)

Question 2. Neem and turmeric powders are often used in grain storage.
1)What are they called?
2)What is the purpose of using need and turmeric?
Answer:
1) Neem and turmeric powders are biopesticides,
2) Neem and turmeric keep away insects rodents, fungi, bacteria, etc from the stored foods.

Question 3. A farmer had a plot just beside the bank of a river. Each time be planted Kharif crops, crops got damaged due to floods. He consulted the agricultural scientist who gave him a special variety of seeds and also advised him to practice fish farming.
1)What was the specialty of seed grains?
2)What name can be given to this type of fish farming?
Answer:
1) The special variety of seed grains are genetically modified to protect them from the damaging effect of floods,
2)Composite fish culture.

KSEEB Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Important Questions 

Question 4. What determines the quality of honey?
Answer:
1) The pasturage, i.e, the kind of flowers available.
2) Apiary location.

Question 5. Name one indigenous and one exotic breed of poultry.
Answer:
1) Indigenous—Aseel
2) Exotic—Leghorn.

Question 6. What are the desired agronomic characteristics for fodder and cereal crops?
Answer: Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characteristics for fodder crops. Dwarfhess is desired in cereals so that less nutrients are consumed by these crops.

Question 7. Excessive use of chemicals, such as insecticides and pesticides causes a threat to ecology.” Explain with reason.
Answer:
1) Excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides when washed away courses water pollution,
2) The pesticides accumulate in the soil for a long period.
3)They may lead to eutrophication,
4)They may result in biological magnification.

Improvement In Food Resources Unit Test

Question 1. To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is necessary
1)Increased production and storage of food grains.
2)Easy access of people to the food grains
3)Proper storage of food grains.
4)All of these
Answer: (1) Increased production and storage of food grains.

Question 2. The place where bees are reared for commercial honey production is called
1)Beehive
2)Aviary
3)Apiary
4)collection unit
Answer: (3) Apiary

Question 3. The process of crossing genetically dissimilar plants of a species is called
1)Intervarietal cross
2) Interspecific cross
3)Intergeneric cross
4) Ail of these
Answer: (1) Intervarietal cross

Improvement In Food Resources Give One Word For The Following

1. Planting soybean and maize in alternative rows in the same field is called as Intercropping
2. Parthenium is commonly known as weed
3. Growing different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession is known as Crop rotation

Improvement In Food Resources Answer The Following Questions

one mark

Question 1. Why do organisms need food?
Answer: Food is required for body development, growth, and good health.

Question 2. Which technique is incorporated to obtain crop varieties?
Answer: Hybridisation.

Question 3. Which species of honey bee is used for the commercial production of honey?
Answer: Apis mellifera

Question 4. What is Aquaculture?
Answer: The production and management of fish is called aquaculture.

Question 5. Define the term hybridization.
Answer: Hybridisation refers to crossing between genetically dissimilar organisms.

Question 6. Give two examples of milch animals.
Answer: The cow and buffalo are milk animals.

Question 7. What is the advantage of green manure?
Answer: Green manure helps in enriching the soil with nitrogen and phosphorus.

Two And Four Marks

Question 1. Write any two methods of weed control.
Answer:
1) Weeds can be controlled by using pesticides.
2)Weeds can be removed by using a harrow, hoe or by cutting them.
3)The biological method involves growing crops like mustard along with the main crops which do not allow weeds to grow.

Question 2.What are th e ad vantages of hybridisation ?
Answer:
1) It makes crops disease resistant and a good response to fertilizers.
2) It gives a higher yield and improves product quality.

Question 3. Write any two characteristics of a storage structure for grains.
Answer:
1)Storage structures should be cleaned dried and airtight.
2)Storage structures should have inbuilt arrangements for aeration, temperature control, protection from pests, etc.

KSEEB Solutions Chapter 15 Agricultural Techniques Class 9 

Question 4. State three ways by which pests attack the plants and name the chemical used to control pests.
Answer:
1) The pests cut the root, stem, and leaf,
2)They suck the cell sap from plants.
3)They bore into the stem, root, and fruit. Pesticides should be used to control pests.

Question 5. How can poultry farming be integrated with crop production?
Answer:
1) Poultry birds can be fed with farm wastes like degraded grains and certain parts of a plant as food.
2) Bird wastes or excreta can be used as manures to the plants.

Question 6. How is fumigant different from pesticides?
Answer: Fumigant is used before grains are stored for future use. Pesticide is used after the germination of seed and it is sprayed over the crop plant.

Question 7. List three factors on which cultivation practices and crop yield depends.
Answer:
The cultivation practices and crop yield depends upon the following factors.
1)Availability of high-quality seeds.
2)Availability of waters
3)Availability of fertile soil
4)Access to new information and technologies.

KSEEB Class 9 Science Notes for Chapter 8 Motion

KSEEB Class 9 Science Notes for Chapter 8 Motion Important Concepts

Rest
A body is said to be at rest if its position does not change with respect its surroundings

Motion
A body is said to be in motion if its position changes with respect to its surroundings.

Reference Point
It is a fixed point with respect to which a body is at rest or in motion.

Distance
It is the length of the actual path travelled by a body in a given interval of time.

Displacement
It is the shortest distance between the initial and final positions of a body in a specified direction.

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Scalar Quantities
These are the physical quantities which have only magnitude and no direction. Ex: speed, mass, temperature, energy, work, etc

Vector quantities
These are physical quantities with both magnitude and a specified direction. Ex: velocity, force, acceleration, momentum, etc

Uniform motion
The motion of a body is said to be uniform if it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time however small the time intervals.

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Non-uniform motion
The motion of a body is said to be non-uniform if it covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time however small the time intervals

Speed
It is the distance travelled by the body divided by the time taken to cover the distance OR it is the distance travelled by a body in unit time (per second)

\(\text { Speed }=\frac{\text { dis } \tan c e}{\text { time }}\)

S.I unit is meter per second (m/s or\( \mathrm{ms}^{-1}\))

Class 9 KSEEB Science Chapter 8 Motion Notes 

KSEEB Class 9 Science Notes for Chapter 8 Motion

Uniform speed
The speed of a body is said to be uniform if the body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.

Non-uniform speed
The speed of a body is said be non-uniform if the body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time.

Average speed
It is the total distance travelled by a body divided by total time taken by the body to cover the distance.

\(\text { Average speed }=\frac{\text { total } \text { dis tan ce travelled }}{\text { total time taken }}\)

Velocity

  • It is a displacement of a body divided by the time taken to cover the displacement Or
  • It is the displacement of a body per second Or
  • It is the distance travelled by the body in one second in a given direction
\(\text { Velocity }=\frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time }}\)

S .1 unit is metre per second (m/s or \(\mathrm{ms}^{-1}\))

Uniform Velocity
The velocity of a body is said to be uniform if the body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time however small the time intervals in a given direction.

Variable Velocity
The velocity of a body is said to be variable if magnitude or direction or both of magnitude and direction of velocity change.

Average velocity
It is not displacement covered by the body divided by the total time taken.

\(\text { Velocity }=\frac{\text { Net displacement }}{\text { Total time taken }}\)

Acceleration
It is the rate of change of velocity of a body with respect to time Acceleration

\(\text { Acceleration }=\frac{\text { change velocity }}{\text { time }}\)

S.I unit is  \(\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2 \text { or } \mathrm{ms}^{-2}\)

Positive Acceleration
Acceleration of a body is said to be positive if it takes place in the direction of the velocity of the body. In this case, velocity increases with time.

Negative Acceleration
Acceleration of the body is said to be negative if it takes place opposite to the direction of the velocity of the body. In this case, velocity decreases with time. It is also known as retardation or deceleration.

Uniform Acceleration
If the change in the velocity of a body in equal intervals of time is always the same, then an acceleration of the body is said to be the uniform acceleration

Variable Acceleration
If the change in the velocity of a body in equal intervals of time is not the same, then the acceleration of the body is said to be the variable acceleration

Graphs
It is a convenient method of presenting basic information of the motion of an object

Distance – Time Graph

  • It is the graph which represents the change in the position of the object with respect to time. It may be linear or non-linear
  • It is obtained by taking time (t) along the x-axis and distance (s) along the y- axis
  • The slope of the graph gives the speed of the body in a given time interval

Displacement – Time Graph

  • The graph was obtained by taking time along the x-axis and displacement along the y-axis. It is always a straight line (linear)
  • The slope of the graph gives the velocity of the body

Velocity – Time Graph

  • It represents the change in velocity with respect to time.
  • It is obtained by taking time(t) along the x-axis and velocity (v) along the y-axis
  • The graph may be linear or non-linear
  • The slope of the graph gives the acceleration of the body and the area under the curve gives the distance travelled by the body in the given interval of time.

Equations Of Motion
The motion of a body with uniform acceleration can be described by the following three equations
(1) u = v + at
(2) s=ut +1/2 at²
(3) 2as = v2 – u2

where u – Initial velocity, v = final velocity, a ~ acceleration, s = distance and t = time

Uniform circular motion

  • When a body moves in a circular path with constant speed, then the motion of the body is said to be uniform circular motion.
  • In uniform mo ion, velocity is variable due to changes in direction continuously. The magnitude of the velocity is given by
    the circumference of the circular path.
\(\mathrm{v}=\frac{\text { circumference of circular path }}{\text { time period }}=\frac{2 \pi r}{T}\)

where r=radius of the circular path and T – time taken to cover the path once.

KSEEB Science Chapter 8 Motion Explanations For Class 9 

KSEEB Class 9 Science Notes for Chapter 8 Motion

Exercises

Question 1. An object has moved through a distance. Can it have zero displacements? If yes, support your answer with an example.
Answer: Yes. Suppose a student throws a ball to a height and catches it.
Distance travelled by the ball = h + h = 2h m
Displacement = 0.

Question 2. A farmer moves along the boundary of a square field of side 10m in the 40s. What will be the magnitude of displacement of the
farmer at the end of 2 minutes 20 seconds from his position?

Motion Chapter 8Answer: Consider the square field ABCD as shown in the figure. Given that fanner covers the boundary ABCD in 40 s. If he walks for 2 minutes and 20 seconds, he will be at point C.

Thus magnitude of the displacement of the farmer
= AC
=√(AB)² + (BC)²
=√10² +10²
= √100+100
= √200
=14.14 m

Question 3. Which of the following is true for displacement?
(1)It cannot be zero
(2)Its magnitude is greater than the distance travelled by the object
Answer: Both statements are false

Question 4. Distinguish between speed and velocity
Answer:
Speed 

1. It is the distance travelled by the body in one second irrespective of direction.
2. It is a scalar quantity
3. It is always positive

Velocity
1. It is the distance travelled by a body in one second in the given direction.
2. It is a vector quantity

Question 5.Under what condition(s) is the magnitude of the average velocity of an object equal to its average speed?
Answer: When a body moves along a straight path in the same direction, its total path length is equal to the magnitude of the displacement. Under this condition, average velocity is equal to average speed.

Question 6. What does the Odometer of an automobile measure?
Answer: The odometer measures the distance travelled by automobile

Question 7. What does the path of an object look like when it is in uniform motion?
Answer: The path looks like a straight line

Question 8. During an experiment, a signal from a spaceship reached the ground station in five minutes. What was the distance of the spaceship from the ground station? The signal travels at the speed of light ie 3 x \0sm/s.
Answer: Given data, t = 5 minutes 300 second and
v = 3 x 10 m/s
Distance of the spaceship (s) = v
t = 3 x 108 x 300 = 9 x 10 10 m

Question 9. When will you say a body is in (1) uniform acceleration? (2) non-uniform acceleration?
Answer:
(1) If the change in velocity in equal intervals of time is always the same, then the body is said to be in uniform acceleration
(2) If the change in velocity in equal intervals of time is not the same, then the body is said to be moving with non-uniform acceleration

Question 10. A bus decreases its speed from 80kmh1 in 5 s. Find the acceleration of the bus.
Answer:
Acceleration = (Final velocity – Initial velocity)/(time interval)
Initial velocity = 80km/h

\(\frac{80 \times 1000}{3600}=\frac{200}{9}=22.22 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s} \)

Final velocity=60km/h

\(\frac{60 \times 1000}{3600}=\frac{50}{3}=16.67 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s} \)

Acceleration = \(\frac{16.67-22.22}{5}=-6.47 / 5=-1.11 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}\)

Question 11. A train starting from a railway station and moving with uniform acceleration attains a speed of 40km 1 in 10 minutes. Find its acceleration
Answer:
Final Speed= 40 km/h= \(\frac{40 \times 1000}{3600}=\frac{100}{9}=11.11 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Initial Speed = 0 km/h
Acceleration = (Final velocity – Initial velocity)/(time velocity)

\(=\frac{11.11-0}{10 \times 60}=\frac{11.11}{600}=0.019 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\)

Question 12. What is the nature of the distance-time graphs for uniform and non-uniform motion of an object?

Answer: For uniform motion, the distance-time graph is a straight line. For non-uniform motion, the distance-time graph is a curved line

Question 13. What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance-time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?
Answer: The object is at rest

KSEEB Science Notes Chapter 8 Motion With Solved Examples 

Question 14. What can you say about the motion of an object if its speed-time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?
Answer: The body is moving with uniform motion ie uniform speed.

Question 15. What is the quantity which is measured by the area occupied below the velocity-time curve?
Answer: Displacement covered by the body in the given interval of time.

Question 16. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m/s2 for 2 minutes. Find
(1) the speed acquired
(2) the distance travelled

Answer: Given data: u=0, a=0.1 m/s2 t=2 minutes – 120 second
(1) The speed acquired (v) = u+at
\(=0+0.1 \times 120=12 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)
(2) The distance travelled =\( u t+1 / 2 a t^2\)
\(=0 \times 120+1 / 2 \times 0.1 \times(120)^2\)
=720m

Question 17. A train is travelling at a speed of 90km/h. Brakes are applied so as to produce a uniform acceleration of 0.5 m/s2. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest.
Answer: Given data:
\(\begin{aligned}
&\mathrm{u}=90 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}=\frac{90 \times 1000}{3600}=25 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s} \\
&\mathrm{a}=-0.5 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2, \mathrm{v}=0
\end{aligned}\)
We know that \(v^2-u^2=2 a s\)
\(\mathrm{s}=\frac{v^2-u^2}{2 a}=\frac{0^2-25^2}{2(-0.5)}=625 m\)

Question 18. A trolley while going down an inclined plane, has an acceleration of 2cm s’2. What will be its velocity 3s after the start?
Answer:
Given data: u = 0, a=3cm=0.03m, t=3sec.
Velocity after 3 sec = v=u+at \( =0+0.03 \times 3\)
\( =0.09 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Question 19. A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4 m/s2. What distance will it cover in 10s after the start?
Answer:
Given data : \(\mathrm{u}=0, \mathrm{a} 4 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2, \mathrm{t}=10 \mathrm{~s}\)
Distance travelled after \( \begin{aligned}
&10 \mathrm{~s}=\mathrm{s}=u \mathrm{t}+1 / 2 \mathrm{at}^2 \\
&=0 \times 10+1 / 2(4)(10)^2 \\
&=200 \mathrm{~m}
\end{aligned}\)


Question 20. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 5m/s. If the acceleration of the stone during its motion is 10ms’2 in the downward direction, what will be the height attained by the stone and how much time will it take to reach there?

Answer:
Given data: \(\mathrm{u}=5 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}, \mathrm{a}=-10 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\)
At the height point v=0
Thus using the formula
\(\mathrm{s}=\frac{v^2-u^2}{2 a}=\frac{0^2-5^2}{2(-10)}=\frac{25}{25}=1.25 \mathrm{~m}\)
Thus the height attained by the stone = 1.25m
Now, v=u+at \( \begin{aligned}
\Rightarrow 0=5-10 \mathrm{t} & \Rightarrow \mathrm{t}=5 / 10 \\
&=0.5 \mathrm{~s}
\end{aligned}\)


Question 21. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200m in the 40s. What will be the distance covered and displacement at the end of Z minutes 20s?

Answer: Time is taken to complete 1 round =40s
Total time taken = 2minutes+20s=140s
Total distance covered = (circumference of circularpath*total time taken)/(time taken to complete one round)
\(=\frac{\pi d \times 140}{40} \mathrm{~m}\)
\(=\frac{22}{7} \times 200 \times \frac{7}{2}=2200 \mathrm{~m}\)
After the 140s, the athlete will be in the exactly diametrically opposite position. (Why?)
Hence displacement = 200m

Question 22. Joseph jogs from one A to the other end B of a straight 300m road in 2 minutes 30 seconds and then turns around and jogs 100m back to point Cin another 1 minute. What are Joseph’s average speeds and velocities in jogging (a) from A to B and (b) from A to C
Answer:
Case (1):
In jogging from A to B,
Distance covered = 300m and displacement = 300m(Why?)
Time taken = 2 minutes + 30s = 150s
Average Speed = (distance)/(time) =
\(\frac{300}{150}=2 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)
Average velocity = (displacement)/(time) =
\( \frac{300}{150}=2 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Case (2): In jogging from A to C
Distance travelled = 300 + 100 = 400m
Displacement = AB – BC = 300-100 = 200m
Time taken = 2 min 30s + 1 minute = 210s
Average Speed =(distance)/(time) =
\(=\frac{400}{210}=1.9 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)
Average velocity = (displacement)/(time)=
\(=\frac{200}{210}=0.95 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)


Question 23. Abdul while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to be 20kmh~1. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the average speed is 30km What is the average speed for Abdul’s trip?

Answer: Let the distance between Abdul’s house and school = X km
Time is taken in driving to school at a speed of
\(20 \mathrm{kmph}=\frac{\text { dis } \tan c e}{\text { time }}=\frac{x}{20} h\)

Time taken in returning at a speed 30kmph =\( \frac{x}{30} h\)

Total time is taken for the whole trip =

\(\frac{x}{20}+\frac{x}{30}=\frac{5 x}{60} h\)

Average speed = (total distance)/(total time taken)

= \(\frac{2 x}{5 x / 60}=\frac{120}{5}=24 \mathrm{kmh}^{-1}\)

Free notes for KSEEB Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion 

Question 24. A driver of a car travelling at 52k mb1 applies the brakes and accelerates uniformly in the opposite direction. The car stops in 5 s. Another car driver going at 34 knlr1 in another car applies his brakes slowly and stops in 10s. On the same graph paper, plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars. Which of the two cars travelled farther after brakes were applied?
Answer:Motion 1

In the figure, AB and CD represent the speed versus time graphs for the two cars.

Distance travelled by the 1st car
\(\begin{aligned}
& =1 / 2 \times \mathrm{AB} \times \mathrm{AO} \\
& =1 / 2 \times \frac{52 \times 1000}{3600} \times 5 \\
& =36.1 \mathrm{~m}
\end{aligned}\)

Similarly, the distance travelled by the 2nd car =
\(\begin{aligned}
& =1 / 2 \times \mathrm{CO} \mathrm{CD} \\
& =1 / 2 \times \frac{34 \times 1000}{3600} \times 10
\end{aligned}\)
= 47.2 m

It is clear that the 2nd car travelled farther than the 1st car after breaks were applied.

Question 25. Fig 8.11 shows the distance-time graph of three objects A, B and C. Study the graphs
and answer the following questions :

Motion(1) Which of the three is travelling the fastest?
(2) Are all three ever at the same point on the road?
(3) How has C travelled when B passes A?
(4) How far has B travelled by the time it passes C?
Answer:
We know the slope of the distance-time graph represents the speed of the object.
(1) Steeper the graph, the greatest and B travels with the fastest speed
(2) Since there is no common point of intersection of the three lines, they are not at the same point ever on the road.
(3) From the graph, C has travelled a distance of about 9km
(4) Again from the graph, B has travelled about 6km

Question 26. A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20m. If its velocity increases uniformly at the rate of 10m/s2, with what velocity will it strike the ground? After what time will it strike the ground?
Answer:
Given data, u=0, h=20m, a = \(10 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\), v = ?, t = ?
We
know that \( v^2-u^2=2 a h\)
\( v^2-0^2=2 \times 10 \times 20\)
\(v^2=400 \Rightarrow v=20 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)
Now we know that \( \mathrm{v}=\mathrm{u}+\mathrm{at} \Rightarrow\)
\(t=\frac{v-u}{a}=\frac{20-0}{10}=2 s\)

Question 27. The speed-time graph for a car is shown in figure 8.12.

Motion 2

(1) Find how far the car travel in the first 4 seconds. Shade the area on the graph that represents the distance travelled by car during the period.
(2) Which part of the graph represents the uniform motion of the car?
Answer:
(1)Along time – axis, 5 squares = 2s
Along speed – axis, 3 squares = 2m/s
Area of 15 squares = Distance
\(=2 \mathrm{~s} \times 2 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}=4 \mathrm{~m}\)
Area of 1 square = distance pf 4/15m
The number of squares under the graph between 4s and 6m/s = \(\begin{gathered}
57+1 / 2(6) \\
=60
\end{gathered}\)
Hence distance travelled by the car = 60 x 4/15 = 16m

(2) The graph after 6s represents uniform motion since the graph remains flat

KSEEB Science Notes for 9th Standard Chapter 8 Motion 

Question 28.State which of the following situations are possible and give an example for each of these
(1) an object with constant acceleration but with zero velocity
(2) an object moving in a certain direction with an acceleration in the perpendicular direction.
Answer:
(1) When an object is thrown vertically upwards, at the highest point, velocity becomes zero but still it has acceleration which is equivalent to acceleration due to gravity.
(2) When an aeroplane moves horizontally, acceleration due to gravity acts on it perpendicular to the direction of the motion.

Question 29. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius 42250km. Calculate its speed it it takes 24 hours to revolve around the earth.
Answer:
Given data, Radius (R) = 42, 250km = 42250000m
Time period (T) = 24 h = \(24 \times 60 \times 60 \text { seconds }\)
Speed =

\(\frac{2 \pi R}{T}=\frac{2 \times 3.14 \times 42250000}{24 \times 60 \times 60}=3071 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

KSEEB Class 9 Science Notes for Chapter 8 Motion

Additional Questions

One Mark

Question 1. What is motion?
Answer: A body is said to be in motion if its position changes with respect to a reference point

Question 2. What is the simplest motion?
Answer: Motion along a straight line is the simplest motion

Question 3. Rest and motion are relative terms. Why?
Answer: An object at rest for one person is in motion for other people

Question 4. Give an example of directly perceivable
motion
Answer: Motion of a car on the road

Question 5. Give an example of an indirectly perceivable motion
Answer: Motion of the air observed due to the movement of dust or leaves of branches of a tree.

Question 6. Identify a scalar and vector from the
following
(1) distance
(2) displacement
Answer: distance – a scalar and Displacement – a vector

Question 7. Given an example for a uniform motion question
Answer:
1) Motion of the earth around the sun
2) Motion of a stone thrown vertically upwards
3) Motion of a train approaching a railway station

Question 8. Give two examples of non-uniform motion
Answer: It is the ratio of the total distance travelled to the time interval to cover the distance

Class 9 Motion KSEEB Notes With Numerical Solutions 

Question 9. Define average speed
Answer: It is the ratio of net displacement to the time interval

Question 10. What do you mean by the term reference point?
Answer: An object or place specified to locate the position of an object is called a reference point.

Question 11. Define displacement of a body.
Answer: The shortest distance measured from the initial to the final position of an object is known as the displacement of a body.

Question 12. What is an odometer?
Answer: It is a device used in automobiles to measure the distance travelled.

Question 13. What is a point object?
Answer: An object whose size is very small compared to the distance travelled by the object is called a point object.

Question 14. What is the S.I. unit of displacement?
Answer: metre (m)

Question 15. Can displacement be greater than the distance of an object?
Answer: No. Displacement may be equal to or less than distance.

Question 16. How is the speed of an object measured?
Answer:
\(\text { speed }=\frac{\text { distance travelled }}{\text { total time taken }}\)

Question 17. A body moves from rest with uniform speed. What type of distance-tome graph do we set?
Answer: A straight line passing through the origin.

Question 18. What does the area under velocity – time graph represent?
Answer: The area enclosed by the velocity-time graph and the time axis represent the magnitude of the displacement.

Question 19. Under what condition average velocity of an object equal to its average speed?
Answer: If the object moves along a straight path

Question 20. What can a speed meter measure?
Answer: Instantaneous speed ie speed at the moment of observation.

Question 21. Define average velocity
Answer: It is the ratio of net displacement to total time taken.

Two Marks

Question 22. Define the uniform speed of a body
Answer: The speed of a body is said to be uniform, it covers equal distances in equal intervals of times

Question 23. Define uniform velocity
Answer: The velocity of the body is said to be uniform if it covers equal displacements in equal intervals of time in the given direction

Question 24. Define variable velocity.
Answer: When the magnitude or direction or both of velocity change then the velocity is called variable velocity.

Question 25.Mention S.I units of
(1) velocity
(2)acceleration
Answer: S.I unit of velocity is  \( \mathrm{ms}^{-1}\)and the S.I unit of acceleration is \(\mathrm{ms}^{-2}\)

Question 26.Define uniform acceleration
Answer: Acceleration of a body is said to be uniform if changes in the velocity are equal in equal intervals of time

Question 27. Give an example of u uniformly acceleration motion
Answer: Motion of the freely falling body

Question 28. Define acceleration. Mention its S.I units
Answer: Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity. S. I units are \(\mathrm{ms}^{-2}\)

Question 29. What do you understand by retardation of a body? Give an example
Answer: The rate of decrease of velocity is known as retardation or deceleration.
Example: When a stone is thrown upwards, its velocity decreases.

Question 30. Mention any two natural phenomena that occur due to motion.
Answer: Sunrise, Sunset, seasons etc.,

Question 31. Give an example for directly and indirectly perceivable motion.
Answer: The motion of a vehicle is directly perceivable motion. The motion of air is an indirectly perceivable motion

Question 32. When an object is thrown vertically upwards, it rises to a height of 10m – and returns to its initial position. What is the total distance travelled by the object? What is the displacement of the object?
Answer: Total distance travelled -10+10 = 20m
Net displacement = 0

Question 33. Name the type of the following motion
1)A man jogging in C part
2)Motion of around the earth.
Answer:
1) Non-uniform motion
2)uniform motion

KSEEB Chapter 8 Motion Revision Notes For Class 9 

Question 34. When is the acceleration is taken as (a) +ve (b)-ve
Answer: When acceleration occurs in the direction of motion, then it is said to be positive. When acceleration occurs against the direction of motion, then it is said to be negative.

Question 35. The time interval between lightning and thunder is 1.5 seconds. Find the distance of lightning from the earth (speed of sound in air 343 m/s)
Answer: Distance of lightning = speed of lightning x time informed = 343 x 1.5
= 515.5m

Question 36.Draw a typical distance-time graph of an object moving with a uniform speed
Answer:Motion 3

Question 37.Draw a typic distance-time graph of an object moving hm – a uniform speed
Answer:

Motion Distance and time

Question 38. What does the slope of the following graphs indicate?
1)displacement-time graph
2)velocity-time graph
Answer: Instantaneous speed is the speed at the moment of observation.

Three Marks Questions

Question 39.Mention any one use of
1)displacement time graph
2)velocity-time graph
Answer:
1) The slope gives a velocity of the body at any given instruction.
2) Area Enclosed by the graph gives the magnitude of the displacement of the curve.

Question 40. When the acceleration of a body is said to be
1) Positive
2) negative?

Answer: When the velocity of a body increases with time, then its acceleration is said to be positive. When the velocity of a body decreases with time, then its acceleration is said to be negative.

Question 41. Can an object have a constant acceleration with zero velocity? Give an example
Answer: Yes. An object can have a constant acceleration with zero velocity.
For example, when a stone is thrown up vertically, at the highest point velocity becomes zero but acceleration will be accelerated due to gravity.

Question 42. Uniform circular motion is an accelerated motion. Justify this statement
Answer: In a uniform circular motion, though the magnitude of velocity remains constant, its direction changes continuously. Hence, uniform circular motion is an accelerated motion.

Question 43. Write equations of motion
Answer:
(1) v = u + at
(2) s = \(u t+1 / 2 a t^2\)
(3)\( v^2=u^2+2 a s\)
where u – initial velocity, v = final velocity, a — acceleration, s = distance, t = time

Question 44. A moving car is brought to rest in 30 seconds after applying brakes. If the retardation rate is 2 m/s2, find the initial velocity of the car and the distance travelled by car.
Answer: Given t = 30s, v = 0, a = – \(2 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\)
Using the equation v = u + at, we get 0 = u – 2
x 30 => u = 60 m/s

Class 9 KSEEB Science Motion Notes For Quick Learning 

Question 45. Give an example for
1)accelerated motion in the direction of motion
2)accelerated motion opposite to the direction of motion
3)zero acceleration
Answer:
1) accelerated motion in the direction of motion
2)accelerated motion opposite to the direction of motion
3)zero acceleration

Question 46. The velocity-time graph for the motion of an object is given

Motion velocity and time

What type of motion the part
1)OA
2)AB
3)BC represent?
Answer:
1) OA represents uniformly accelerated motion
2)AB represents zero acceleration motion
3)non-uniformly accelerated motion.

Four Marks

Question 47.
1) Distinguish between distance and displacement.
2) Usha swims in a 90 m-long pool. She covers 180m in 1 minute by swimming from one end to another and back along the same straight path. Find the average speed and average velocity of Usha.
Answer:
Distance

  • Distance is the actual path travelled by the body
  • A scalar quantity
  • Distance is always greater or equal to dis-placement
  • The distance can be positive or zero

Displacement

  • The shortest distance between an initial and final position of the body.
  • A vector quantity
  • Displacement is always equal to less than the distance
  • Displacement can be +ve, -ve or zero.

b)\( \text { Average speed }=\frac{\text { Total distance travelled }}{\text { Total time taken }}\)
\( =\frac{180}{60} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)
\( =3 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

Question 48. Prove that the area enclosed by the veloc¬ity-time graph and the time axis is equal to the magnitude of the displacement.
Answer:

Motion Magnitude of displacement

Consider car moving with uniform velocity V. The velocity-time graph PQ is a straight line parallel to the time axis as shown in fig.

Let A and B be the position of the car at the time t. and t2 respectively. W.K.T.

distance travelled the car – velocity x time
\(=v\left(t_2-t_1\right)\)
= AC x CD
S = Area of the rectangle ABDC then the distance travelled by car is equal the area enclosed by the velocity-time graph and time axis.

Question 49. From the following velocity-time graph of a car, find the distance travelled by the car from t = 10 to t = 20

Motion time and velocit

Answer: From the above velocity-time graph, the distance travelled by the car from t = 10S to 20S is given by
S = Area of rectangle ABCD + Area of triangle ADE
\(=(A B \times B C)+1 / 2 \times A D \times D E\)
AB = 20 \(\mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)
BC = 10s
AD = AB = 10s
ED = CE – CD
= CE – AB
= 40 – 20
= \(20 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

\(S=(20 \times 10)+1 / 2 \times 10 \times 20\)
= 200 + 100
s = 300m

Question 50.Derive the equation of motion v = u + at using the v -1 graph

Motion velocity and time graph

Answer: consider an object moving with uniform acceleration. Let ‘u’ be the initial velocity and 1 v’ be the final velocity of the object respectively.
The velocity-time graph is a straight line represented by AB. In the graph
OA = Initial velocity=u
OE – Final velocity = v
OC = Time interval = t
Draw AD || to OC
BC = BD + DC = BD + OA
substituting BC = V and OA=U
we get = BD + U
=> BD = V – U
the slope of the v -1 graph represents acceleration ie
\(a=\frac{\text { change in velocity }}{\text { time interval }}\)
\(a=\frac{v-u}{t}\)
at = v – u
\(\Rightarrow \quad v=u+\text { at }\)

 

KSEEB Science Chapter 8 Motion Explanations For Class 9 

Question 51. Derive the equation of motion s = ut + at2 using a velocity-time graph.

Motion time and velocity graph

 

Answer: consider an object moving with uniform acceleration ‘a’.
AB represents the velocity-time graph of the object in the time interval +’. In the graph
O A = Initial velocity=u
OE = Final velocity = v
OC = Time interval = t
If S is the distance travelled by the object isn’t a second, then
S = Area of trapezium OABC
=Area of the rectangle OADC + Area of the triangle ADB
\(=(\mathrm{OA} \times \mathrm{OC})+1 / 2(\mathrm{AD} \times \mathrm{BD})\)……….(1)
From the fig.
OA = u
OC = t
BC = BD + DC = BD + OA
v = BD + u \( \Rightarrow \mathrm{BD}=\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u}\)
\(\text { acceleration }(a)=\frac{\text { change in velocity }}{\text { time }}\)
[/latex] a=\frac{\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{BD}}{\mathrm{t}}[/latex]
[/latex] \Rightarrow \mathrm{BD}=a \mathrm{t}[/latex]
substituting these values in equation(1)
Then [/latex]\mathrm{S}=\mathrm{u} \times \mathrm{t}+1 / 2 a t^2[/latex]
\(\mathrm{S}=u t+1 / 2 a t^2\)

Question 52. Derive the equation of motion 2as = v2 – u2 using the velocity-time graph.

Motion graph

Answer: In the figure, AB represent the velocity-time graph for an object moving with uniform acceleration (a)
Let S be the distance travelled by the object in ‘t’ second.
S = Area enclosed by the v -t graph
ie S = Area of trapezium OABC
\(=1 / 2(\mathrm{OA}+\mathrm{BC}) \times \mathrm{OC}\)
Area of trapezium = \(1 / 2(a+b) h\)
\(S=1 / 2[u+v] \times t\) ………..(1)
From the velocity-time velocity ie v = u + at
\(\Rightarrow \mathrm{t}=\frac{v-u}{a}\)
substituting this value in Eqn (1)
\(\mathrm{S}=\frac{1}{2}(u+v) \times \frac{(v-u)}{a}\)
\(\Rightarrow 2 \mathrm{as}=\mathrm{u}^2-\mathrm{v}^2\)……….(2)

KSEEB Class 9 Science Notes for Chapter 8 Motion

Application Questions

Question 1. Can displacement of a body be zero?
Answer: Yes, If a body returns to its initial position, then
its displacement is said to be zero.

Question 2. The walls of your classroom are at rest. Justify.
Answer: When time passes, the walls do not change with respect to the floor or ceiling. Hence the walls at rest.

Question 3. A body moves along a circular path of radius R. What will be its distance and displacement when it sweeps 180°?
Answer: When the body sweeps 180°, it will be diametri¬cally opposite point. Hence.
\(.\text { distance }=1 / 2 \times \text { circumference }\).
\(=1 / 2 \times 2 \pi r=\pi r\)
displacement = diameter = 2r

Question 4. Can displacement be negative?
Answer: Yes, In retardation motion, displacement is said to be negative.

Free Notes For KSEEB Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion 

Question 5. During the rainy day, we see lightning first and then hear thunder. Why?
Answer: The speed of light is greater than the speed of sound.

Question 6. What happens to an acceleration of an object when the force acting on it is doubled?
Answer: Since acceleration and the applied force acceleration doubles when the force is doubled.

Question 7.Velocity – time graph is parallel to the x-axis. What does this mean?
Answer: This means that the object is moving with constant velocity is zero acceleration.

Question 8. Mention the type of motion of a body from the following velocity-time graph

Motion Chapter 8

Answer: 1) uniformly accelerated motion
2)non-uniform retardation
3)non-uniformly accelerated motion

Question 9. An object moves such that the magnitude of velocity does not change but the direction changes continuously. What type of motion the object has?
Answer: Uniform circular motion.

Question 10. A girl travels from A to B towards the north from B she moves to C towards the east. Draw the resultant displacement in the diagram.
Answer:

Motion chapter 9                                       Motion Chapter 10

Question 11. Name the force that keeps an object in a uniform circular motion. What happens if the force vanishes suddenly?
Answer: Centripetal force keeps the object in a uniform circular motion. If the force vanishes, then the object moves in. a direction tangent to the circular path.

 

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 The Guptas And Vardhanas

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 History Chapter 8 The Guptas And Vardhanas Points To Remember

The Gupta dynasty came into power by 275 C.E. ShriGupta is the founder of this dynasty. They started their rule from Prayaga. Later Guptas made Pataliputhra as their capital. Meghadoota is a poetic creation of Kalidasa and is one of his very famous works. Chandragupta II earned the title of Vikramaditya. His reign is memorable more for the encouragement given to literature and art, rather than for its battles.

  • The famous Sanskrit poet and dramatist, Kalidasa, belonged to this age. Meghadoota, Raghuvamsha, Kumarasambhava, and Ritu Samhara are his poems. Abhijnana Shakuntala is one of his noteworthy dramas.
  • Sudraka’s Mricchakatika and Vishakadatta’s Mudrarakshasa are the other literary works of this period.
  • Dhanwantari was a famous scholar in the field of medicine. He is the father of Indian Medicine. His chief contribution to the medical field has been the Ayurvedic dictionary.
  • Charaka was a medical scientist. His major contribution to the field of medicine has been the Charaka Samhita.
  • Sushruta was a surgeon. He was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.
  • Aryabhata was a famous astronomer and mathematician. His contribution to Astronomy and Mathematics has been highly significant.
  • The first Indian satellite have been named after Aryabhata. He is believed to have invented the zero. He was the first Indian to master algebra.
  • Varahamihira was a famous astronomer. He wrote a book on astronomy named Panchasiddhantika, which is considered the Bible of Astronomy.
  • Pushyabhuti is the founder of the Vardhana dynasty. Prabhakaravardhana and Harshavardhana are the prominent kings of the dynasty.
  • Buddha’s followers believe that ‘Nalanda’ was the name of Buddha in his previous birth. This is famous as an ancient university
  • The king’s rule was assisted by the council of ministers. The bureaucracy consisted of the Mahasandhivigraha (the negotiator), Mahabaladhikruta (military general), Bhogapati(tax official) and Doota

 

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 The Guptas And Vardhanas

 

Class 8 History KSEEB The Guptas And Vardhanas Exercises

Complete the following sentences by using suitable words in the blanks:

  1. The Guptas began their reign from the place of Prayaga.
  2. Chandragupta I was called the first historical person of the Guptas.
  3. One of the great dramas of Kalidasa is Abhijnana Shakuntala.
  4. Vishakadatta’s literary work is Mudrarakshasa.
  5. The literary work written by Sudraka is Mricchakatika.
  6. The founder of the Vardhana dynasty was Pushyabhuti.

Answer in brief the following questions:

Question 1. Write about Chandragupta II.
Answer: Chandragupta II expanded the kingdom of Samudragupta and brought stability.He defeated the Sakas and made Western India a part of the Gupta Empire. He developed relationships with many Indian royal families through marriage and became very. He earned the title of Vikramaditya. Chandragupta II’s reign is memorable more
for the encouragement given to literature and art, rather than for its battles.

Question 2. What were the reasons for the downfall of the Gupta Empire?
Answer: The Gupta Empire was subjected to continual attacks of the Huns. The Guptas did not have a fully equipped
large army. The vassals had become very powerful.

Question 3. Name the great scientists of the Gupta Age.
Answer: Varahamihira, Bhaskara, Aryabhata, Charaka, and Sushruta were the great scientists of the Gupta Age.

Question 4. How was the administration during the Vardhana rule?
Answer: The bureaucracy consisted of Kumar Amatyas.They held various positions. The administration was decentralized. The priests received many grants and they would be granted many villages.

KSEEB Class 8 History Solutions For The Guptas And Vardhanas Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The founder of the Gupta dynasty was

  1. Shri Gupta
  2. Chandra Gupta
  3. Samudra Gupta
  4. Padma Gupta

Answer: 1. Shri Gupta

Question 2. The king who earned the title of Vikramaditya was

  1. Shri Gupta
  2. Chandra Gupta
  3. Samudra Gupta
  4. Chandra Gupta II

Answer: 4. Chandra Gupta II

Question 3.The first Indian to explain the process of surgery was

  1. Dhanwantari
  2. Charaka
  3. Sushruta
  4. Aryabhata

Answer: 3. Sushruta

Question 4. The first Indian satellite have been named after

  1. Aryabhata
  2. Varahamihira
  3. Sushruta
  4. Dhanwantari

Answer: 1. Aryabhata

Question 5. The founder of the Vardhana dynasty was

  1. Pushyabhuti
  2. Prabhakaravardhana
  3. Harshavardhana
  4. Ayose

Answer: 1. Pushyabhuti

Question 6. The Mabasandhivigraha of Vardhana’s court was

  1. The negotiator
  2. The military general
  3. The tax official
  4. The prime minister

Answer: 1.  The  negotiator

Question 7. The Bhogapati of Vardhana’s court was

  1. The negotiator
  2. The military general
  3. The tax official
  4. The prime minister

Answer: 3. The tax official

Complete the following sentences by using suitable words in the blanks.

  1. V.A. Smith called the Gupta period as Golden Period.
  2. The Allahabad Prashant was written by Harissa
  3. Buddha’s followers believe that ‘Nalanda’ was the name of Buddha

1. Match the following words in column A with their descriptions in column ‘B’
A                                      B

Kalidasa                 Sushruta Samhita
Sudraka                 Charaka Samhita
Vishakadatta         Mricchakatika
Charaka                  Mudrarakshasa
Sushruta                Ritu Samhara

Answer: 
Kalidasa        – Ritu Samhara
Sudraka        – Mricchakatika
Vishakadatta – Mudrarakshasa
Charaka        – Charaka Samhita
Sushruta      – Sushruta Samhita

2. Match the following words in column A with their descriptions in column ‘B’
A                                      B

Dhanwantar          (1)An astronomer
Charaka                 (2)An Ayurvedic scientist
Sushruta                (3)A mathematician
Aryabhata             (4)A medical scientist
Varahamihira         (5)A surgeon
Answer:
Dhanwantar       –  An Ayurvedic scientist
Charaka             –  A medical scientist
Sushruta           – A surgeon
Aryabhata        – An astronomer
Varahamihira    – A mathematician

Answer in brief the following questions:

Question 1. What are the sources help us to know about Guptas?
Answer:
The following sources are useful to know about Gupta:

  • Pillar inscription of Allahabad.
  • Pillar inscription of Mehrauli.
  • Vishaka Dutta’s ‘Mudrarakshasa’ and ‘Devi Chandragupta’
  • Rajashekara’s ‘Poetics’.
  • Kalidasa’s literary works.
  • Kaumodi celebration of Vijjike.
  • The writing of Fahiyan and Itsing.

Question 2. What are the achievements of Samudra Gupta?
Answer:
Samudra Gupta controlled most parts of India :

  • He organized Aswamedhayaga which was the Vedic rituals and traditions
  • He was not just a conqueror, but a great poet and a lover of music too.
  • He introduced the gold coins which depict him playing on the veena.

Question 3. Write a short note on the Iron Pillar at Mehrauli.
Answer: The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli in Delhi near Qutb Minar is important. It is 23 feet and eight inches in height and weighs 6,000 kg. It is one of the finest examples of the technical skill of the time. It has not become rusty till now. That shows in those days Indians had sound Iron technology.

Question 4. What did Kalidasa discuss in Meghadoota?
Answer: Yaksha is exiled by King Kuber for having neglected his duties. In this situation, the yaksha stops a passing cloud and persuades it to carry a message of love to his wife who lives near Kailash Mountain. He describes the beautiful scenery on the route to his wife’s place

Question 5. Gupta’s economic system suffered. Why?
Answer: The trade that the Guptas had with the Westerners collapsed. Trade was limited to villages. The collapse of trade led to the decline of the city centers. Pataliputra got reduced to the size of a village.

Question 6. Gupta’s period witnessed great heights in the creation of various devotional and religious texts. Justify.
Answer: Gupta’s period witnessed great heights in the creation of various devotional and religious texts like the Puranas and the Dharmashastras.

The Guptas And Vardhanas Class 8 KSEEB Questions And Answers 

Question 7. What are the sources we have to know about Vardhanas?
Answer: Some copper inscriptions, Bana’s Harshacharita, and the Chinese traveler, Hiuen Tsang’s writings throw light upon the Vardhanas period.

Question 8. How did Harshavardhana overcome all the problems after the death of his father and brother?
Answer: When the king of Bengal Sashanka killed the king of Kanauj, Harsha captured Kanauj, and attacked the king of Bengal. Bengal and Magadha came under his rule.

Question 10. Nalanda was the home of great scholars. Justify.
Answer: Nagarjuna the Chief exponent of the middle path, and Dinnaga and Dharmapala were the other famous scholars who taught here. The Chinese traveler, Hiuen Tsang, visited this place and stayed for some time. He has given a detailed description of this place.

Question 11. Write about Chandragupta IT.
Answer: Chandragupta II expanded the kingdom of Samudragupta and brought stability. He defeated the Sakas and made Western India a part of the Gupta Empire. He developed relationships with many Indian royal families through marriage and became very influential. He earned the title of Vikramaditya. His reign is memorable more for the encouragement given to literature and art, rather than for its battles.

Question 12. What were the reasons for the downfall of the Gupta Empire?
Answer: The Gupta Empire was subjected to continual attacks of the Huns and, thus, soon declined. The Guptas did not have a fully equipped large army. The king’s vassals would fulfill the requirements during times

Question 13. How was the administration during the Vardhana rule?
Answer: The king’s rule was assisted by the council of ministers. The bureaucracy consisted of the Mahasandhivigraha (the negotiator), Mahabaladhikruta (military general), Bhogapati(tax official), and Doota. The kingdom had been divided into provinces. Land tax was the major source of income for the kingdom. Feudatory chiefs paid tribute to the king. The king gave them land grants and in return, got the help of their armies. When the king became weak, the feudatory chiefs became independent.

Question 14. What was the condition of India after Maurya and Kushanas?
Answer: After Maurya and Kushanas, the empire of the Guptas arose. After the collapse of the Maurya empire, northern India was ruled by ‘Kushanas’ and southern India was ruled by ‘Shathavahanas’. Both empires ended by the mid-third century C.E. Guptas were the feudatory rulers of Kushanas. They were ruling in the present Uttar Pradesh and established the base for a vast empire after the decline of Kushanas. Their rule kept north India united from 335C.E. to 455 C.E.

Question 15. Mention the literary works of Kalidasa.
Answer: The famous Sanskrit poet and dramatist, Kalidasa, belonged to this age. Meghadoota, Raghuvamsha, Kumarasambhava, and Ritu Samhara are his poems. Abhijnana Shakuntala is one of his noteworthy dramas.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 6 Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 History Chapter 6 Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism Points To Remember

Jainism and Buddhism are the two important religions that emerged during 6th century B.C.E. in the mid-region of the river Ganga plan buddha and Mahaveera preached peace, non-violence, tolerance, and human values which are the essence of plural cultures. The first two Varnas, Brahmin and Kshatriya were there, and below them were Vysya and Shudra. Though the Vyshyas, who were engaged in animal husbandry and business, were also called ‘twice born’ (Dvija), still certain prohibitions were on them.

  • Women along with Shudhras were considered as profane.
  • Since both Jainism and Buddhism rejected animal sacrifice and advocated non-violence a new hope became visible to people.
  • The Visayas who were placed in third place in the Varna system commanded no respect from the society.
  • The ‘Janapadas’ ca ‘Mahajanapadas’ in the river Ganga plains were getting tensioned into kingships.
  • Instead of Sanskrit Buddha and Mahaveera preached to the people in their own languages ‘Pali’and ‘Prakrith’ they offered a new path to the people by rejecting the Vedic religion.
  • Rishabha was the first Tirthankara whereas Parswanatha was the 23 Tirthankara.
  • The four principles preached by Parswanatha, were Non-violence, Truth, Astheya (not to steal), and Aparigraha (not to own property)The fifth principle of Brahmacharya was taught by VardhamanaHe was the 24th Tirthankara
  • Vardhamana was born in Kundala grama in Vaishali, one of the republics is father was Siddhartha, the king of the Gnatrika tribe his mother was Trishaladevi, the princess of the Republic of Licchavi.
  • Vardhamana controlled his senses and achieved power over comfort and pain due to this achievement, he came to be known as ‘Mahaveer’ and became a ‘Jina’.
  • A Jina was one who had overcome his senses and become victoriousThus his followers came to be called Jains.
  • Mahaveer taught five vows and three principles of behavior later are called Triratnas.
  • The 5 vows are as follows:
    1. Non-violence
    2. Truth
    3. Astheya
    4. Aparigraha
    5. Brahmacharya
  • The Triratna are as follows :
    1. Samyakgyan
    2. Samyakdarshan
    3. Samyakcharitra
  • Purification is possible through meditation, fasting, punishment of the body, and thereby, destruction of the body this process is known as sallekhana.
  • The two important sects among Jains are called Swethambars and DigambarsThose saints and their followers who wear white clothes are called Swethambars, whereas those saints and their followers who do not wear any clothes are called Digambars.
  • Siddartha who later became known as Gautam Buddha was born in the 6mcentury B.C.E
  • Attaining enlightenment, he became BuddhaAfter becoming Buddha, the ‘Enlightened One, he first went to Sarnath near BanarasThere, in the deer park, he gave his first sermon.
  • Buddha preached the Eight Fold Path for eliminating desires. This is called the Middle Path.
  • The Eight Fold Paths are: Right –
    1. Action
    2. Speech
    3. Vision
    4. Livelihood
    5. Effort
    6. Recollection
    7. Resolve
    8. Thought.
  • Buddha gave his messages in Prakrit, the language of the common man, and related them to various aspects of their tradition.
  • Buddha’s glorious life of selfless service came to an end at KushinagarThis has been called ‘Mahapari nirvana’.
  • In 1956, inspired by Buddha’s teachings, India’s prominent social philosopher and architect of the constitution, Baba Saheb DrB.R. Ambedkar embraced Buddhism.
  • The Macedonian king Alexander won over the Greek city-states and captured Persia.
  • When Alexander accepted the invitation of Ambhi, the king of Taxila, and came to India, it was Paurava that he had to confrontPaurava was also called Porus.
  • The arrival of the Greeks influenced North Indian art and science proof of this influence can be found in the famous art form known as Gandhara art which existed at that time.

 

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 6 Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism

 

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism Exercises

Complete the following sentences by using suitable words in the blanks:

  1. The first Jain Tirthankara was Rishabha
  2. Vardhamana was born at Kundala grama
  3. Mahaveera attained enlightenment in his 42nd year
  4. Mahaveera attained Nirvana at Pavapuri in his 72nd year.
  5. The original name of Gautama Buddha was Siddartha
  6. Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath.
  7. The first sermon of Buddha is called Dharma Chakra Pravarthana.

Class 8 History KSEEB Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism Notes 

Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism Answer the following brief

Question 1. Write in detail about Mahaveera’s life.
Answer: Vardhamana was born in Kundala grama in Vaishali, one of the republics is father was Siddhartha, the king of the Gnatrika tribe his mother was Trishaladevi, the princess of the Republic of Licchavi.At the age of 30 Vardhamana set out in search of truth and renounced his family and house wandered for 12 years in this quest and meditated and punished his body by fasting at the age of 42, he achieved enlightenment (Kaivalya)Vardhamana controlled his senses and achieved power over comfort and pain due to this achievement.

He came to be known as “Mahaveer’ and became a ‘Jina’A Jina was one who had overcome his senses and become victoriousThus his followers came to be called JainsMahaveera spent thirty years, i.e., the rest of his life preaching his knowledge to the people around the Ganga and Yamuna rivers. He traveled towards Western India preaching his thoughts attained nirvana in his 72nayear in Pavapuri of Bihar

Question 2. What are the Triratna’s?
Answer: Mahaveer taught five vows and three principles of behaviors later are called Triratnas.
The 5 vows are as follows:
1. Non-violence
2. Truth
3. Astheya
4. Aparigraha
5. Brahmacharya
The Triratna are as follows:
1. Samyakgyan
2. Samyakdarshan
3. Samyakcharitra

Question 3. Name the sects among the Jains.
Answer: The two important sects among Jains are Swethambars and Digambar.Those saints and their followers who wear white
clothes are called Swethambars, Those saints and their followers who do not wear any clothes are called Digambars.

Question 4. What is the middle path?
Answer: Buddha preached the Eight Fold Path for eliminating desires. This is called the Middle Path.
The Eight Fold Paths are:
Right-

1. Action
2. Speech
3. Vision
4. Livelihood.
5. Effort
6. Recollection
7. Resolve
8. Thought.

Question 5. Who were the people influenced by the new religion?
Answer: Baba Saheb DrB.R.Ambedkar, Fa Hien, It Sing and Hiuen Tsang

Question 6.Write a note on the Tripitikas.
Answer: After Buddha’s death, his followers collected his teachings and tradition in the form of TripitakasThese are Vinaya, Dhamma and Abhidhamma pikas

KSEEB Class 8 History Solutions For Rise of Jainism And Buddhism 

Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The languages which were preached the people instead of Sanskrit were
1)‘Pali’ and ‘Prakrith’
2)Kharoshti and ‘Prakrith’
3)‘Pali’ and Kharoshti
4)Ardhamagadi and Kharoshti
Answer: 1) ‘Pali’ and ‘Prakrith’

Question 2. The first Tirthankara was
1) Rishabha
2) Parswanatha
3)Mahaveera
4)Aswasena
Answer: 1) Rishabha

Question 3. The 23 Tirthankara was
1)Rishabha
2)Parswanatha
3)Vardhamana
4)Aswasena
Answer: 2) Parswanatha

Question 4. The 24 Tirthankara was
1)Rishabha
2) Parswanatha
3) Vardhamana
4)Aswasena
Answer: 3) Vardhamana

Question 5The son of Siddhartha, the king of the Gnatrika tribe was
1)Rishabha
2)Parswanatha
3)Vardhamana
4)Aswasena
Answer: 3) Vardhamana

Question 6. A Jina was one who had overcome his
1)Senses and become victorious
2)Problems and becoming victorious
3)Senses and become God
4)Foresightedness and sads
Answer: 1) Senses and become victorious

Question 7. Mahaveera attained nirvana in his 72nd year in Pavapuri of
1)West Bengal
2)Bihar
3)Orissa
4)Uttar Pradesh
Answer: 2) Bihar

Question 8. The two important sects among Jains are called an ae :
1)Swethambars and Digambars
2)Hinayana and Digambars
3)Swethambars and Mahayana
4)Vajrayana and Hinayana
Answer: 1) Swethambars and Digambar

Question 9. The childhood name of Gautama Buddha was :
1)Siddartha
2)Shuddodana
3)Vardhamana
4)Rahul
Answer: 1) Siddartha

Question 10. Which one among the following is not a Pitaka?
1)Vinaya
2)Dhamma
3)Abhidhamma
4)Sutta
Answer: 2) Dhamma

Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism Complete the following sentences by using suitable words in the blanks:

  1. The Jains believed in the existence of 24 Tirthankaras.
  2. The fifth principle of Brahmacharya was taught by Brahmacharya
  3. Vardhamana was born in Kundala grama in Vaishali
  4. The mother of Vardhamana was Trishaladevi
  5. Hinayana, Mahayana and Vajrayana are the sects of Buddhism

Rise of Jainism And Buddhism Class 8 KSEEB Questions And Answers 

Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism Answer the following questions in a sentence each:

Question 1. Name the cities which were in Bihar during the birth of new religions.
Answer: Koushambi, Kushinagar, Varanasi and Vaishali, Rajagruha, Chiranda cities in Bihar came into prominence Artisans and business people came and settled in these cities

Question 2. Why was Vardhamana known as Mahaveer?
Answer: At the age of 42, he achieved enlightenment (Kaivalya)Vardhamana controlled his senses and achieved power over comfort and pain due to this achievement, he came to be known as Mahaveer

Question 3. Define sallekhana.
Answer: Purification is possible through meditation, fasting, punishment of the body, and thereby, destruction of the body. This process is known as sallekhana

Question 4. What is Dharma Chakra Pravarthana?
Answer: Buddha, the ‘Enlightened One’, first went to Sarnath near BanarasThere, in the deer park, he gave his first sermon. This has been called Dharma Chakra Pravarthana.

Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism Answer the following questions in four sentences each:

Question 1. Which are the Eight ye Paths of Gautama Buddha.
Answer:
The Eight Fold Paths are :
Right –
1. Action
2. Speech
3. Vision
4. Livelihood
5. Effort
6. Recollection
7. Resolve
8. Thought.

Question 2. How did Gouthama Buddha popularize Buddhism?
Answer: Buddha inspired wealthy merchants, artisans, and common people by the new teachings. Buddha preached various aspects of the tradition of a common man in Prakrit. Buddhism took on new role of transforming the lives of people. Buddha and his followers visited Kosala, Magadha to spread his messages. They walked from one city to are and devoted their lives for others.

Question 3. Mention the four principles preached by Parswanatha
Answer:
The four principles preached by Parswanatha were :
1. Non-violence
2. Truth
3. Astheya (not to steal)
4. Aparigraha (not to own property)

Question 4. What were the common teachings of Buddha and Mahaveera?
Answer: The religions of Buddha and Mahaveera identified desire as the main reason for all human hardships. They gave a call to overcome them. They supported simple living without
the accumulation of too much wealth. They rejected luxurious life and advocated peaceful and moral family life. Instead of Sanskrit, they preached to the people in their own languages ‘Pali’ and ‘Prakrith’ They offered a new path to the people by rejecting the Vedic religion.

Question 5. Why did Buddha and Mahaveera start new religions in India?
Answer: Indian society was divided on the basis of Varnas. The Shudras were considered as the labor class Women along with Shudhras were considered as profane The agricultural practices and rise in food production. The oxen were sacrificed during religious rituals which brought down their number

Question 6. Animal scarifies led to the birth of new religions justify.
Answer: In order to improve food production, the use of oxen were inevitable. The oxen were sacrificed during religious rituals which brought down their number. In this background, since both Jainism and Buddhism rejected animal sacrifice and advocated non-violence a new hope became visible to people.

Question 7. How did kingship emerge in Janapadas?
Answer: The ‘Janapadas’ and ‘Mahajanapadas’ in the river Ganga plains were getting transformed into kingships. The new kings from these ‘janapada’ communities were looking for a way out to break the hegemony of the Vedic religion. They accepted the philosophy of Buddha and Mahaveera who preached the futility of war and supported non-violence.

Explanation Of Rise Of Jainism And Buddhism In KSEEB History 

Question 8. How did Vardhamana Mahaveera attain enlightenment?
Answer: At the age of 30 Vardhamana set out in search of truth and renounced his family and house. He wandered for 12 years in this quest and meditated. He punished his body by fasting at the age of 42, he achieved enlightenment (Kaivalya)Vardhamana controlled his senses and achieved power over comfort and pain due to this achievement, he came to be known as“Mahaveer’ and became a ‘Jina’A Jina was one who had overcome his senses and become victoriousThus his followers came to be called Jains.

Question 9. What are the 5 vows of Jainism?
Answer:
The 5 vows are as follows:
1. Non-violence
2. Truth
3. Astheya
4. Aparigraha
5. Brahmacharya

Question 10.Mention the triratnas of Jainism.
Answer:
The Triratna are as follows :
1. Samyakgyan
2. Samyakdarshan
3. Samyakcharitra

Question 11. Jainism places God at a lower level than Jina. Why?
Answer: Jainism does not reject the existence of God completely, yet it advocates atheism denies the role of God in the daily affairs of people, and places God at a lower level than Jina.

Question 12. The concept of Karma is a very important aspect of Jainism. Why?
Answer: The concept of Karma is a very important aspect of JainismAccording to this, a human being can attain salvation only through good and holy acts. To attain enlightenment, the soul had to achieve freedom from the bondage of the body.

Question 13. Differentiate between Swethambars and Digambar.
Answer: Those saints and their followers who wear white clothes are called Swethambars, whereas those saints and their followers who do not wear any clothes are called Digambars.

Question 14. Why did Jains migrate to the south and settled down at Shravanabelagola?
Answer: Very early, a group of Jains migrated to the South due to the famine in Bihar, and settled down at Shravanabelagola.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 5 Greek, Roman And American Civilizations

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 History Chapter 5 Greek, Roman, And American Civilizations Points To Remember

The ancient Greek was called as Hellens because their forefather was Hellens this name had come. The city-states are called as ‘Polis’ in the Greek language. The Greek language, Homer’s epic poetry, Olympic Games and Greek Gods were able to knit Greeks together.

  • Athens is the capital of Attica state. Athens was an ideal democratic city-state in Greece.
  • The age of Pericles is called as the Golden Age of Athens
  • Athens was called as ‘The School of Hellas’ by Pericles due its contribution to art, literature, science, philosophy and other fields of knowledge flourished.
  • Athens and Sparta had successfully encountered the invasion of Persian King Darius and defeated the Persian forces in the marathon battle.
  • Athens state organized a federation of city-states called the “Confederacy of Delos’, that took the shape of an empire.
  • Zeus is the most important God. Here is his wife. Apart from them, Greeks worshipped Apollo, Aphrodite, Ares, and other gods.
  • Socrates was the teacher of Plato, and Plato was the teacher of Aristotle. Alexander, the King of Macedonia, was the illustrious student of Aristotle.
  • Myron has sculpted ‘discuss throwing athlete’s sculpture called ‘Diskobolos’.
  • Greek sculptors sculpted realistic human shapes.
  • Polygnatus was the most famous painter of Greece.
  • Pythagoras and Thales were the two stalwarts in mathematics.
  • Democritus who presented the Atom theory vaguely and Anaximander who advocated the evolution of humans from fish are the important scientists.
  • Hippocrates called as the ‘father of Medicine’ had mastered the method of providing medicines scientifically to human diseases is from Greece.
  • The Olympics Games stand unique among these regular sports events. It started 2759 years back in Olympia.
  • Greeks won the marathon battle against Persians 2500 years back.
  • There are many anecdotes depicting Socrates’s intellectuality
  • Socrates was the philosopher who taught the Western world to think logically. Socrates was known for intellectuality and rationality.
  • Socrates told his students, “I’m not afraid of death, but I’m afraid to go against religion and truth”. On the execution, a jail attendant brought him a cup of poison. Socrates drank the poison and left his earthly abode.
  • Plato was the architect of the idea of the ‘Ideal Republic’. He was disturbed by the life around him when the city of Athens was in danger.
  • Plato was a staunch supporter of education and started a school named ‘The Academy’ in Athens. This became famous as the first University of Europe.
  • Italy is a peninsula spreading down into the Mediterranean Sea towards the south of Europe.
  • The ancient people of Rome were called as ‘Patricians’.
  • The word Patrician originates from the Latin word ‘Pater’ which means ‘father.’ Romans believed Romulus and Remus as their forefathers.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 5 Greek, Roman And American Civilizations

  • The Romans’ had ‘Assembly’ and a ‘Senate’, as two political advisory institutions.
  • There were two classes in Roman society the Patricians and the Plebians.
  • A desire for expansion exposed the Romans into newer conflicts, hence they battled with Carthage, a coastal town in North Africa.
  • Romans that had immersed themselves in their pride of status used the slaves as gladiators.
  • The wrestlers of ancient Rome were called Gladiators. There were both expert and amateur wrestlers among them.
  • The place where gladiators fought was called as ‘Amphitheatre’ and ‘Colosseum’. Criminals, slaves, and prisoners of war who had lost their citizenship rights were taken as gladiators.
  • Julius Caesar defeated and killed his rival, Pompey. Caesar won the love of Cleopatra, the Queen of Egypt.
  • Augustus’s previous name was Octavius and formed the Second Triumvirate with Mark Antony and Lepidus.
  • Augustus assumed the title of ‘Imperator’ and consolidated all power with himself and ruled.
  • Caesar is called as the ‘Golden Period’ of Rome. Jesus Christ lived during his period.
  • Pax Romana means the peaceful period of Rome. Vergil is Rome’s greatest poet. Aeneid was his epic poetry.
  • Cicero, Seneca, and Emperor Markus Aurelius advocated Stoicism.
  • Maya, Aztecs, and Inca are the ancient Columbian civilizations of America.
  • The ancient Columbian civilizations of America are distinct and special like the civilizations of the old world like the Egyptian, Mesopotamian and Chinese civilizations.
  • The American-Indian aborigines of the Yucatan area of Mexico are called the Mayas.
  • The settlements of the Mayas included huge ceremonial centers. Around a large site named Tikal, pyramids, ‘palaces’, and courtyards have been found all around stretching one square mile.
  • Texcoco isa lake in Mexico. The Aztecs built their city on an island in this lake.
  • The Aztec oral literature has been translated by Spanish historians and Social scientists. These have been called has the Indian codices.
  • The small islands around the island city had been converted into agricultural land. These were called ‘Chinampas’.
  • The Inca Empire which flourished during the 15 and 16 centuries spread in the areas of Peru, Ecuador, Chile, and Argentina.
  • The palace on the island in Lake Titicaca and the Moon Temple are two famous buildings of the Incas.
  • The Sun God was the most important deity of the Incas. They believed that God Veerakocha was responsible for all creation.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

Greek, Roman, And American Civilizations Exercises

Complete the following sentences by using suitable words in the blanks:

  1. The epics written by Homer are the Illiad and Odyssey
  2. The Greeks referred to dictators as an oligarchy.
  3. The one who laid the foundation for the study of medicine is Hippocrates
  4. The first to have analyzed history were the Greeks.
  5. ‘Princep’ means First Person
  6. The language of the Romans in Latin
  7. The Stone Sculptures of the Mayan Civilization are called Steles
  8. Texcoco is a lake in Mexico.
  9. The leader of the Incas was Tupac
  10. The ruling deity of the Incas was The Sun God

Class 8 History KSEEB Greek, Roman, And American Civilizations Notes 

Answer in brief the following questions:

Question 1. Explain the contributions of Homer to Greek literature.
Answer: Homer wrote two great epics ‘Iliad’ and ‘The odyssey’ on contemporary Greeks and their socio-religious system. Iliad narrates the victory of the Greeks over Troy city and the Odyssey narrates the journey and adventures of the Greek hero Odysseus while coming back home from the victorious battle of Troy

Question 2. Name the Greek city-states.
Answer: Athens and Sparta were the two important city-states of Greece.

Question 3. Describe the features of the Roman republic.
Answer: The Romans’ had an ‘Assembly’ and a ‘Senate’, as two political advisory institutions. The Assembly was made up of all middle-aged men, whereas the Senate was an elite institution that was very influential. The Senate had the power to reject the proposals of the Assembly and the king. In the 6m century B.C.E., the monarchy was abolished and a republic was established. Around 3,a century B.C.E. the administration of the whole of Italy came under the republican states. Even under the Roman republic, the Senate and the Assembly continued as advisory institutions. The members of these institutions headed the armies during wars. They enforced the law and dispensed justice.

Question 4. Which are the civilizations of ancient Columbia?
Answer: Maya, Aztecs,s and Inca are the ancient Columbian civilizations of America.

Question 5. Who are the ‘Mayas’?
Answer: The American-Indian aborigines of the Yucutan area of Mexico are called the Mayas.

Question 6. How were the Aztec’s worshippers of Nature?
Answer: The Aztecs were worshippers of Nature. They tried to please God in many ways, one of them was human sacrifice. As the Aztec empire grew, they sacrificed more and more human beings to please the gods. It is believed that when the temple pyramid of Tenochtitlan was dedicated, around 20,000 prisoners were sacrificed.

Greek, Roman, And American Civilizations Additional Questions And Answers

Greek Civilization

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The capital of Attica state was
1)Athens
2)Sparta
3)Nunich
4)Dorith
Answer: 1) Athens

Question 2. A person who enforced inhuman laws in Athens was
1)Julius Ceaser
2)Solana
3)Augustus Ceaser
4)Draco
Answer: 4) Draco

Question 3. Greeks believed that these Gods resided on the
1)Appalachian mountain
2)Helen mountain
3)Olympus mountain
4)Himalayan mountain
Answer: 3) Olympus mountain

KSEEB Class 8 History Solutions For Greek, Roman, And American Civilizations 

Question 4. The most important God of the Greeks is
1)Zeus
2)Hera
3)Aphrodite
4)Apollo
Answer: 1) Zeus

Question 5. The patron goddess of Athens city is
1)Apollo
2)Hera
3)Aphrodite
4)Athena
Answer: 4) Athena

Fill in the blanks with a suitable answer:

  1. Greece is a peninsula in the Mediterranean Sea.
  2. The Aegean Sea separates Greece from Asia Minor
  3. The city-states are called as ‘Polis’ in the Greek language.
  4. The rich were electing an administrator named Archon.’
  5. The age of Pericles is called as the Golden Age of Athens.
  6. Athens was called as ‘The School of Hellas’ by Pericles .
  7. The wife of God Zeus is Hera
  8. Zeus’s temple is located at Olympia
  9. Olympic Games held at Olympia
  10. A learning institution named ey was founded by Plato
  11. Aristotle founded a learning centre by name Lyceum
  12. A Sculptor named Myron has Salles discuss a throwing athlete’s sculpture called Diskobolos

Answer the following questions in a sentence each:

Question 1. Name the Greek Philosophers.
Answer: Socrates and his disciple Plato were Greek philosophers.

Question 2. The ancient Greek was called as Hellens. Why?
Answer: The Greeks belong to the Indo-European race. The ancient Greek was called as Hellens. Because their forefather was Hellen this name had come. Later, the Italians called Hellenes as the Greeks.

Question 3. What is the ‘Confederacy of Delos’?
Answer: Athens state organized a federation of city-states called the ‘Confederacy of Delos’, which took the shape of an empire.

Question 4. Who wrote two great epics Iliad and the odyssey?
Answer: Homer wrote two great epics the Iliad and the odyssey

Question 5. Who is called as the ‘father of Medicine’?
Answer: Hippocrates, called as the ‘father of Medicine’had mastered the method of providing medicines scientifically to human diseases is from Greece

Question 6. Why did Athens and Sparta fight each other?
Answer: Athens state organized a federation of city-states called the ‘Confederacy of Delos’ that took the shape of an empire. This stimulated enmity between Athens and Sparta. As a result, two Peloponnesian wars were fought against Py these two states.

Greek, Roman And American Civilizations Class 8 KSEEB Questions And Answers 

Answer the following questions in four sentences each:

Question 1. The age of Pericles is called as the Golden Age of Athens. Why?
Answer: During the time of Pericles, art, literature, science, philosophy and other fields of knowledge flourished. As a result of this Athens was called as ‘The School of Hellas’ by Pericles. Philosophers like Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle belonged to Athens.

Question 2. How did Sparta’s city-state get a strong military strength?
Answer: Sparta, the city-state of the Darien tribe, was the military state of Greek. Boys who attained the age of seven were separated from their families and were given rigorous military training. They were recruited to the military after twelve years of training. Due to this, Sparta city-state had a strong military strength

Question 3. The Greeks had a great tradition of teaching philosophers. Justify.
Answer: The Greeks had a great tradition of teacher philosophers. Socrates was the teacher of Plato, and Plato was the teacher of Aristotle. Alexander, the King of Macedonia, was the illustrious student of Aristotle.

Question 4. Explain the contribution of Greeks to the field of Literature.
Answer: Homer, the blind poet, wrote two great epics‘Tliad’ and ‘Odyssey’.Herodotus and Thucydides are important historians.Herodotus is called the father of history. Aeschylus, Sophocles, and Euripides are important playwrights. Sophocles is the most renowned playwright who wrote the plays Oedipus the King and Antigone.

Question 5. Explain the contribution of Greeks to field of Art and Architecture.
Answer: Greeks sang using a string instrument called ‘Lyre’.Greeks excelled in music, theatre and dancing Greeks made tremendous achievements in the field of architecture, sculpture, and painting. Pericles built the Parthenon temple using white marble which is a fine example of beautiful architecture. Myron has sculpted ‘discuss throwing athlete’s sculpture called ‘Diskobolos’.Greek sculptors sculpted realistic human shapes. Polygnatus was the most famous painter of that period

Question 6. Explain the contribution of Greeks to field of Medicine.
Answer: Democritus who presented the Atom theory vaguely and Anaximander who advocated the evolution of humans from fish are the important scientists. Hippocrates called as the ‘father of Medicine’had mastered the method of providing medicines scientifically to human diseases is from Greece.

Question 7. Write a short note on Olympic Games.
Answer: The Olympic Games began in Greece in 776 BCE. The Games, which were held once every four years, were also used for the measurement of time. They used to be arranged in Olympia in the Illis area as part of the Olympic festival. This festival was celebrated in honor of the peace pact between the Illis and Pisa city-states. In the beginning, there were only running races. This race over 200 meters was called ‘stadium’. Thus the term of measurement of distance was ‘stadia’.An olive branch used to be placed on the head of the winner in the race. The Olympic Games were held for more than a thousand years.

Greek, Roman, And American Civilizations Roman Civilization

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The ancient people of Rome were called as
1)Patricians
2)Roman
3)Romulus
4)Remus
Answer: 1) Patricians

Question 2. The word Patrician originates from the Latin word ‘Pater’ which means
1)Mother
2)Father
3)Forefather
4)Foremother
Answer: 2) Father

Question 3. The war which was fought between the Romans and the Carthegens was
1)Crimean wars
2)Seven-Year Wars
3)Punic Wars
4)War of Roses
Answer: 3) Punic Wars

Question 4. The king who won the love of Cleopatra was
1)Pompey
2)Seven Year wars
3)Julius Caesar
4)War of Roses
Answer: 2) Augustus Caesar

Question 5. The encyclopedia named ‘Natural History’ was prepared by a
1)Pliny the Elder
2)Strabo
3)Ptolemy
4)Galen
Answer: 1) Pliny the Elder

Greek, Roman And American Civilizations Fill in the blanks with a suitable answer:

  1. Romeison the banks ofriver Tiber
  2. The places where gladiators fought were called as ‘Amphitheatre’ and ‘Colosseum’.
  3. Augustus assumed the title of ‘Imperator’.
  4. Pax Romana means a peaceful period of Rome.
  5. Ovid has documented the mystical stories of the Greeks in his book Metamorphoses
  6. The king who has edited the Galic battles in seven volumes was Julius Caesar
  7. The largest building of Rome with the biggest dome was Pantheon

Explanation Of Greek, Roman, And American Civilizations KSEEB History 

Answer the following questions in a sentence each:

Question 1. Romans battled with Carthage, a coastal town in North Africa. Why?
Answer: A desire for expansion exposed the Romans to newer conflicts. Hence they battled with Carthage, a coastal town in North Africa.

Question 2. Where the Gladiators?
Answer: The Romans who had immersed themselves in their pride of status used the slaves as gladiators.

Question 3. Who is known as the Socrates of the West?
Answer: Cato is known as the Socrates of the West

Answer the following questions in four sentences each:

Question 1. How were the political arrangements of the Romans?
Answer: Rome was under the rule of a monarchy. The Romans’ had ‘Assembly’ and a ‘Senate’, as two political advisory institutions. Monarchy was abolished and a republic was established. The Senate had the power to reject the proposals of the Assembly and the king. Italy came under the republican states. Even under the Roman republic, the Senate and the Assembly continued as advisory institutions. The members of these institutions headed the armies during wars. They enforced the law and dispensed justice.

Question 2. Differentiate between Roman’s ‘Assembly’ and ‘Senate’?
Answer: The Assembly was made up of all middle-aged men, whereas the Senate was an elite institution that was very influential.

Question 3. Differentiate between the Patricians and the Plebeians.
Answer: The Patricians were the elite in society. The Patricians were landowners and formed the upper class. The Patricians controlled the Senate. The Plebeians were the common people. The Plebeians were ordinary workers, small landowners, artisans, small traders, and soldiers. The Plebeians’ rights were limited. The Plebeians were meant to pay taxes and to undergo punishment.

Question 4. Explain the condition of slaves under Roman rule.
Answer: The slaves did not have the right of citizenship. They were the private property of their owners. Slaves were also sold. There were instances when the slaves secured their freedom under special conditions. The Romans who had immersed themselves in their pride of status used the slaves as gladiators. They were amused at the combat of the gladiators from the amphitheater. A majority of the slaves and prisoners lost their lives in such games

Question 5. What are the achievements of Augusts Caesar?
Answer: Augustus’s previous name was Octavius. He formed the Second Triumvirate with Mark Antony and Lepidus. He chased away Lepidus and shared the kingdom with Antony. He defeated Antony as he sided with Cleopatra. He assumed the title of ‘Imperator’.He consolidated all power with himself and tried. The period of Augustus Caesar is called a as the ‘Golden Period’ of Rome ‘Pax Romana’ which peaceful period of Rome that was established.

Question 6. What are the achievements of Julius Caesar?
Answer: Julius Caesar won France (Gal) and England. He defeated and killed his rival Pompey. He won the love of Cleopatra, the Queen of Egypt. He declared himself as the dictator of Rome” and weakened the republic system of Rome. He developed agriculture, industry, and commerce. He implemented the Julian calendar also.

Question 7. Explain the contribution of Romans for Science.
Answer: Romans had a deep knowledge in mathematics“and Science. Delivering human babies through Caesarean operation (C-section operation), and vision correctional eye operations were done. Galen was a famous doctor of the Roman period.

KSEEB Class 8 History Chapter 5 Important Questions 

Greek, Roman, And American Civilizations The American Civilizations

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The American-Indian aborigines of the Yucatan area of Mexico are called
1)The Mayas
2)The Aztecs
3)The Incans
4)The Red Indians
Answer: 1) The Mayas

Question 2. The most advanced among the ancient American Indians were
1)The Incans.
2)The Aztecs
3)The Mayas
4)The Red Indians
Answer: 3) The Mayas

Question 3. Texcoco is a lake in
1)Canada
2)Mexico
3)Cuba
4)United States of America
Answer: 2) Mexico

Question 4. Tenochtitlan was a
1)Lake
2)River
3)City
4)Monument
Answer: 3) City

Question 5. The language which was spoken in Mexico is
1)Nahua
2)English
3)Mexica
4)Spanish
Answer: 1) Nahua

Greek, Roman And American Civilizations Fill in the blanks with a suitable answer:

  1. The language of the Mayas is called Yucatec
  2. The settlements of the Mayas included huge ceremonial centers.
  3. The Spanish army attacked on the Aztecs under the leadership of Hernando Cortez
  4. The prominent leader of the Incans was Tupae

Greek, Roman And American Civilizations Answer the following questions in a sentence each:

Question 1.Whatwas called ‘Chinampas’?
Answer: The small islands around the island city had been converted into agricultural land. These were called ‘Chinampas’

Question 2.Whatare called Olmec?
Answer: The commemorative idols depict leaders and kings. These are called Olmec.

Question 3. What are Steles?
Answer: The depictions of gods, priests, important leaders in administration and hieroglyphic writing would be carved on these pillars. Such stone figures are called Steles.

Question 4. Who is called Tenochca?
Answer: The Aztecs built their city on an island in Texcoco Lake called Tenochca

Question 5. Whom did the Mayans treat as God?
Answer: Mayans treated Rain, Soil, Wind, Sun, Moon, and Maize themselves as their gods.

Detailed Notes On Greek, Roman And American Civilizations KSEEB 

Greek, Roman And American Civilizations Answer the following questions in four sentences each:

Question 1. Why did the Europeans misunderstand Americans as Indians?
Answer: They represent the culture of the Indian aborigines of America. The countries of Medieval Europe discovered new continents in their attempts to find out a new sea-route to India. America and Australia thus discovered were misunderstood as India and their inhabitants were called Indians. Thus, the aborigines of America and Australia came to be called Indians.

Question 2. What are the physical features of the Mayas?
Answer: The Mayas were short, brown-complexioned, long-haired, and generally round-headed people.

Question 3. What was used to predict the dates of eclipses?
Answer: The Dresden Codex was used to predict the
dates of eclipses

Question 4. Explain the Indian codices.
Answer: The Aztec oral literature has been translated by Spanish historians and Social scientists. These have been called has the Indian codices.

Question 5. How was the trade organized by the Aztecs?
Answer: Trade connected Tenochtitlan with far-off places of the empire. Soldiers gave protection to the traders. Since there were no animals to carry loads, manual laborers were employed as beasts of burden to carry them. They used boats to sail in the canals while bringing the harvest from nearby farms. Their main crops were pulses, grains, pepper, fruit juices, tomato, tobacco, and cotton. Trade was carried on by barter.

Question 6. Explain the extension of the Inca Empire.
Answer: The Inca empire which flourished during the 15th and 16mcenturies spread in the areas of Peru, Ecuador, Chile, and Argentina.

Question 7. How was land shared by the Incans?
Answer: The land was divided into three parts. One part of the waste served for families. The other two parts were meant for the Sun God and the king respectively.

Question 8. Explain the religious practices of the Incans.
Answer: The Sun God was the most important deity of the Incas. They believed that God Veerakocha was responsible for all creation. According to them, the Sun God was the link between the people and God Veerakocha. This was the reason that there was a Sun Temple in all Inca centers. They worshipped objects of nature like the Moon, the Stars, and lightning, and prayed to other natural phenomena.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Why Dowe Fall Ill

Why Do We Fall Ill KSEEB Class 9 Chapter 13 Important Concepts

Health and diseases, infectious and non-infectious disease, the disease caused by microbes and their prevention principles of treatment and principles of prevention

Health: A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, and not merely an absence of disease, or infirmity-WHO
Disease: Any physical or functional change from the normal state that causes discomfort or impairs the health of the living organism.
Acute diseases: The diseases which last for only very short periods of time.
Chronic diseases: The diseases last for long time, even as much as a lifetime.
Example: AIDS
Causes of diseases: Infection by microorganisms, malfunctioning of body organs, deficiency of one or more nutrients, genetic factors, polluted environment.
Infectious disease: The disease which are caused immediately because of microbes are called infectious diseases.
Example: Dengue fever.
Non-infectious disease: The disease that are not caused by infectious agents like microbes and which do not spread in the community are called non-infectious diseases.
Example: Cancers.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Science 

Class 9 Social ScienceClass 9 ScienceClass 9 Maths

 

 

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Why Dowe Fall Ill

Infectious agents: Organisms that can cause disease are found in a wide range of categories of classification some of them are viruses, Bacteria, Fungi, protozoans, helminths etc.
Spread of infectious diseases: Infectious diseases spread through Air – common cold, Tuberculosis Water – Cholera Sexual contact – AIDS, syphilis
Vectors: Vectors are the intermediaries which carry the infectious agents from a sick person to another potential host.
Example: Insects (Mosquitoes)
Communicable diseases: These diseases are caused by pathogens or infectious agents such as bacteria viruses, fungi, protons, worms etc. These diseases can spread from a diseased or affected person to a healthy person by means of air, water, food, insects, physical contact etc.,
Antibiotics: They are chemical substances produced by living organisms such a bacteria and fungi, which can kill or stop the growth of some pathogenic microorganisms.
Vaccine: It is a suspension of disease-producing microorganisms which is modified by killing so that the suspension will not cause disease but on entering the body initiates the immune system to produce antibodies against a particular disease.
Vaccination: It is the inoculation of a vaccine in the body of a healthy person in order to develop immunity against a particular disease.
Immunisation: It is the production of immunity in an individual by artificial means.
Common Vaccines: DPT, BCG, Polio vaccine, Typhoid Vaccine, Measles Vaccine, TT Vaccine, Hepatitis etc.,
Diseases caused by microbes: Protozoa – Malaria Viruses – Hepatitis, AIDS, Rabies, Polio, Herpes, Polio Bacteria – Tuberculosis, Typhoid, Diarrhoea

Why Dowe Fall Ill Communicable Science

 

Why Dowe Fall Ill Exercises

Question 1. How many times did you fall ill in the last one year? What was the illness?
1)Think of one change you could make in your habits in order to avoid any of / most of the above illnesses?
2)Think of one change you would wish for in your surroundings in order to avoid any of / most of the above illnesses.
Answer:
I fell ill twice in the last year. The first time suffered from diarrhoea and at the second time suffered from viral fever.
1. Washing hands before meals and remaining away from people suffering from viral fever.
2. Drinking pure water, planting more trees and disposal of garbage.

Question 2. A doctor/nurse/health – worker is exposed to more sick people than others in the community. Find out how she/he avoids getting sick herself/himself.
Answer:
A doctor/nurse/health worker should take the following precautions.
1. Washing hands with soap thoroughly after serious examination of patients.
2. Keeping a place of work sterilized by using phenyl etc.
3. takes balanced food to develop a powerful immune system.
4. proper disposal of blood samples urine, and sputum.

Question 3. Conduct a survey in your neighbourhood to find out what the three most common diseases are and suggest three steps that could be taken by your local authorities to bring down the incidence of these diseases.
Answer: The three most common diseases in my neighbourhood are.
1. Hepatitis
2. Cold and cough
3. Diarrhoea
The three steps that should be taken by local authorities are.
1. Arranging immunisation programmes
2. Providing clean drinking water
3. Providing better sanitation.

Class 9 Science Chapter 13 KSEEB Textbook Solutions 

Question 4. A baby is not able to tell her/his caretakers that she/he is sick. What would help us to find out
1)that the baby is sick?
2)What is the sickness?
Answer:
The following symptoms will help us to find out that the baby is sick are,
1. Continuous crying.
2. High body temperature
3. Improper intake of food,
4. Loose motions.

Question 5. Under which of the following conditions is a person most likely to fall sick?
1)When she is recovering from malaria.
2)When she has recovered from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chickenpox.
3)When she is on a four-day fast after recovering from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chickenpox why?
Answer: A person is most likely to sick when she is on a four-day fast after recovering from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chicken pox because when she is on fasting, her body may weak due to insufficient food. So, she is more prone to infections. If she is taking core of someone suffering from chicken pox, then it is more likely that she may also get the disease.

Question 6. Under which of the following conditions are you most likely to fall sick?
1)When you are taking examinations.
2)When you have travelled by bus and train for two days.
3)When your friend is suffering from measles. Why?
Answer: We are most likely to fall sick when we are near to our friend who is suffering from measles. It is so because measles is an infectious disease.

Why Dowe Fall Ill Textual Questions

Question 1. State any two conditions essential for good health.
Answer: The conditions essential for good health are
1)Clean surroundings.
2)Adequate and nutritious food

Question 2. State any two conditions essential for being free of disease.
Answer:
1)Living in a hygienic environment
2)Getting vaccinated against common infectious diseases.

Question 3. Are the answers to the above questions necessarily the same or different? Why?
Answer: Answers to the above questions are interconnected but different. It is so because being disease-free does not mean one is healthy.

Question 4. List any three reasons why you would think that you are sick and ought to see a doctor. If only one of these symptoms were present. Would you still go to the doctor? Why or why not?
Answer:
The three reasons of feeling sick and ought to see a doctor are,
1)Having a fever (body temperature)
2)Having a cold and cough
3)Having diarrhoea.
These symptoms indicate that there may be a disease, so I would have gone to consult the doctor.

Question 5. In which of the following case do you think the long-term effects on your health are likely to be most unpleasant?

  • If you get jaundiced,
  • If you get lice,
  • If you get acne. Why?

Answer: Lice and acne can be removed easily with short treatment, both these do not produce long-term effects on the body. Jaundice will have a drastic long-term effect.

Question 6. Why are we normally advised to take nourishing food when we are sick?
Answer: When a person is sick, then his normal body functions get disturbed. In such a situation, food is required which is easy to digest and contains adequate nutrients for recovery, thus nourishing food is required during sickness.

Question 7. What are the different means by which infectious diseases are spread?
Answer:
Infectious diseases are generally spread through,
1)Air
2)Water
3)Sexual contact
4)Physical contact with the infected person
5)Vectors

Question 8. What precautions can you take in your school to reduce the incidence of infectious diseases?
Answer:
The following precautions can be taken in the school to reduce the incidence of infectious diseases;
1)Clean surroundings.
2)Educating students about the causes of infectious diseases.
3)Immunisation.
4)Isolating the affected students to not attend classes till they recover from infectious diseases.

Question 9. What is immunisation?
Answer:
Immunisation is a technique in which people are given a particular vaccine so that they develop temporary or permanent immunity against a particular infectious disease.

KSEEB Solutions For Why Do We Fall Ill Short Notes 

Question 10. What are the immunisation programmes available at the nearest health centre in your locality? Which of these diseases are the major health problems in your area?
Answer:
The following are the immunisation programmes available at the nearest health centre in our locality.
1) Polio
2) DPT
3)Measles
4)MMR
5)Smallpox
6)TT
7)Hepatitis B.

Why Dowe Fall Ill Additional Questions

Question 1. What is an antibiotic? Give two examples.
Answer: Antibiotic is a chemical secreted by microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) tliat kills the growth of some kinds of germs.
Examples: penicillin and streptomycin.

Question 2. Name any three diseases transmitted through vectors.
Answer: Malaria, typhoid, and plague.

Question 3. List some preventive measures against communicable diseases.
Answer:
1)Health Education
2)Isolation
3)Proper sanitation
4)Immunisation

Question 4. Distinguish between acute and chronic diseases.
Answer: Acute diseases last for short period and cause major effects on general health ina very short time. Chronic diseases lasts for long period, it takes a long time to have major effects on general health.

Question 5. Define health.
Answer: Health is described as the state of complete physical mental and social well-being, and not merely an absence of disease.

Question 6. What are contagious diseases? Give one example.
Answer: The diseases which are spread by actual contact between an infected person and healthy persons are called contagious diseases. Eg. Chickenpox.

Why Dowe Fall Ill High Order Thinking Questions

Question 1. Why do parents immunize their newborn babies?
Answer:
The parents immunise the newborn baby because.
1) To provide immunisation to a specific diseases.
2) To protect children from deadly diseases.

Question 2. Reema is suffering from cholera. It is likely that the children sitting around her will be exposed to the infection.
1) Do all the students get infected and suffer from disease?
2) List any two major symptoms of cholera.
Answer:
1. No, all students will not get infected and suffer from the disease because a large inoculum is required to transmit the disease.
2. Symptoms of cholera are.

  • Rapid heartbeat
  • Low blood pressure.

Question 3. Why are antibiotics not effective for viral disease?
Answer: Antibiotics generally block the biosynthetic pathways and they block the pathways of bacteria or microbes. However, viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own and hence are unaffected by antibiotics

Question 4. Why did female Anopheles mosquito feed on human blood?
Answer: FemaleAnopheles mosquito feeds on blood because it requires proteins of human blood to lay eggs.

Question 5. What is meant by ‘symptoms’ of a disease? What do they indicate?
Answer: These are manifestations or evidence of the presence of diseases. These indicate that there is some abnormality in the body.

Why Dowe Fall Ill Unit Test

Question 1. Repeated exposure to a pathogen leads to
the development of ______
1) disease
2) immunity
3) Cancer
4) weakness
Answer: (2) immunity

Question 2. A child who has had an infection of chicken pox does not suffer from the disease for the second time, because_____
1) The body has developed immense strength to fight the infection.
2) The immune system keeps a memory of the specific disease and responds by killing the infectious agent, in the second exposure.
3) The boy is advised to take vitamin tablets daily after the disease
4)The child is given clean and nutritious food after the disease.
Answer: (2) The immune system keeps a memory of the specific disease and responds by killing the infectious agent, in the second exposure.

KSEEB Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Important Questions 

Question 3. Which one of the following diseases is not transmitted by mosquitoes?
1)Brain fever
2)Malaria
3)Typhoid
4)Dengue
Answer: (3) Typhoid

Why Dowe Fall Ill Fill In The Blanks

1.The full form of BCG Bacillus calmette and Guerin.
2. Mosquito is the vector of Dengue and Malaria.

Why Dowe Fall Ill Answer the following Questions

One Mark

Question 1. Name two diseases that spread through water.
Answer: Cholera, amoebic dysentery.

Question 2. Name two vaccines given to children below 5 years of age.
Answer:
1. Polio Vaccine
2. Hepatitis

Question 3. After eating contaminated food, a number of people complained of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and loose stools.
1)Name the disease they are suffering from
2)Name the causative organism.
Answer:
1) Diarrhoea
2)Escherichia coli or salmonella

Question 4. Name any two diseases against which vaccinations are available.
Answer:
1)Tuberculosis
2)Typhoid

Question 5. What do the physicians do on the basis of symptoms?
Answer: Physicians look for the signs of a particular disease.

Question 6. What are pathogens?
Answer: Disease-causing microorganisms are called pathogens.

Two Marks

Question 1. Differentiate between congenital diseases and acquired diseases.
Answer:
Congenital diseases are anatomical or physiological abnormalities present since birth.
Example: Haemophilia, colourblindness
Acquired diseases are those that develop after birth.
Example: AIDS.

Question 2. What is the difference between a virus and a bacteria?
Answer:
Viruses

1. Non-cellular
2. Have no metabolism of their own
3. Command the host cell to produce a virus.
4. can be crystallised
Bacteria
1. Single-celled
2. Have a metabolism of their own
3. They can reproduce by their own.
4. cannot be crystallised

Question 3. Give two examples for each of the following.
1)Infectious diseases
2)non-infectious diseases
3)Acute diseases
4)Chronic diseases
Answer:
1) Infectious diseases— Smallpox, chicken pox
2)Non-infectious diseases— Diabetes, simple Goitre
3)Acute diseases — Viral fever, flu
4)Chronic diseases—Tuberculosis, Elephantiasis

Question 4. List the following diseases into communicable and non-communicable diseases.
Answer:

  1. Cancer: Non-Communicable
  2. High blood pressure: Non-Communicable
  3. Common cold: Communicable
  4. Diabetes: Non-Communicable
  5. Tuberculosis: Communicable
  6. Night blindness: Non-Communicable
  7. SARS: Communicable
  8. Typhoid: Communicable
  9. Cholera: Communicable
  10. Dengue: Communicable

KSEEB Solutions Chapter 13 Diseases And Prevention Class 9 

Question 5. What are the modes of HIV transmission?
Answer:
1)Unprotected sexual contact with an infected partner.
2)Use of contaminated needles and syringes.
3)Transfusion of infected blood.
4)Mother to baby due to rupturing of blood vessels at the time of birth.

Why Dowe Fall Ill  Activity

Question 1. Conduct a survey in your locality. Talk to 10 families who are well-off and ten who are very poor (in your estimation) Both sets of families should have children who are below five years of age. Measure the heights of these children. Draw a graph of the height of each child against its age for both sets of families.
1) Is there a difference between the groups? If yes, why?
2) If there is no difference, do you think that your findings mean that well-off or poor does not matter for health?

Conclusion:
After conducting the survey and preparing the graphs of the height of each child against his age, you would find that there is a difference in the heights of children of two groups Children of rich families have better growth than children of very poor families. It is so because children of well-off families take adequate balanced diets, live in clean environments and better conditions of living than children of very poor families

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation Important Concepts

Gravitation: It is the force of attraction between any two bodies in the universe
Gravity: It is the force of attraction between a planet and an object on its surface
The universal law of gravitation: Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force which proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Universal gravitational constant: It is the gravitational force between two objects of unit mass with unit separation. It’s value is 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2/kg2
Acceleration due to gravity: It is the acceleration of an object tailing towards the earth due to the earth’s gravity. It’s value on the surface is 9.8m/s2
Free fall: The motion of an object under the influence of earthing’s gravity only is called tree fall
Mass: It is the quantity of matter contained in a body. It’s value does not change with places and its S. I unit is a kilogram (kg)
Weight: It is the force with which a body is attracted by the earth and it’s value varies from place to place. Its S.I. unit is newton (N). Weight is given by W = mg
Density: It is the ratio of mass by the volume of a substance is density^ mass/volume and the S.I unit is kg/m3

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Relation between g and G: g = GM/R2
where g – acceleration due to gravity, G = universal gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth and R = mean radius of the earth
Equations of objects under Earth’s gravity:
(1) v = u + gt
(2) s = ut + ½ gt2
(3) v2 = u2 + 2gs
Fluid: A substance that can flow is called a fluid. Example: gases and liquids.
Thrust and Pressure: The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called thrust and the thrust per unit area is called pressure. S.I unit pressure is N/m2 = pascal
Buoyancy: When an object is immersed in a liquid, then the upward force exerted by a liquid on the object is called upthrust or buoyancy. The magnitude of buoyancy depends on the density of the liquid
Archimedes’s Principle: When a body is immersed completely or partially in a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is equal the weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
Relative density: Relative density of a substance is defined as the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water. It has no unit.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation

Gravitation Exercises

Question 1. State universal law of gravitation
Answer: Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force which proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Question 2. Write the formula to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and an object.
Answer: F = G Mm/R2

Gravitation KSEEB Class 9 Question Answers 

Question 3. What do you mean by free fall?
Answer: The motion of a body under the influence of the earth’s gravity

Question 4. What do you mean by the acceleration due to gravity?
Answer: It is the acceleration of an object falling to ward’s earth’s center due to the earth’s gravity

Question 5. What are the differences between the mass of an object and its weight
Answer:
Mass:

  1. It is the quantity of matter contained in a body
  2. Its value does not change
  3. It is a scalar quantity
  4. It is expressed in kg
  5. It can never be zero

Weight:

  1. It is the force with which a body is attracted toward the center of the earth
  2. Its value changes from place to place
  3. It is a vector quantity
  4. It is expressed in newton
  5. It is zero at the center of the earth

Question 6. Why is the weight of an object on the moon is 1 /6th its weight on the earth?
Answer: This is because the gravitational attraction on the moon is 1/6 th of that on the earth.

Question 7. Why is it difficult to hold a school bag with a thin and strong string?
Answer: Thinner the string, the smaller is the area of the cross-section, and the greater will be the pressure.

Question  8. Why does an object float or sink when placed on the surface of the water?
Answer: A cork placed on water floats while the nail sinks because of their difference in their densities. The density of the cork is less than the density of water. This means that the upthrust of water on he cork is greater than the weight of the cork. So it floats. The density of iron nail is more than that of water. This means that the upthrust by water on he iron nail is less than the weight of the nail. Hence the nail sinks.

Question 9. You find your mass to be 42kg on a weighing machine. Is your mass more or less than 42kg?
Answer: Slightly more than 42 kg. The upward thrust of air acts on our body which reduces our original mass.

Question 10. You have a bag of cotton and an iron bar, each indicating a mass of 100kg when measured on a weighing machine. In reality, one is heavier than the other. Can you say which one is heavier and why?
Answer: The bag of cotton is heavier because the cotton bag has a larger area and it experiences a larger upthrust of air than the iron bar. This means that the weighing machine shows a smaller mass for the cotton bag than the original mass which is more ‘ than 100kg.

Gravitation Textual Questions

Question 1. How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance between them is reduced to half?
Answer: Since F∞1/r2, when the distance is reduced to r/2, then the new force ∞ 4/r2. The fore becomes 4 times the initial force

Question 2. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion to their masses. Why then a heavy object does not fall faster than a light object?
Answer: Although F cc m, g is independent of the mass of the body. Hence all the bodies reach the ground at the same time in absence of air resistance.

Question 3. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object on its surface ( Mass of earth = 6 x 1024 kg and R = 6.4 x 106 m)
Answer:
F = G Mm/R2

\(=\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 6 \times 10^{24} \times 1}{\left(6.4 \times 10^6\right)^2}=9.8 \mathrm{~N}\)

Question 4. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force. Does the earth attract the moon with a force that is greater or smaller or the same as the force with which the moon attracts the earth Why?
Answer: Both the earth and moon attract each other with the same force. This is because neither the earth nor the moon is toward each other.

Question 5. If the moon attracts the earth, why does the earth not move toward the moon?
Answer: Based on  Newton’s 3rd law of motion, the earth also attracts the moon with equal and opposite force.

Question 6. What happens to the force between two objects, if
(1)The mass of one object is doubled?
(2)The distance between the objects is doubled and trebled?
(3)masses of both objects are doubled
 Answer:
(1) Since force is directly proportional to mass, force is doubled
(2) Since the force(F) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the objects, he force becomes F/4 when the distance is doubled and F/9 when the force is trebled
(3) Since the force is proportional to the product  of masses, the new force will be 4F

Class 9 Science Chapter 10 KSEEB Textbook Solutions 

Question 7. What is the importance of the universal law of gravitation?
 Answer: The universal law of gravitation explains
1) The force that binds us to earth
2) The motion of the moon around he earth
3) The motion of the planets around the sun
4) The tides in sea and ocean

Question 8. What is the acceleration of free fall?
Answer: It is the acceleration produced on a body due to
the earth’s gravity.

Question 9. What do we call the gravitational force between the earth and an object?
 Answer: Weight of the object

Question 10. Amit buys few grams of gold at poles as per the instruction of one of his friends. He hands over the same when he meets him at the equator. Will the friend agree with the weight of gold bought? If not, why?
Answer: No. Due to the change in the value of g, the weight of a body is always less than its weight at the equator. Hence the gold weight will be less then its weight at the equator.

Question 11. Why will a sheet of paper fall slower than one that is crumpled into a ball? 
Answer:  Due larger surface area, the paper sheet experiences more air resistance and hence it falls slowly.

Question 12. The gravitational force on he surface of the moon is only 1/6 th of the earth. What is the weight in new tons of a 10kg object on the moon and on the earth?
Answer:

  • On the earth, the weight of the object=10 g= 10x 9.8 = 98N
  • On the moon, weight of the object = 10 x g/6 = 10 x 9.8/6 = 16.3N

Question 13. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 49m/s. Calculate
(1)The maximum height to which it risees?
(2)The total tiem it takes to return to the surface of the earth?
Answer:
(1) Here u = 45m/s and g = – 9.8 m/s2. At the maximum height v = 0

Using the equation v2 – u2 = 2gs,

we get 02 – (45)2 = 2 (-9.8) s => s – 122.5m

Thus maximum height the ball rises is 122.5m

(2) Again using the equation v=u + at, we get 0 = 45 – 9.8 t => t = 5s

Since time to reach maximum height = time to reach the ground from a maximum height

Total time is taken by the ball to return to the earth’s surface = 5 + 5 = 10s

Question 14. A stone is released from he top of a tower of height 19.6m. Calculate its final velocity just before touching the ground
Answer: Given u = 0, g = 9.8m/s2,s= 19.6m, v = ?

Using the equation

v2 – u2 = 2gs => v2– 0 = 2(9.8) (19.6) = (19.6)2 (why?)

Hence \(v=\sqrt{(19.6)^2}=19.6 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

KSEEB Solutions For Gravitation Short Notes 

Question  15. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 40m/s. Taking g = 10m/s2, find the maximum height reached by the stone. What is the net displacement and the total distance covered by the stone?

Answer: We have u = 40m/s, g = – 10m/s2 and at the maximum height v = 0

Using the equation  v2-u2 = 2gs , we get v2– (40)2

= 2(- 10) s => – 20s = – 1600 => s = 80m

The total distance covered by the stone = 80 + 80= 160m

Net dispalcement = 0

Question  16. Calculate the force of gravitation between the earth and the sun given that the mass of the earth is 6 x 1024 kg and of the sun is 2 x 1(Pkg. The average distance between the two is 1.5 x 10n m
Answer:
F =\(\mathrm{G} \frac{M_E M_S}{r^2}\)

\(=6.67  10^{-11} \times 6 \times 10^{24} \times 2\times 10^{30} /\left(1.5 \times 10^{11}\right)^2\)

On simplification, we get F = 3.56 x 1022 N

Question 17. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 100m high and at the same time another stone is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25m/s. Calculate when and where the stones meet.
Answer:
Let the stones meet at a height x from the ground after time ‘t’ second

For the falling stone, u = 0, g = l0 m/s2 g = 100 -x

Using the equation s = u t + 1/2 gt2, we get

100- X = (0) t + 1/2 (10) t2  …………….. (1)

For the upward stone,

u = 25m/s, g = -10m/s2 s = x

Hence x = 25t – 1/2(10) t2   …………….(2)

Adding equations (1) and (2), we get 100 = 25t => t = 100/25 = 4 sec

The two stones meet each other after 4 second

When t = 4, x = 25 (4) – 1/2 (10) (4)2 x =

100-80-20m

I.e, The stones meet at a height 20m from the ground.

Question 18. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower after 6 sec. Find
1) Velocity with which it was thrown up?
2) The maximum height it reaches, and
3) The position after 4 second
Answer:
Time to reach maximum height = 6/2=3 second

1) Now, t = 3s, v = 0, g = – 9.8 m/s2 and u =?

v = u + gt  0 = u — 9.8 (3) u  => 29.4m/s

2) S max = ut + 1/2 gt2 = 29.4 (3) – 1/2(9.8) (3)2

= 44.1 m

3) S (t = 4)= 29.4 (4) – 1/2 (9.8) (3)2 = 39.2m from the ground

Question 19. In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immersed in a liquid act?
Answer: In the vertical direction through the center of gravity.

Question 20. Why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of the water?
Answer: It is due to the upthrust exerted by the water the block of plastic.

Question 21. The volume of a substance is 20 cm-1. If the density of water is 1 g/cm3, will the substance float or sink?
Answer: Density of substance = 50/20 = 2.5g.cm3 > the density of water. Hence the substance will sink into the water.

Question 22. The volume of a 500g sealed packet is 350 cm3. Will the packet float or sink in water if the density of water is 1g/cm3? What will be the mass of the water displaced?
Answer:
Density of packet = 500/350 = 1.43g/cm3 > density of water (1.2g/cm3).
Hence the packet will sink.

The volume of water displaced = volume of the sealed packet = 350cm3

Therefore, a mass of water displace = 350 x 1 = 350g

KSEEB Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Important Questions 

Gravitation Additional Questions

Question 1. What is the S.I. unit of universal gravitational constant
Answer: Nm2 kg -2

Question 2. What is the accepted value of the universal gravitational constant?
Answer: 6.673 x 10-4 Nm2kg-2

Question 3. What is free fall?
Answer: When an object falls under the earth’s gravitational force above, then the object is said to be in free fall

Question 4. The mass of an object is 19kg. What is its weight on the earth?
Answer:
Weight of the object (w) = mg

= 10 x 9.8 = 98 N

Question 5. What is weightlessness?
Answer: A body is said to be in a state of weightlessness when the reactionary force of the supporting surface is zero.

Question 6. One kg – wt is equal to how many Newton’s?
Answer:   
1 kg wt = 1kg x 9.8ms-2
              = 9.8 N

Question 7. State two factors on which the gravitational force between two objects depends
Answer:
1) Masses of the objects
2) Distance between the objects

Question 8. Who formulated the universal law of gravitational
Answer: Issac Newton

Question 9. What is the value of the universal gravitational constant
Answer: G =6.67 x 10-11 Nm2kg-2

Question 10. On what factors weight of a body depend?
Answer: Mass and acceleration due to gravity

Question 11. Why does a man feel lighter on the moon?
Answer: On the moon, the gravity is less than that of the earth.

Question 12. What is weightlessness?
Answer: When the surface offers zero reactionary force on a body kept on it is said to be weightless.

Question 13. The value of g is not same at all places on the earth. Why?
Answer: This is due to the shape of the earth and its rotation about its own axis

Question 14. Is weight a scalar or a vector?
Answer: Weight is a vector quantity

Question 15. How many newtons are equal to one kg – wt?
Answer: 9.8N

Question 16. What is the value of g at the center of the earth?
Answer: zero

Question 17. What is the mass of an object whose weight is 19.6N
Answer: m = W/g = 19.6/9.8 = 2kg

Question 18. An astronaut feels weightlessness in space graft?
Answer: It is because no gravitational force acts on the astronaut

Question 19. What happens to the mass and weight of a stone broght fron the moon to the earth?
Answer: Mass remains the same while the weight increases

Question 20. What is fluid?
Answer: A substance that can flow is called a fluid.

Two Marks Questions

Question 21. How does gravitation differ from gravity?
Answer: Gravitation refers the force of attraction between any two bodies in the universe whereas gravity refers the force of attraction between the earth and any object on its surface.

Question 22. What do you understand by buoyancy?
Answer: The phenomenon of an upward force acting on a body partially or completely immersed in a fluid is called buoyancy

Question 23. What is the value of
1) On the surface of the earth
2) At the center of the earth
Answer:
1) on the surface g = 9.8ms’2
2) At the center, g = 0.

KSEEB Solutions Chapter 10 Gravitational Force Class 9 

Question 24. How does the value of g vary with
1) altitude
2) latitude
Answer:
1) g decreases with an increase in altitude
2) g is m make at poles and minimum at the equator.

Question 25. Mean’s weight on the surface of the earth is SOON. What will be her weight at the height 2R (where R = Radius of the earth)
Answer:
Weight on the earth W = \(G \frac{M m}{R^2}\)

Weight on the height 2R =\(\mathrm{W}^i \)=\( G \frac{G M m}{(2 R)^2}\)

\(\frac{W^1}{W}=\left(\frac{G M m}{4 R^2}\right) / \frac{G M m}{R^2}=1 / 4\) \(W^1=\frac{1}{4} \times W=1 / 4 \times 500=125 N\)

Question 26. You feel less weigher in water than outside the water. Why?
Answer: Because inside the water, the body experiences an upthrust by water.

Question 27. State Archimedes’ principle
Answer: When a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid it experiences an upward thrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it

Question 28. Name any devices that work on Archimedes’s principle
Answer:
1) Lactometer – used to measure the purity of milk
2) Hydrometer – used to measure the density of liquids

Question 29. Define the relative density of a substance
Answer: It is the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water at 4°C

Question 30. On what factors the buoyant force depends on?
Answer:
1) Density of the liquid
2) The volume of the body immersed in the liquid

Question 31. Why does an army tank rest upon a continuous heavy chain?
Answer: Due to the larger area of the chain, the pressure exerted by the tank will be less and this prevents the sinking of the ground.

Question 32. A sharp knife cut better than a blunt one. Why?
Answer: Sharper the edge, the lesser will be the area of the edge. Hence effective force per unit area ie pressure is more.

Question 33. State the conditions for
(1) floatation of a body on a liquid
(2) sinking of a body in a liquid

Answer:
(1) A body will float if its density is less than the density of the liquid
(2) The body will sink if the density of the body is greater than the density of the liquid.

Question 34. When a fresh egg is placed in water it sinks. On dissolving a large amount of salt in the water, the g begins to rise and float. Why?
Answer: The density of the fresh egg is more than that of water. Hence it sinks. When salt is added to water, the density of water becomes more than that of egg. Hence the egg begins to float on water.

Gravitation KSEEB Class 9 Detailed Solutions 

Question 35. The weight of an object on the earth is 12N. What would be its weight on the moon?
Answer:
We Know That

Weight on the moon =1/6 x weight on the earth

= (1/6) x 12

= 2N

Three Marks Questions

Question 36. Give reasons for the following:
(1)Pins and nails have pointed ends
(2) Building has wide foundation
(3)A camel walks easily on the sand but a man cannot
Answer:
(1) The pointed ends have very small area and hence the force per unit area ie pressure will be greater on the surface which makes them to penetrate the surface
(2)Due to larger surface area of the larger foundation, the effective force/area of the building on the ground will be less. This prevents the sinking of the ground.
(3)Feet of the camel are larger than that of man. Hence camels experience lower pressure than the man. This makes camel to walk easily on the sand.

Question 37. The mass of the earth and the moon are 6 x 1024 kg and 7.4 x 1022 kg respectively. The distance between the earth and the moon is 3.84 x 104 km. Calculate the force exerted by the earth on the moon. G= 6.7 x 10 -11 Nm2kg-2.
Answer: Mass of the earth (M) = 6 x 1024 kg, Mass of the moon (m) = 7. 4 x 1022 kg, and distance between the earth and the moon (d) = 3.84 x 105km = 3.84 x 108 m

According to Newton’s universal law of gravitation, the force between the earth and the moon is

F = G Mm/d2 = \( \frac{6.7 \times 10^{-11} \times 6 \times 10^{28} \times 7.4 \times 10^{22}}{\left(3.84 \times 10^8\right)^2}\)

\(=2.0110^{20} \mathrm{~N}\)

Question 38. Derive an expression for acceleration due to gravity acting on an object on the surface of the earth.
Answer: According to Newton’s second law of motion, Force acting on an object of mass (m) and tailing with acceleration (g) is given by F = mg …………………(1)

According to Newton’s universal gravitational law of gravitation, the force of attraction between the object and earth is given by F8 = G Mm/R2…………………(2)

Comparing equations (1) and (2), F = F8 mg = G Mm/R2 => g = GM/R2

Question 39.
1) Define Thrust and pressure. Mention their S.I units
2) A block of wood is kept on a table top. The mass of the wooden block is 5 kg and its dimensions are 40cm x 20cm x 10cm. Find the pressure exerted by the wooden block on the table top if it is made to lie on  the table top with its sides of dimensions (a) 20cm x 10cm and b) 40cm x 20cm
Answer:
1) Thrust: It is the force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface.

Pressure: It is thrust per unit area of contact ie P = F/A

S.I unit thrust is newton (N) and S.I unit of pressure = Nm2

2) Case (1) Thrust on the table (F) = mg – 5 x 9.8 = 49N

Area of the face on the table = 20 x 10 cm2

= 0.02m2

Hence pressure = F/A = 49/0.02 = 2450N/m2

Case (2) Area of the face on the table=40 x 20 cm2 = 0.08 m2

Hence pressure = 49/0.08 = 612.5 N/m2

Four Marks Questions

Question 40. Give reasons:
1) You apply more pressure on loose sand when you stand than when you Me down
2) An iron nail floats on mercury but sinks in water
3) It is easier to swim in sea water than in river water
Answer: Pressure is inversely proportional to the area of contact. The area of contact is less when we stand on the loose sand. Hence we apply more pressure.

 

Question 43. State and explain the universal law of gravitation. Hence obtain the S.I. unit of the universal gravitational constant
Answer:
Statement: Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force that is proportional to their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. The force acts along the lining the centers of the objects.

Explanation:

Gravitational

consider two objects A and JB of masses M and M lie at a distance ’d’ from each other . Let F be the force of attraction between the two objects. According to the universal law of gravitation

1) \( F \propto \frac{M m}{q^2}\)

2) \( F \alpha \frac{\Phi}{d^2}\)

combining equations (1) and (2), we get

\(F \alpha \frac{M m}{d^2}\)   or

\( F=G \frac{M m}{d^2}\)

where G is the constant of proportionality and is called the universal gravitation constant.

To find the S.T. unit of G

From Equation (3)

\(\mathrm{G}=\frac{F \times d^2}{M m}\)

substituting units of F, d, M ie N, m, and kg, we get

S.L unit of G= Nm2 kg 2

Question  41.
1) state universal law of gravitation
2) Mention any four phenomena explained by the universal law of gravitation.
Answer:
1) Every object in the universe attracts every
other object with a force that is proportional to their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
2) Universal law of gravitation explained the following phenomenon.

  • The force that binds us to the earth
  • The motion of the moon around the earth
  • The motion of the planets around the sun
  • The tides due to the moon and the sun.

Gravitation KSEEB Class 9 MCQ Solutions 

Question  42. using the following data, prove that weight of the object on the moon = (1/6)th of its weight on the earth

celestial body     Mass (kg)                Radi (in)

Earth                5.98 x1024                  6.37 x106

Moon               7.36 x1022                1.74 x106

Answer: According to the universal law of gravitation, the weight  of an object on the moon is given by

\(W_m=G \frac{M_m m}{R_m^2}\)   ………………………………(1)

where m = mass of the body the weight of the same object on the earth is given by

\(  W_E=G \frac{M_e \times m}{R_e^2}\)  …………………………..(2)

Dividing Eqn (1) by Eqn (2), we get

\( \frac{W_m}{W_e}=\frac{M_m}{M_e} \times \frac{R_e^2}{R_m^2}\) \(\frac{W_m}{W_e}=\frac{M_m}{M_e} \times \frac{R_e^2}{R_m^2} \frac{7.36 \times 10^{22}\left(6.37 \times 10^6\right)^2}{5.98 \times 10^{24} \times(1.74) \times 10^6}\) \( \frac{W_m}{W_e}=\frac{2.431 \times 1010}{1.474 \times 1011}=0.165=1 / 6\) \( W_m=\frac{1}{6} \times W_e\)

Thus, the weight of an object on the moon is (1/6)th of its weight on the earth

Question 43. Distinguish between Mass and Weight
Answer:
Mass

  1. Mass is the quality of material present in a body
  2. The value of mass remains the same at all places.
  3. It is a scalar quantity
  4. S.I. unit is kilogram
  5. Measured by a pan balance
  6. Mass can never be zero

Weight

  1. It is the gravitational force exerted by the earth on the body.
  2. The value of weight changes as the ‘g’ value changes from place to place
  3.  It is a vector quantity
  4. S.I. unit is kilogram weight or newton
  5. Measured by a spring balance
  6. Weight is zero at the center of the earth.

Question 44.
1) Define acceleration due to the gravity of earth
2) On what factors acceleration due to gravity depends
3) Where is cg’ greater – at poles or equator
Answer:
1) The acceleration produced in the motion of a body under the gravitational force of the earth is called acceleration due to gravity.
2) Acceleration due to gravity depends on

  • The shape of the earth
  • Altitude from the surface of the earth.
  • Depth from the surface of the earth
  • Latitude of the place.

3) g is greater at poles

Question 45.
(1) What is gravity?
(2) Mention any three differences between g and G
Answer:
1) Gravity is the force of attraction between the earth and any object on the surface.
2) acceleration due to gravity (g)

  1. It is acceleration acquired by a body by virtue of the earth’s gravity
  2. It is equal to the force of attraction between two unit masses separated by unit distance
  3. Its value depends on altitude, latitude shape of the earth, etc.,
  4. S.I.unit is ms-2

Universal gravitation constant IG)

  1. It is equal to the force of attraction between two unit masses separated by unit distance
  2. It is a quantity
  3. It is a universal Constance
  4. Nm2kg2

Gravitation Application Questions

Question 1. The weight of an object on the earth is I2N. What would be its weight on the moon?
Answer:
We Know That
Weight on the moon = 1/6  x weight on the earth

= 1/6 x12

= 2N

Question 2. A stone is brought from the moon to the earth? What happens to the mass and weight of the stone on the earth?
Answer: Mass remains the same Weight increases.

Question 3. What is the value of the universal gravitational constant of the center of the earth?
Answer: G = \(6.673 \times 10^{11} \mathrm{Nm}^2 \mathrm{~kg}^{-2}\)

Question 4. The moon attracts the earth. Why does the earth not move toward the moon?
Answer: acceleration \( \alpha \frac{1}{m a s s}\)

Since the mass of the earth is very large, the acceleration produced in the earth is negligible.

Gravitation KSEEB Class 9 Question Answers 

Question 5. If the earth shrinks and mass remains the same, what happens to the weight of a person?
Answer:
We Know That           

\(\mathrm{g}=\frac{G M}{R^2}\)

When the earth shrinks, R decreases. This leads to an increase in g and therefore weight = mg also increases.

Question 6. When a piece of paper and a stone are dropped from the top of a building, the paper takes longer time. Why?
Answer: Since the paper has more surface area it experiences more air friction than the stone.

Question 7. On the earth’s surface mass remain constant while weight changes from the equator to the pole Why?
Answer: Since ‘g’ varies from equator to pole weight = mg also varies.

Question 8. Mass of a planet is (1/3)rd of the earth its radius is half of the earth. What will be acceleration due to gravity
Answer:
M1 – Mass of the planet
R1 = Radius of the planet k-riME and Rl = VL RE

Question 9. Buying gold at the equator and selling the same at the poles is profitable. Why?
Answer: The weight of gold at the poles will be higher than its weight at the equator.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Social Science Sociology Chapter 4 Community

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Social Science Sociology Chapter 4 Community Points To Remember

A group of three or more people living in a particular geographic area with common rules, regulations, values and common identity is called Community. The community can be divided into four major groups on the basis of social life, occupational characters, cultural life, beliefs, economic system and population. The four types of community are nomadic, tribal, rural and urban communities.

  • Encyclopaedia of Britannica says that ‘Nomadism is the way of life. A nomadic community is a group of people who wonders from place to place according to the season for the purpose of hunting food, gathering, animal husbandry and trade.
  • The characteristics of a nomadic community are nomadism for life, separate and temporary residing, low or no investment jobs and a separate mother tongue.
  • Kettle in his dictionary defined the term tribe as ‘family or race. A tribe originated from the Latin word ‘Tribus’ which was used first time by Greek and Roman writers for tribals of the Latium district.
  • The racial assembly consists of family and blood relatives and is called a Tribe.
  • Three types of tribes according to anthropologists are Kakeshians, Mongolians and Negro.
  • The three important geographical zones where tribes live in India are the North and North-East Zone, Central Zone and South Zone.
  • According to Bogardus‘ Village community is the union of a small density of population, simple and low expenditure, and life with a primary relationship.
  • Bogardus has the opinion that human society evolved in the Cradle called a Village.
Class 9 Social ScienceClass 9 ScienceClass 9 Maths

 

  • There are different types of villages. They are Centralized villages, Villages of bifurcated houses and farmland, scattered group villages, and villages of line houses.
  • Moon-shaped villages, square-shaped villages and Joint road and market villages.
  • Characteristics of rural communities are small in size, primary relationship, agriculture and agriculture supplement economic life, community life, democratic principle, independent unit, neighbourhood and shortage of public basic needs.
  • Urbanization is the process where the rural society transfers into urban society.
  • The characteristics of an urban community are large in size, cultural diversity, Non-agricultural jobs, neglected primary relationships, providing basic public facilities and formal social control.

 

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Social Science Sociology Chapter 4 Community

Community Textual Questions And Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable words.

  1. A group of three or more people living in a particular locality is called Community.
  2. A rural community is the supporting pillar of Indian society.
  3. Aborigines of the North East Zone are Mongolian.

Answer the following questions.

Question 1. What do you mean by Tribal?
Answer: The racial assembly consists of family and blood relatives and is called a Tribe.

Question 2. What is a Village?
Answer: According to Bogardus‘ Village community is the union of a small density of population, simple and low expenditure, and life with a primary relationship.

Community Class 9 Sociology Notes 

Question 3. Mention the concept of society.
Answer: The aggregate of people living together in a more or less ordered community is called society.

Question 4. What does Industrial Revolution indicate?
Answer: Industrial Revolution indicates changing lifestyle, a conversation of villages into cities, replacing manpower with machines, and fast and improved production.

Question 5. Explain the characteristics of a tribal community.
Answer:
The characteristics of tribal community are:

  • Simple and self completeness
  • Worship of nature
  • Loyal to community and importance
  • Equality and independence for women
  • Internal marriage system
  • Separate mother language
  • Living in the natural environment
  • An economic system based on hunting forest sub-product and a small portion on agriculture.

Question 6. Explain the characteristics of the rural community.
Answer:
The characteristics of the rural community are:

  • Small in size
  • Primary relationship
  • Agriculture and agriculture supplement economic life
  • Community life
  • Democratic principle
  • Independent unit
  • Neighbourhood and
  • Shortage of public basic needs.

Question 7. Explain the characteristics of an urban community.
Answer:
The characteristics of an urban community are:

  • Large in size
  • Cultural diversity
  • Non-agricultural jobs
  • Neglected primary relationship
  • Providing basic public facilities and
  • Formalsocial control.

Question 8. Explain the division of tribals in India according to the geographical locality
Answer:
The division of tribals in India according to the geographical locality is:

  • North and North East Zone
  • Central Zone
  • South Zone

Community Class 9 Textbook Solutions 

Question 9. Explain the types of a rural community.
Answer:
There are different types of rural communities. They are:

  • Centralized villages:- Houses are located in the form of land.
  • Villages of bifurcated houses and farm land:-They are found in the coastal region and in irrigated areas of Raichur district ofKamataka.
  • Scattered group villages:- Villages are located in hilly areas and in uplands districts of Karnataka.
  • Village of line houses:- Families are located on both sides of the road.
  • Moon-shaped villages:- The village is surrounded by a temple masjid, church tank, etc.
  • Square-shaped villages:- Villages are the same as line villages. Lines are parallel
  • Joint road and market village:- Houses are located where two or more roads join together.

Question 10. Explain the characteristics of a nomadic community.
Answer:
The characteristics of a nomadic community are:

  • Nomadismfor life
  • Separate and temporarily residing under trees and in slums of towns
  • Low or no investment jobs and
  • Separate mother tongue.

Community Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. A group of people leading a simple life in a limited area is a

  1. Village
  2. Community
  3. Neighbour
  4. City

Answer: 1. Village

Question 2. The region which has tribes like Bhumi Santhalas is

  1. Southern region
  2. Central Region
  3. Andaman and Nicobar region
  4. Eastern Region

Answer: 2. Central Region

Class 9 Social Science Community Answers 

Question 3. In the list ‘A’ group of organizations and in list ‘B’ their characteristics are given. 
       A                                            B
City                                 prominence to agriculture
Tribal community            not established by law
Rural community            variety of social strata
Community                     live far away from the urban regions

Answer: 
City                            –     variety of social strata
Tribal communities    –     live far away from the urban regions
Rural community       –     prominence to agriculture
Community                –     not established by law

Question 4. Encyclopaedia of Britannica says that Nomadism is the way of

  1. working
  2. staying
  3. transferring
  4. life

Answer: 4. life

Answer the following question in 2-4 sentences each:

Question 1. What is meant by the community?
Answer: A group of three or more people living in a particular geographic area with common rules, regulations, values and common identity is called Community.

Question 2. Which are the factors used as a base to divide the community?
Answer: Community can be divided into four major groups on the basis of social life, occupational characters, cultural life, beliefs, economic system and population.

Question 3. How is the word tribe derived?
Answer: Tribe originated from the Latin word Tribus’ which was used first time by Greek and Roman writers for tribals of the Latium district.

Question 4. Which are the two types of tribes according to anthropologists?
Answer: Three types of tribes according to anthropologists are Kakeshians, Mongolians and Negro.

Class 9 Social Science Chapter 4 Community Notes 

Question 5. What is a village community according to Bogards?
Answer: According to Bogardus‘ Village community is the union of a small density of population, simple and low expenditure, and life with a primary relationship.

Question 6. Mention the different types of villages.
Answer:
There are different types of villages. They are:

  • Centralized villages
  • Villages of bifurcated houses and farmland
  • Scattered group villages
  • Village offline houses
  • Moon shaped villages
  • Square shaped villages
  • Joint road and market village.

Question 7. What is meant by Urbanization?
Answer: Urbanization is the process where the rural society transfers into urban society.

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Karnataka State Syllabus

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Political Science 

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Sociology

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics 

KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Business Studies 

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Question Papers 2023 Set 5

Class 9 Maths Karnataka Model Papers Set 5 With Solutions

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. Recurring decimal 0.68686868……is also represented as

  1. \(0. \overline{6}\)
  2. \(\overline{0.68}\)
  3. \(\overline{0.68}\)
  4. \(0.6 \overline{8}\)

Solution: 3.  \(\overline{0.68}\)

Question 2. An example of a rational number is

  1. 4.795831
  2. 0.3796
  3. 1.1012001…..
  4. 0.6868…..

Solution: 2. 0.3796

Question 3. The expansion form of(a + b)2 is

  1. a2+2ab +b2
  2. a2-2ab + b2
  3. a2 – 2ab – b2
  4. a2 +ab + b2

Solution: 1. a2+2ab +b2

Question 5. If a ray stands on a line, then the sum of two adjacent angles is

  1. 60°
  2. 180°
  3. 360°
  4. 90°

Solution: 2. 180°

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Question Papers 2023 Set 5

Question 5. In the fig, APAB is congruent to
APAB is congruent to

  1. △PAC
  2. ∠PAC
  3. ∠PAB
  4. △PAB

Solution: 1. △PAC

Karnataka 9th Standard Maths Sample Papers Set 5 

Question 6.Write any two solutions for x + 4y = 0

Solution:

x + 4y = 0

4 y = -x

y = -x/4

when x = 0, y = 0 (0, 0)

∴ Two solutions are when x=l, y = -1/4 (0, -1/4 ) (0,0)(0, -1/4)

Question 7. In the fig, AB AC then

  1. OB =___________
  2. AO bisects_________

Solution:
Model Paper

  1. OB = OC
  2. AO bisects A

Question 8. Write any two properties of a rhombus.
Solution:

  1. The sides of a rhombus are equal.
  2. The diagonals bisect each other at right angles.

Answer the following:

Question 1. Represent \(\sqrt{5}\) on the number line.
Solution:

Represent the number line.

Question 2.Express \(0.4 \overline{7}\) in the form of p/q where p and q interfere and q ≠ 0

Solution:

Let x = 0.477……………..

10x = 4.7777……………

⇒10x = 4.3 + 0.4777….

⇒10x = 4.3 + x

⇒ l0x-x = 4.3

⇒ 9x = 4.3

⇒x = 4.3/9 = 43/90

Thus, \(0.4 \overline{7}=\frac{43}{90}\)

Question 3.use the factor theorem to determine whether g(x) = x +1 is a factor of p(x) = 2x3+x2– 2x -1

Solution:

If g(x) =x + 1 is a factor of the given polynomial p(x), then p(-1) must be zero.

P(x) = 2x3+x2+(-1)2– 2 (-1) -1

P(-1) = 0

Hence g(x) =x+ 1 is a factor of the given polynomial.

Question 4. Evaluate 95 x 96 using the suitable identity.

Solution:

95 x 96 = (100 – 5) (100 -4)

(x+ a) (x + b) = x2 + (a + b)x + ab

=(100)2+ { (-5) + (-4) } 100 + (-5) (-4)

= 10000 – 900 + 20

= 9120

Question 5. Take any three consecutive even numbers and find their product: for example, 2 x 41 6 = 48,4x6x8 = 192 and so on. Make two conjectures about these products.
Solution:

Three possible conjectures are:

  1. The product of any three consecutive even nos. is even.
  2. The product of any three consecutive even numbers is divisible by 4.

Karnataka 9th Class Maths Practice Papers 2023 Set 5 

Question 6. Restate the following statements with appropriate conditions, so that they become true statements.

  1. All prime numbers are odd.
  2. Two times a real number is always even.
  3. For any x, 3x +1 > 4
  4. For any x, x3≥0

Solution:

  1. All prime numbers greater than 2 are odd.
  2. Two times a natural number is always even.
  3. For any x > 1, 3x + 1 > 4
  4. For any x > 0, x3 > 0

Question 7. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at point E. If ∠DBC = 70°, ∠BAC = 30° find ∠BCD.

Solution:

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at point E
∠BAC = ∠BDC

[ angles in the same D. segment]

∴∠BAC = ∠BDC =30°

In ABCD,

∠BDC +∠DBC +∠BCD = 180°

30° +70° + ∠BCD = 180°

∠BCD = 180° – 100°

∴∠BCD =80°

Question 8. Diagonals AC and BD of an A trapezium ABCD with AB || DC intersect each other at O. Prove that ar (△AOD) = ar (△BOC)

Solution: DAC and DBC lie on the same base DC and between the same parallels AB and CD.

∴ Area ( DAC) = Area (DBC )

Area (DAC) – Area (DOC) = Area (DBC)-arDOC

∴ Area (AOD)= Area (BOC)

Question 9. Represent the following data with a bar graph
Political party Seats won.
following data with a bar graph. Political party Seats won
Solution:
Bar graph Political party Seats won

Question 10. A river 3m deep and 40m wide is flowing at the rate of 2km per hour. How much water will fall into the sea in a minute?

Solution:

The breadth of the river = 40m

Depth of the river = 3 m

flowing speed of the river per hour = 2km

or length per minute of the river = 2000/60 m

∴ water flowing per minute

\(=\frac{2000}{6 \emptyset} \times{ }^2-4 \emptyset \times \not^1\)

=4000m3

Question 11. ABC is an isosceles triangle in which altitudes BE and CF are drawn to equal sides AC and AB respectively. S.T. these altitudes are equal.

Solution:
ABC is an isosceles triangle in which altitudes BE and CF are drawn to equal sides AC and AB respectively
In AEB and AFC

∠AEB =∠AFC (each 90°)

∠A = ∠A (common)

AB = AC (given)

AEB = AFC (AAA congruence rule)

∴ BE = CF(CPCT)

Question 12. Give a possible expression for the length and breadth of the rectangle whose area is 25a2-35a+ 12

Solution:

Area of the rectangle = length x breadth

25a2 – -35a + 12 *= length x breadth

25a2 -15a – 20a +12 = length x breadth

5a(5a – 3) – 4(5a – 3) = length x breadth

(5a – 3) (5a – 4) = length x breadth

∴ length = (5a – 3)

breadth = (5a – 4)

Solved Karnataka Class 9 Maths Papers Set 5 

Question 13. Find the area of a triangle two sides of which are 18cm and 10cm and the perimeter is 42cm.

Solution:

Let a, b and c be the sides of the triangle.

∴ a = 18cm, b = 10cm and c = x

∴a + b + c=18+ 10+ x

42 — 28 + x

x = 42 – 28

x = 14cm

S = perimeter/2

S = 42/2

S = 21cm

Area of a triangle = \( \sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}\)

\(=\sqrt{21(21-18)(21-10)(21-14)}\) \(\begin{aligned}
& =\sqrt{21 \times 3 \times 11 \times 7} \\
& =\sqrt{21 \times 21 \times 11} \\
& =\sqrt{(21)^2 \times 11} \\
& =21 \sqrt{11} \mathrm{~cm}^2
\end{aligned}\)

Question 14.Write four solutions for 2x + y = 7

Solution:

2x + y – 7

⇒ y = 7-2x

when x = 0,    2 (0) + y = 7

0 + y = 7

y =7

x = 1,    2(1) + y = 7

2 + y = 7

y = 7-2

y=5

x = 2,  2(2)+y =7

6 + y = 7

y = 7- 6

y= 1

x = 3, 2 (3) + y = 7

6 + y = 7

y = 7 – 6

y=1

∴ four solutions are (0, 7) (1, 5) (2,3) (3,1)

Question 15. In the fig, if AB || DE, ∠BAC = 35° and ∠CDE-53°, find ∠DCE.

Solution:
f AB || DE, ∠BAC = 35° and ∠CDE-53°

In the fig AB || DE

BAC = 35° and CDE = 530

∴ ∠BAE = ∠DEC (altemater angles)

∴ ∠DEC = 35°

In ADCE,

∠DCE + ∠CDE + ∠DEC = 180°

∠DCE + 53° +35° = 180°

∠DCE =180°—88°

∠DCE = 92°

Question 16. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC, BD is a diagonal and E is the mid-point of AD. A line is drawn through E parallel to AB intersecting BC at F. S.T. F is the midpoint of BC.

Solution:

Let EF intersect BD and G

In ABD,

E is the midpoint of

AD and EF || AB.

∴ G is the midpoint of BD
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC, BD is a diagonal and E is the mid-point of AD

[ converse of the midpoint of theorem]

DC || AB and EF || AB

DC || EF

In BDC

GF || DC and G is the midpoint of BD

∴ ‘F’ is the midpoint of BC [By converse of midpoint theorem]

Question 17. If two circles intersect at two points, prove that their centres lie on the perpendicular bisector of the common chord.

Solution:
Two circles intersect at two points, prove that their centres lie on the perpendicular bisector of the common chordTwo circles with centres A and B intersect at C and D to join CD.

CD is the chord to a circle with centre ‘A’.

∴ The perpendicular bisector drawn from the centre ‘O’ of a chord passes through the centre ‘B’ of the circle. Similarly, Cd is also the chord to the circle with centre B.

∴ The perpendicular bisector drawn from the centre ‘O’ of the chord passes the centre B of the circle.

∴ centres of the circles lie on the perpendicular bisector of the common chord.

Chapter Wise Class 9 Maths Karnataka Board Model Papers 2023 Set 5 

Question 18. △ABC and DBG are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC. S.T.
∠ABD = ∠ACD A

Solution: In ABC , AB = AC (given)

∴ ∠ABC = ∠ACB.-(1)

[Angles opp. to equal sides are equal]
△ABC and △DBG are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC

 

In ADBC,

DB = DC (given)

∴ ∠DBC = ∠DCB……..(2) [Angles opposite to equal sides are equal]

By adding (1) and (2)

∠ABC + ∠DBC = ∠ACB + ∠DCB

∴ ∠ABD = ∠ACD

Answer the following:

Question 1. In ABC and DEF, AB = DE, AB || DE,
BC = EF and BC || EF. Vertices A, B and C are joined to vertices D, E and F respectively S. T.

Parallelogram

  1. Quadrilateral ABED is a parallelogram B
  2. Quadrilateral BEFC A is a parallelogram
  3. AD || CF and AD = CF

Solution:

  1. AB = DE [Given]
    AB || DE [Given]
    If two opposite sides of a quadrilateral are equal and parallel to each other. Then it will be a parallelogram
    ∴ Quadrilateral ABED is a parallelogram.
  2. Again BC = EF and BC || EF
    ∴ Quadrilateral BCEF is a parallelogram.
  3. As we know that ABED and BEFC are parallelograms
    ∴ AD = BE and AD || BE
    and BE = CF and BE || CF
    ∴ AD = CF and AD || CF

Question 2. XY is a line parallel to the side BC of a triangle ABC. If BE || AC and CF 11 AB meet XY at E and F respectively, S.T. ar(ABE) = ar (ACE)

Solution:

XY || BC(given)

and CF||BX  (CF || AB(given))

∴ BCFX is a ||gm

(a quadrilateral is a ||gm if its opposite sides are ||le) A

∴ BC=XF (opposite sides of ||gmare equal)

⇒ BC-XY+YF……….. (1)

again XY || BC (given)

and BE || CY(BE || AC)

∴ BCYE is a ||gm

(A quadrilateral is a ||gm if its opposite sides are ||gm)

∴ BC=YE (opp. sides of a ||gm are equal)

⇒ BC=XY+XE…………… (2)

from (1) and (2)

XY+YF = XY+XE

⇒ YF = XE

XE = YF

AEX and AFY have equal bases

( XE=YF) on the same line, EF and have a common vertex A.

∴ Their altitudes are also the same.

∴ ar(AEX)=ar(AFY)…………. (4)

BEX and CFY have equal bases (XE=YF) on the same line, EF and are between the same ||les

EF and BC (XY||BC)

ar(BEX)=ar(CFY)………….(5)

Two Triangles on the same base (equal and between the same parallels are equal in the area)

Adding the corresponding sides of(4) and (5) we get

ar(EX)+ar(BEX) = ar(AFY)+ar(CFY)

∴ ar(ABE)=ar(ACF)

Karnataka State Class 9 Maths Exam Papers 2023 Set 5 

Question 3. In a city, the weekly observations made in a study on the cost of a living index are given in the following table.

The cost of a living index are given

 

The cost of a living index are given

Draw a frequency polygon for the above data. 

Solution:
Frequency polygon

Question 4. Construct a triangle PQR in which QR =6cm, ∠Q = 60° and PR – PQ = 2cm.

Solution:
Construct a triangle PQR in which QR =6cm, ∠Q = 60° and PR - PQ = 2cm

Question 5. S.T. a median of a triangle divides it into two triangles of equal areas.

Solution: Let ABC be a triangle and AD be one of its medians

ar (ABD) = 1/2 x base x altitude

=1/2 x BD x AN

= 1/2  x CD x AN (BD = CD)

= 1/2 x base x altitude(of ACD)

ar(ABD) = ar(ACD)

Question 6.Represent 2.665 on the number line

Solution:

Represent 2.665 on the number line

Answer the following:

Question 1. Draw the graph 5x + y = 8

Solution:

Scale: x-axis ; 1cm = limit y-axis ; 1cm= 1unit
Draw the graph 5x + y = 8

Question 2. Two parallel lines % and m are intersected by a transversal P. Show that the quadrilateral formed by the bisectors of interior angles is a rectangle

Solution: PS || QR and transversal p intersect them at points A and C respectively.
Two parallel lines % and m are intersected by a transversal P

The bisectors of ∠PAC and ∠ACQ intersect at B and bisectors of ∠ACR and ∠SAC intersect at D.

Now, ∠PAC = ∠ACR

∴ 1/2 ∠PAC = 1/2 ∠ACR

∠BAC = ∠ACD

Alternate angles

∴ AB || DC

Similarly, BC || AD

∴ quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram

∠PAC + ∠CAS = 180° (linear pair)

1/2 ∠PAC +1/2 ∠CAS = 1/2 x180°

∠BAC + ∠CAD = 90°

∠BAD = 90°

So, ABCD is a parallelogram in which one angle is 90°

∴ ABCD is a rectangle.

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Worksheets Set 5 For Practice 

Question 3. There is a slide in the park. One of its side walls has been painted in some colour with a message “keep the park green and clean”. If the sides of the wall are 15m, 11m and 6 m, find the area painted in colour.

Solution: The side is in the form of a triangle.

Let the sides be a = 15m, b= 11m, c = 6m

∴ \(\mathrm{S}=\frac{\mathrm{a}+\mathrm{b}+\mathrm{c}}{2}\)

\(\mathrm{S}=\frac{15+11+6}{2}\) \(S=\frac{32}{2}\)

S = 16m

Area of the triangular area =

\(\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}\) \(\begin{aligned}
& =\sqrt{16(16-15)(16-11)(16-6)} \\
& =\sqrt{16 \times 1 \times 5 \times 10} \\
& =20 \sqrt{2} \mathrm{~m}^2
\end{aligned}\)

Question 4. Find the capacity in litres of a conical vessel with

  1. Radius 7cm, slant height 25cm
  2. Height 12cm, slant height 13cm.

Solution:

1. Radius 7cm (r) slant height 25cm(l)

\(\mathrm{h}=\sqrt{\ell^2-\mathrm{r}^2}=\sqrt{25^2=7^2}=24 \mathrm{~cm}\)The volume of the conical vessel = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^2 h\)

\(=\frac{1}{\not \beta} \times \frac{22}{\not x} \times 7 \times 7 \times 24^8\)

= 1232cm3

∴ The capacity of the vessel in litres = 1232/1000

= 1.232 litres

2. h= 12cm, l = 13cm

∴ \(\mathrm{r}=\sqrt{\ell^2-\mathrm{h}^2}\)

\(\begin{aligned}
& r=\sqrt{13^2-12^2} \\
& r=\sqrt{169-144} \\
& r=\sqrt{25} \\
& r=5 \mathrm{~cm}
\end{aligned}\)

volume of the conical vessel =\(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^2 h\)

\(=\frac{1}{\not p} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 5 \times 5 \times 12^4\) \(=\frac{22 \times 25 \times 4}{7}\)

=2200/7

= 314.28cm3

∴The capacity of the vessel in litres =314.285/1000

= 0.314281itres

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Question Papers 2023 Set 2

 

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Question Papers Set 2

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete Solution along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. Which of the following is a set of rational nos.

  1. w = {0,1,2,3, }
  2. 2 = {….,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,…….}
  3. \(q=\left\{\frac{p}{q} ; p, q \in \mathrm{I}, q \neq 0\right\}\)
  4. N= {1,2,3……..}

Solution : 3. \(q=\left\{\frac{p}{q} ; p, q \in \mathrm{I}, q \neq 0\right\}\)

Question 2.The degree of the polynomial x3 + x2+ 2x + 3 is

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 0

Solution : 3. 3

Question 3.When the polynomial p(y) =y3+  y2 – 2y +1 is divided by (y + 3) then remainder is

  1. 11
  2. -11
  3. 10
  4. -10

Solution: 2. -11

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Question Papers 2023 Set 2

Question 4. The expanded form of (a -b) is

  1. a3 +b3 +3ab
  2. a3 – b3 – 3ab
  3. a3+b3 + 3a2b + 3ab2
  4. a3 -b3 +3a2b + 3ab2

Solution: 4. a3 -b3 +3a2b + 3ab2

Question 5. In fig, PQ and RS are two lines intersecting at O.
If \(\text { POR }=50^{\circ}\). find \(\text { QOS, }\)  \(\text { |POS }\)
PQ and RS are two lines intersecting at O

  1. 50°, 80°
  2. 50°, 130°
  3. 50°, 90°
  4. 50°, 100°

Solution: 2. 50°, 130°

Question 6. Area of a triangle =

  1. 1/2 x base * height
  2. 1/2 x height
  3. 1/2 x base
  4. base x height

Solution: 1. 1/2 x base x height

Class 9 Maths Model Papers Karnataka 2023 

Question 7.In fig. D is the midpoint of the side AB. DE || BC and EFIIAB. then DE =
D is the midpoint of the side AB. DE || BC and EFIIAB

  1. BC
  2. 1/2 AE
  3. 1/2 BC
  4.  1/2 FC

Solution: 3.1/2 BC

Question 8. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram. If \(\mid \mathrm{ABC}\)= 125° and |DCA – 25°, then |DAC is

  1. 125°
  2. 40°
  3. 25°
  4. 30°

Solution: 4. 30°

Question 9. If three or more points lie on the same line, then they are called _________ points.

  1. Collinear
  2. Non-collinear
  3. Intersecting
  4. Opposite

Solution: 1. Collinear

Question 10. 10a2 + 2a+ 5 is an example of

  1. Trinomial
  2. Binomial
  3. Monomial
  4. Variable

Solution: 2. Binomial

Solution the following:

Question 1. Give one example each of a binomial of degree 5 and a monomial of degree 10.
Solution:
Binomial of degree \(5-x^5+x^4\)
Monomial of degree 10 – a10

Question 2. Simplify:  \((x+\sqrt{y})(x-\sqrt{y})\)

Solution: \( (x+\sqrt{y})(x-\sqrt{y})=x^2-(\sqrt{y})^2=x^2-y\)

Question 3. Find the value of : \( \frac{11^{\frac{1}{2}}}{11^{\frac{1}{4}}}\)

Solution :  \( \frac{11^{1 / 2}}{11^{1 / 4}}=11^{1 / 2-1 / 4}=11^{\frac{2-1}{4}}=11^{1 / 4} \)

Question 4. Find the value of K, if x-1 is a factor of p(x)
=\(\mathbf{k} x^2-\sqrt{2} x+1\)

Solution :

\(\begin{aligned}
& \mathbf{p}(\boldsymbol{x})=k x^2-\sqrt{2} x+1 \\
& \mathrm{p}(1)=\mathrm{k}(1)^2-\sqrt{2}(1)+1 \\
& \mathrm{p}(1)=k-\sqrt{2}+1 \\
& 0=k-\sqrt{2}+1 \\
& \sqrt{2}-1=k
\end{aligned}\)

Question 5. Find any two solutions forx= 5y

Solution: x= 5y

x = 0, 0 = 5y

x = 1, 1= 5y

∴ y = 0        1/5 = y

(0,0)          0.2 = y

(1,0.2)

∴The two solutions are (0, 0) and (1, 0.2)

Karnataka 9th Standard Maths Sample Paper Set 2 

Question 6. Write any two postulates.

Solution:

  1. A straight line may be drawn from any one point to any other point.
  2. A circle can be drawn with any center and radius.

Question 7. In fig. find the value of x.
Find the value of x
Solution: x= 90°

Question 8. In the adjoining figure, identify and write the name of the parallel sides and the alternate angles.

Identify and write the name of the parallel sides and the alternate angles

Solution: \(\mathrm{AB}\|\mathrm{CD}, \mathrm{AD}\| \mathrm{BC} \text { and }\lfloor\mathrm{BAC}=\lfloor\mathrm{DCA}\)

Question 9. In the fig, find the value of x.
Find the value of x
Solution: x = 80°

Question 10.In the fig |CAD = 55° and |BAC = 45°, then find the |DAB

Solution: |DAB = 100°

Answer the following:

Question 1. Construct  \( \sqrt{2.7}\) on the number line
Solution:

Construct the number line

 

Question 2. Simplify : \((\sqrt{a}+7)(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{8})\)

Solution:

\(\begin{aligned}
& (\sqrt{a}+7)(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{8}) \\
& =\sqrt{a}(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{8})+7(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{8}) \\
& =(\sqrt{a})^2+\sqrt{8} a+7 \sqrt{a}+7 \sqrt{8} \\
& =a+2 \sqrt{2 a}+7 \sqrt{a}+14 \sqrt{2}
\end{aligned}\)

Question 3. Find the remainder when t4+2 t2 + 5 is divided by x – 2

Solution:

\(\begin{aligned}
\text { Let } \mathrm{p}(t) & =t^4+2 t^2+5 \\
\mathrm{p}(2) & =(2)^4+2(2)^2+5 \\
\mathrm{p}(2) & =16+8+5 \\
\mathrm{p}(2) & =29
\end{aligned}\)

Question 4. Expand(2x + 3y-5z)2 using a suitable identity.

Solution : 

\(\begin{aligned}
& (2 x+3 y-5 z)^2 \\
& (a+b+c)^2=a^2+b^2+c^2+ \\
& 2 a b+a b c+2 c a \\
& (2 x+3 y-5 z)^2=4 x^2+9 y^2+25 z^2 \\
& +12 x y-30 y z-20 x z \\
&
\end{aligned}\)

Question 5. Express x + 6y = 7 in the form of ax + by + c – 0 and indicate the values of a, b and c.

Solution:

x + 6y = 7

x + 6y – 7 = 0

ax + by + c = 0

a = 1, b = 6, c = -7

2023 Karnataka Class 9 Maths set 2 Question Paper 

Question 6.In fig. \(\mathrm{PQR}=\mathrm{PRQ}\), P then proves that \( \angle \mathrm{PQS}=\lfloor\mathrm{PRT} \)
Model Paper

Solution:

\(In fig. \mid \mathrm{PQR}=\mathrm{PRQ}\)

∴\(\quad \mathrm{PQR}+\mathrm{PQS}=180^{\circ} \ldots .(1) \text { (linear pair) }\)

Similarly \(\left\lfloor P R Q+\left\lfloor P R T=180^{\circ}\right.\right.\)

(2) (linear pair)

From (1) and (2)

\(\angle \mathrm{PQR}+\angle \mathrm{PQS}=\angle \mathrm{PQR}+\angle P R T\)

∴\(\angle \mathrm{PQS}=\angle \mathrm{PRT}(\angle \mathrm{PQR}=\angle \mathrm{PRQ})
\)

Question 7. In fig. find the values of x andy and then S.T. AB || CD 

Solution:

In the fig, 50°+ x = 180°

x = 180° — 50°

x = 130° also y = 130°

∴x = y = 130°(Alternative angle)

Since alternate angles are equal AB || CD

Question 8. The line is the bisector of an angle ∠ A and ∠ B is any point on l. BP and BQ are perpendiculars from B to the arms of |A. S.T.

  1. AAPB = AAQB
  2. BP = BQ

Solution:

In the fig line,’ l ‘ bisects ∠A,

BQ and BP are perpendicular to the arms of ∠A.

BQ and BP are perpendicular to the arms of ∠A. 
In APB and AQB

∠APB = ∠ABQ = 90° (given)

∠PAB = ∠QAB (l bisect ∠A)

AB = AB (common)

APB ≅ AQB (ASS congruence rule) BP = BQ (CPCT)

Question 9. Diagonal AC of a parallelogram ABCD bisects ∠A. S.T.

  1. It bisects ∠C also
  2. ABCD is a rhombus.

Solution:

In fig. AC bisects ∠A

∴∠DAC — ∠BAC ………. (1)

But ∠DAC — ∠BCA (Alternate angles)………….(2)

and ∠BAC — ∠DCA (Alternate angles)…………….(3)

From(1), (2), and (3)

∠BCA = ∠DCA

∴AC bisect ∠C

Also ∠DAC =  ∠DCA (From(1), (2) and (3))

∴AD = DC

But AD = BC

and DC = AB

∴AD = BC = AD = BC

∴ABCD is a rhombus

Question 10. ABC is a right-angled triangle at C. A line through the midpoint M of hypotenuse AB and parallel to BC intersects AC at D. S.T.
CM = MA = 1/2 AB

Solution:

In the fig join CM.

M is the midpoint of AB

∴ MA = 1/2 AB……………………….. (1)
ABC is a right-angled triangle at C
Now, In AMD and CMD

AD = DC

∠MDC = ∠MDA = 90°

MD = MD (common)

∴△AMD = CMD (SAS congruence rule)

CM = MA (CPCT)……………….. (2)

comparing (1) and (2)

CM = MA = 1/2 AB

Karnataka Class 9 Maths Exam Preparation Papers Set 2 

Question 11.In fig. ABCD is a parallelogram, AE⊥DC and CF ⊥ AD • If AB = 16cm, AE = 8cm and CF = 10cm d E find AD.
ABCD is a parallelogram, AE⊥DC and CF ⊥ AD
Solution:

In fig. ABCD is a parallelogram

Area of the ▱ABCD = base x height

= DC x AE

= 16 x 8

=128cm2

Area of  ▱ABCD = b x h

128 – AD x 10

AD = 128/10

AD = 12.8cm

Question 12. S.T. the diagonals of a parallelogram divide it into four triangles of equal area
Parallelogram divide it into four triangles of equal area
Solution:

ABCD is a parallelogram.

The diagonals AC and BD bisect each other at ’O’.

∴‘O’ is the midpoint of AC and BD

In ADC, DO is the median on AC.

∴ar(AOD) =ar{COD)………. (1)

In ABDC j CO is the median on BD.

∴ar(COD) = (BOC)……………….(2)

In A ABC, BO if the median on AC

∴ar(BOC) =ar(AOB)……………….. (3)

In A ABD 5, AO is the median on BD

∴ar(AOB) =ar(AOD)…………………….. (4)

comparing (1), (2), (3), and (4)

ar(AOD) =ar(COD)

=ar(BOC)=ar(AOB)

Question 13.In fig. ∠ABC-69°, ∠ACB = 31°, find ∠BDC
∠ABC-69°, ∠ACB = 31°
Solution:

In ABC

BAC +ABC +ACB = 180°

69° + 31° +BAC = 180°

100° + BAC = 180°

BAC = 180° —100°

BAC = 80°

BAC = BDC

∴ ∠BDC = 80°

Question 14. Construct the angle of 15° and verify by measuring it with a protractor.

Solution : 

Construct the angle of 15° and verify by measuring it with a protractor

Question 15. Give four examples of data that you can collect from your day-to-day life.

Solution:

  1. Number of T.V. viewers in a city
  2. The number of colleges in a city.
  3. Height of students in a class.
  4. The number of children in the country under 15 years.

Question 16. Eleven bags of wheat flour, each marked 5kg, actually contained the following weights of flour(in kg):
4.97; 5.05; 5.08; 5.03; 5.00; 5.06; 5.08; 4.98; 5.04; 5.07; 5.00 Find the probability that any. of these bags chosen at random contains more than5kg of flour.

Solution:

Total Number of bags =11

Number of bags containing more than 5 kg of flour = 7

∴ P(bags containing more than 5kg flour) = 7/11

Download Class 9 Karnataka Maths Model Papers 2023 

Question 17. If two equal chords of a circle intersect within the circle, prove that the line joining the point of intersection to the center makes equal angles with the chords.

Solution:

In the circle ‘O’ is the

center of a circle Chord AB = Chord CD

Draw OP ⊥ CD and OQ ⊥ AB

In OPE and OQE ∠OPE = ∠OQE = 90°

OE = OE (common hypotenuse)

Right AngleOPE =Triangle QOE

(RHS congruence rule)

∴ ∠OEP = ∠OEQ (CPCT)

Question 18. Identify and write the name of the quadrilateral and triangle from fig.
Quadrilateral and triangle
Solution:

Quadrilaterals ABCD and AECF

Triangles: ADF, EBC, BDC, BAD

Solution the following:

Question 1. Factorise : 27 x3 +  y3+ z3 – 9xyz

Solution:

27  x3+ y3 + z3 — 9xyz

(3x)3 + y3 + z3 — 3(3x)y

x3 +  y3+ z3 – 9xyz

(x2 + y2+z2— xy — yz — zx)

(3x)3 +y3 + z3— 3 xyz =

(3x + y + z) (9x2 + y2+z2 — 3 xy — yz — 3 zx)

Question 2. Draw the graph of x-y = 2
Solution :
Draw the graph of x-y = 2

Draw the graph of x-y = 2

Question 3. In the figure, ray OS stands on a line POQ. Ray OR and ray OT are angle bisectors of ∠POS and ∠SOQ, respectively. If ∠POS – x, find ∠ROT.

Solution:

Ray OS stands on the line POQ

∠POS + ∠SOQ = 180°

x + ∠SOQ = 180°

∠SOQ = 180°—x

∠ROS = 1/2 x∠POS

= 1/2 x x

∠ROS = x/2
Ray OS stands on the line POQ

Similarly ∠SOT = 1/2  x∠SOQ

= 1/2x (l80° —x)

∠SOT = 90° – x/2

Now, ∠ROT = ∠ROS + ∠SOT

\(=\frac{x}{2}+90^{\circ}-\frac{x}{2}\)

∠ROT = 90°

9th Standard Karnataka Maths Practice Papers 2023 

Question 4. Line segment AB is parallel to another line segment CD. D is the mid-point of AD. S.T.

  1. AOB ≅ DOC
  2. O is also the midpoint of BD.

Solution :
Line segment AB is parallel to another line segment CD. D is the mid-point of AD. S.T

  1. consider AOB and DOC
    ∠ABO =∠DCO (AB || CD)
    ∠AOB – ∠DOC(V.O.A)
    OA = OD (given)
    ∴△AOB ≅ ∠DOC (AAS rule)
  2. OB = OC (CPCT)
    ∴O is the midpoint of BC.

Question 5. In a parallelogram ABCD, E and F are the midpoints of sides AB and CD respectively. S.T. the line segments AF and EC trisect the diagonal BD.

Solution:

ABCD is a parallelogram

AB || DC and AB = DC

∴ 1/2 AB = 1/2 Dc

AE = CF and AE || CF (AB || CD)

∴ In the quadrilateral AECF

AE || CF and AE = CF

∴ AECF is a parallelogram

∴ AF || EC

In DQC , PF || QC (•.• AF || EC) and F is the midpoint of DC

∴ P is the midpoint of DQ

DQC DP = PQ…………………………… (1)

In DAP, EQ [| AP (AF || CE)

‘E’ is the midpoint of AB

∴ Q is the midpoint of BP

PQ = BQ ……………………………(2)

From (1) and (2)

DP = PQ = BQ

∴Line segments AF and EC trisect the diagonal BD.

Question 6. The inner diameter of a circular well is 3.5m. It is 10m deep. Find

  1. Its inner curved surface area,
  2. The cost of plastering this curved surface at the rate of ₹40 per nr.

Solution:

The inner diameter of the well = 3.5m

r = 3.5/2 m

  1. Inner CSA of the well = 2πrh
    = \(22 \times \frac{22}{7} \times \frac{3.5^{0.5}}{2} \times 10\)
    = 110m2
  2. cost ofplastering the inner CSA at ₹40m2 = 110×40 =₹4400

Solution the following :

Question 1. The following table gives the distribution of students in two sections according to the marks obtained by them.
Section A                                      Section B
Marks Frequency                      Marks Frequency
0-10            3                            0-10            5
10-20          9                            10-20         19
20-30          17                           20-30        15
30 – 40        12                           30-40         10
40-50            9                           40-50           1

Represent the marks of the students of both sections on the same graph by two frequency polygons. The two polygons compare the performance of the two sections.

Solution:

Scale x – axis 1cm= 5units

y-axis 1cm= 3 units
the marks of the students of both sections on the same graph by two frequency polygons

Latest Karnataka Class 9 Maths Model Papers 2023 

Question 2.Prove that the line of centers of two intersecting circles subtends equal angles at the two points of intersection

Solution: Let two circles with respective centers A and B intersect each other at points C and D.
the line of centers of two intersecting circles subtends equal angles at the two points of intersection
In A ABC and AABD AC =AD (radii)

BC = BD (radii)

AB = AB (common)

∴△ABC ≅ ABD (By SSS congruence mle)

⇒∠ACB = ∠ADB (CPCT)

Question 3.Factorise :  x3 – 3x2 – 9x – 5

Solution:

Let p(x) = x3 – 3x2 – 9x – 5

By trial, we find that p(-l) = (-1)3-3(-1)2-9(-l)-5

= -1-3+9-5

= 0

∴(x + 1) is a factor of this polynomial.

Let us find the quotient for dividing

x3 + 3x2 – 9x – 5 by (x+1) by long division method.

\(\begin{aligned}
& x+1) \frac{x^2-4 x-5}{x^6-3 x^2-9 x-5} \\
& \frac{\left.\frac{(-) x^8+x^2}{(-1}\right)}{4 x^2-9 x-5} \\
& \frac{(+) 4 x^2 \frac{-4 x}{(+)}}{-5 x-5} \\
&
\end{aligned}\)

∴ quotient= x2 -4x – 5

Now factorise the,  x3 _ 3X2 _ 9X_ 5

x2(x+l)- 4x(x+1)- 5(x+1)

= x2(x+1)- 4x(x+1)- 5(x+ 1)

= (x+l)(x2-4x-5) + (x+l)(x2– 5x+ x- 5)

= (x+ 1) {x (x- 5)+l(x- 5)}

= (x+l) (x-5) (x+l)

Question 4. Prove that “parallelograms on the same base and between the same parallels are equal in area.”
Solution:
Parallelograms on the same base and between the same parallels are equal in area

Data: Parallelogram ABCD and ABEF standing on the same base AB and between the parallels PQ and MN.

To prove : ar(ABCD) = ar(ABEF)

Proof: In ΔADF and ΔBCE

∠ADF = ∠BCE (corresponding angles)

∠AFP = ∠BEC (corresponding angles)

DF = CE

∴ ΔADF ≅ ΔBCE

ar (ΔADF ) = ar ΔBCE

consider fig. ABED

area (ABED) – area (BCE)

= area (ABED) – area (ADF)

area (ABCD) = area (ABEF)

∴area of ▱ ABCD = area of ▱ ABEF