KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 7 Mauryas And Kushans

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 History Chapter 7 Mauryas And Kushans Points To Remember

India’s first Empire was Mauryan Empire and Chandra Gupta Maurya, Bindusara and Ashoka are the important kings of this dynasty. The Mauryan dynasty was established by Chandra Gupta Maurya. Megasthenes has recorded his experiences at Patliputhra, the capital of the Maurya empire in his book ‘Indica’. ‘Arthashastra’ is written by the teacher and the Prime Minister of Chandra Gupta Maurya, Kautilya.

  • Mudrarakshasa is a Sanskrit play written by Vishaka Dutta which narrates the process of Chandra Gupta Maurya being brought into power by Kautilya.
  • Chandra Gupta came to power by dethroning the last king of the Nanda dynasty under the guidance of his teacher Kautilya at the age of twenty-five.
  • It is said that Chandra Gupta Maurya later traveled to Shravanbelagola in Karnataka along with Jain sages Bhadrabahu and others. Finally, the tradition says that he undertook ‘Sallekhana Varta’ and passed away there.
  • The most popular Emperor of India Ashoka was the governor of Ujjain and Takshashilla during his father Bindhusara’s reign.
  • Ashoka declared war on the Kalingas who refused to accept the rule of the Maurya Empire in 261BCE.
  • On being inspired by Buddhism, he dedicated his remaining life to spreading the message of ‘peace’Ashoka accepted Buddhism after the Kalinga battle and made donations to Buddhist monasteries and Viharas.
  • Ashoka wanted people to show compassion to the poor and slaves too. ‘Live and let live’ said he.
  • He appointed officers named“Dharmamahamathra’ to preach the principles of Buddhism.
  • Ashoka is called as the father of inscriptions. Till today his inscriptions are the first inscriptions to be read.
  • In 1837 C.E., a British officer James Princep deciphered Ashoka’s inscriptions for the first time. In all the inscriptions instead of his name, his titles ‘Devanmpriya’ or ‘Priyadarshi’ were used.
  • Charles Beadon a British engineer read an inscription at Maski of Raichur in 1915 C.E. In this inscription ‘Devanampriya Priyadarshi Ashoka’ reference. Appears for the first time. Based on this, it was decided that‘Devanampriya’ and ‘Priydarshi’ are the same. Later in other inscriptions, the name Ashoka appears.
  • Pushyagupta, a governor during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya had built ‘Sudarshan Sarvor’, adam in Junagadh of Gujarat.
  • Officers named ‘Samahartha’ and ‘Sanidatta’were in charge of the tax collection and were also the custodians of the royal treasury.
  • The social system was evolving out of the varna-based caste system of the Vedic period.
  • Though the society was divided into four Varnas, namely Brahmana, Kshatriyas, vaishya, and shudra, several castes were also present.
  • Officials like “Rujuka’ (Justice officer), ‘Yukta’(Information recording officer), and others were there.
  • The Kushans were the progeny of Yuchi and they defeated the Sakas and the Parthians and settled in the Gandhara region.
  • The founder of this dynasty was Kujalakadphisus. Vimakadphisus and Kanishka are the noteworthy kings of this dynasty. Kanishka established his rule in 78 C.E. and heralded a new era. This era is called the ‘Saka’era.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 7 Mauryas And Kushans

Complete the following sentences by using suitable words in the blanks:

  1. Chanakya came to be known as Kautilya.
  2. Megasthanis’s work Indica.
  3. The capital of the Mauryas was Pataliputhra.
  4. The founder of the Kushan dynasty was Kujalakadphisus.
  5. The new era of Kanishka’s reign is called the Saka era.

Mauryas And Kushans Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1. List the sources which reflect upon the history of Mauryas.
Answer:

  • Megasthenes’ Indica
  • Kautilya’s ‘Arthashastra’
  • Mudrarakshasa
  • Deepavamsha and Mahavamsha
  • Inscriptions of Ashoka

Class 8 History Mauryas And Kushans KSEEB Notes 

Question 2. Name the important cities during Ashoka’s period.
Answer: Pataliputhra, Takshashila, Ujjain, Doula, Suvarnagiri, and Gimar.

Question 3. Ashok has been named as Great by historians. Give reason.
Answer: Ashok’s most popular Emperor of India Ashoka is from this dynasty. He was the son of Bindhusara. He was the governor of Ujjain and Takshashilla during his father’s reign. He suppressed an uprising at Takshashilla. It is assumed that he ascended the throne in the year 269 B.C.E. He waged a war against Kalinga eight years later. This was the only war waged by him after becoming aking.

Question 4. Describe Ashoka’s administration.
Answer: Maurya Empire had a centralized administration system. There was a strong espionage network. Ministers, priests, princes,s and generals were the higher subordinates of the king. The Empire was divided into provinces. These were ruled by either princes or relatives of the king’s family. Takshashila, Ujjain, Doula, Suvarnagiri, and Girnar were the regional administrative centers. Officials like “Rujuka’ (Justice officer), *Yukta’(Information recording officer), and others were there. The administration of Pataliputhra was done by a group of six committees consisting of thirty officials.

Question 5. Which dynasty did the Kushans belong to?
Answer: Kushans were the progeny of Yuchi.

Question 6. What was the extent of Kanishka’s empire?
Answer: Kanishka’s rule had spread up to Sanchi in the south and Banaras in the east. His kingdom, which included Central Asia too, was a vast empire. Purushapura was his capital. Mathura was another significant town of his time.

Mauryas And Kushans Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. India’s first Empire was

  1. Mauryan Empire
  2. Gupta Empire
  3. Vardhan’s Empire
  4. Vijayanagar Empire

Answer: 1. Mauryan Empire

Question 2. The Mauryan dynasty was established by

  1. Bindusara
  2. Bimbisara
  3. Chandra Gupta Maurya
  4. Ajathashathru

Answer: 3. Chandra Gupta Maurya

Question 3. The author of ‘Indica’ is

  1. Seleucus Nicator
  2. Huien Tsang
  3. Fashion
  4. Megasthenes

Answer: 4. Megasthenes

Question 4. Arthashastra is written in

  1. Kannada
  2. Hindi
  3. Sanskrit
  4. English

Answer: 3. Sanskrit

KSEEB History Chapter 7 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 5. Ashoka organized the third Buddhist conference at

  1. Pataliputhra
  2. Kashmir
  3. Prayag
  4. Buddhagaya

Answer: 2. Kashmir

Question 6. Ashoka’s inscriptions are found in Brahmagiri of

  1. Mysore
  2. Chitradurga
  3. Bengaluru
  4. Bidar

Answer: 2. Chitradurga

Question 7. The governor of Chandra Gupta Maurya who had built ‘Sudarshan Sarvor’ was

  1. Pushyagupta
  2. Tushaspa
  3. Sanidatta
  4. Samahartha

Answer: 1. Pushyagupta

Question 8. ‘Kachhuw’ was

  1. Copper coin
  2. Golden coin
  3. Silver coin
  4. Brass coin

Answer: 3. Silver coin

Question 9.‘Rujuka’ of Maurayan Period

  1. Justice officer
  2. Information recording officer
  3. Military officer
  4. Religious officer

Answer: 1. Justice officer

Complete the following sentences by using suitable words in the blanks:

  1. Mauryan ruled from Magda
  2. The capital of the Maurya Empire was Patliputhra
  3. ‘Arthashastra’ is written by Kautilya
  4. The teacher of Chandra Gupta Maurya was Kautilya
  5. The Sanskrit play written by Vishaka Dutta was Mudrarakshasa.
  6. The scholar who discovered the manuscript of Kautilya’s Arthashastra was R.Shamashastri
  7. Yukta of the Mauryan Period was an Information recording officer
  8. The Yuchi factions became united under the leadership of Kujalakadphisus
  9. The capital of the Mauryan Empire was Purushapura

Mauryas And Kushans Answer the following questions in a sentence:

Question 1. Which dynasty did the Kushans belong to?
Answer: The Kushans belonged to the Yuchi dynasty

Question 2. Why was Dharmamahamathra appointed?
Answer: Ashoka appointed officers called‘Dharmamahamathra’ to preach the principles of Buddhism.

Question 3. Who is called as the father of inscriptions?
Answer: Ashoka is called as the father of inscriptions.

Question 4. What is discussed in Deepavamsha and Mahavamsha?
Answer: These two are Srinlankan literary works. They narrate the efforts of Ashoka to spread Buddhism in Srilanka.

KSEEB Class 8 History Chapter 7 Questions And Answers 

Question 5. Who started the ‘Saka’ era?
Answer: Kanishka established his rule in 78 C.E. and heralded a new era called the ‘Saka’ era

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1. How does Megasthenes’ Indica help historians to write about Mauryans?
Answer: Megasthenes was in India as the ambassador of the Greeks in the court of Chandragupta Maurya. He has recorded his experiences at Patliputhra, the capital of the Maurya empire in his book ‘Indica’. ‘Indica’ reveals the city administration and social and religious life of the Maurya period.

Question 2.‘Arthashastra’ is the handbook of the Mauryan administration. Justify.
Answer:‘Arthashastra’ is written by the teacher and the Prime Minister of Chandra Gupta Maurya, Kautilya. It outlines the basic principles on administration, foreign affairs, and judicial duties that a king ought to know. By reading this book, one can understand the politics, economy, administration, society, and other aspects of the Maurya period.

Question 3. Why did Ashoka decide not to wage war after the Kalinga war?
Answer: Ashoka declared war on Kalinga eight years after Gupta Maurya assumed the throne. In this battle one lakh fifty

Question 4. Explain the achievements of Chandra Gupta Maurya
Answer: Chandra Gupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire. He defeated last king of the Nanda dynasty at the Kalinga was won by Ashoka, he was disturbed age twenty-five. He declared war against Seleucus Nicator and the battle ended in an agreement. Seleucus gave few places including today’s Afghanistan and Baluchistan to Chandra Gupta On being inspired by Buddhism, he dedicated Maurya. his remaining life to spreading the message of Chandra Gupta Maurya married his daughter.

Question 5. Explain the relationship between Seleucus and Chandra Gupta Maurya.
Answer: In 305 B.C.E., Chandra Gupta Maurya declared battle war against Seleucus Nicator and the battle ended in an agreement. According to it, Seleucus handed over four territories that included today’s Afghanistan and Baluchistan to Chandra Gupta Maurya. Moreover, he married his daughter to him.

Question 6. Chandra Gupta Maurya’s name is associated with Shravanabelagola. Why?
Answer: As per a Jain tradition, it is said that Chandra Gupta Maurya handed over his reign to his son Bindhusara after accepting Jainism in his last days. It is said that he later traveled to Shravanabelagola in Karnataka along with Jain sages Bhadrabahu and others. Finally, the tradition says that he undertook ‘Sallekhana Varta’ and passed away there.

Question 7. Why did Ashoka decide not to wage war after the Kalinga war?
Answer: Ashoka declared war on Kalinga eight years after assuming the throne. In this battle one lakh fifty thousand prisoners were taken. One lakh people died. Many more became refugees. Though Kalinga was won by Ashoka, he was disturbed by the deaths and the pain of the battle. And he decided not to wage war thereafter. He considered victory of religion is better than victory in the battlefield. He went into repentance on seeing the devastation created by the war. On being inspired by Buddhism, he dedicated his remaining life to spreading the message of ‘peace’.

Question 8. How was Buddhism spread by Ashoka?
Answer: Ashoka accepted Buddhism after the Kalinga battle. He made donations to Buddhist monasteries and Viharas. He appointed officers named ‘Dharmamahamathra’ to preach the principles of Buddhism. He installed inscriptions all across the kingdom to preach the messages of Buddhism. Preachers were sent to other countries as well. A person named Rakshita was sent to Banavasi and another person by name ‘Mahadeva’ was sent to Mahishamandala (Mysuru). He also sent his son Rahula and daughter Sangamithre to Srilanka. In 250 B.C.E., he organized the third Buddhist conference at Pataliputhra.

Mauryas And Kushans KSEEB Class 8 Textbook Solutions 

Question 9. Explain the Economic System during the Maurya period.
Answer: There are evidence that proves that the lake and canal system of irrigation was good during the Maurya period. Pushyagupta had built ‘Sudarshan Sarvor’,adam in Junagadh of Gujarat. An officer named ‘Tushaspa’ built the canal system for ‘Sudarshan Sarvor’dam Prisoners of war and slaves were engaged in agricultural activities. Land tax was the main source of revenue for the state. ‘Samahartha’ and ‘ Sanidatta’ were in charge of the tax collection The technology of producing metal ‘Alloys’had evolved during the reign of Mauryas. Merchants were transporting goods on these roads to sell within and outside the empire.‘Kachhu’ marked silver coins were in circulation in the Maurya Kingdom.

Question 10. Explain the Social System of the Mauryan Period.
Answer: The social system was evolving out of the varna-based caste system of the Vedic period. Brahmana, Kshatriyas, vaishya, and shudra, several castes were also present. Megasthenes records the presence of seven castes in Mauryan society in his Indica. The Buddhist sources also confirm the existence of castes. The caste system had started assuming rigidity during the Maurya period itself. Indica does not record the existence of slaves’ and ‘dasas’ in Mauryan society. Slavery was less harsh than slavery of Greek and Roman societies. Shudras, the last in the varna system, were employed as agricultural laborers and domestic help.

Question 11.Explain the contribution of Maurayans to the field of Art and Architecture
Answer: Megasthanese’s ‘Indica’ records the grandeur of Maurya’s palace in Patliputhra.Maurayans constructed the wooden Palace and the fort around the palace in Pataliputhra‘Stupas’ were built and ‘pillars’ were erected. Our national emblem of a four-headed lion is taken from the Ashoka pillar of Saranath. Ashoka built three rock-cut caves at Baarbar hill. His son Dasharatha, built three more rock-cut caves at Nagaruni hills.

Question 12. How did Kushanas establish their power in India?
Answer: Kushanas were basically from a nomadic tribe that had migrated to India from Central Asia. The Kushans defeated the Sakas and the Parthians and settled in the Gandhara region. The founder of this dynasty was Kujalakadphisus. The Yuchi factions became united under the leadership of Kujalakadphisus. Kujalakadphisus crossed the Hindukush range and settled in Kabul and Kashmir. Vimakadphisus brought out gold coins into circulation.

Question 13. What were the measures undertaken to spread Buddhism by Kanishka?
Answer: Buddhism could prosper much more than before due to the patronage given by Kanishka.Kanishka patronage Buddhist scholars like Aswagosha, Vasumitra, and Sangaraksha. He organized the fourth Buddhist conference at Kashmir. Kanishka sent missions to Central Asia and China to spread Buddhism.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 11 The Rashtrakutas Of ManyaKheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 History Chapter 11 The Rashtrakutas Of ManyaKheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana Points To Remember

  • The Rashtrakutas were the feudatory kings of the Chalukyas in the beginning.
  • The kingdom which began with Dantidurga continued with Krishna, Govinda II, Dhruva, Govinda III, Amoghavarsha and others, and reached its peak.
  • The ports of the west coast were busy trading centres and enjoyed great prosperity by developing trade relations with Persia and Arabian.
  • The Arab traveller Sulaiman has praised Amoghavarsha as ‘One of the four powerful emperors of the World.’
  • Amoghavarsha was brave and peace-loving and encouraged all faiths.
  • The Mahasandhivigrahi was appointed to look after the foreign affairs.
  • For the purpose of administrative convenience, (the lie kingdom was divided into Rashtra (Mandal1, Vishaya, Nadu and Grama.
  • The leader of the grama was called gramapati or prabhugavunda.
  • The vishayapati and the Rashtrapati were the officers for the vaishya or the district and the Rashtra respectively.
  • Trivikrama wrote Nalachampu, the first champu work in Sanskrit literature. Hal yudha wrote ‘Kavirahasya’. Jinasena, mathematician Mahaveeracharya, grammarian Shakatayana, Gunabhadra, and Veerasena were in Amoghavarsha’s court.
  • Pampa, known as Adikavi wrote Adipurana and Vikramaij unavij aya in Kannada.
  • The Kannada University, Hampi, has been awarding the title of Nadoja in memory of the first poet, Pampa, to great achievers in Karnataka every year.
  • The Kailashnath temple at Ellora built by Krishna I is a monolithic wonder. This temple has been carved from a rock 100 feet high, 276 feet long and 154 feet wide. Nearby is the famous Dashavatara cave temple.
  • The credit for building a new city called Kalyana and making it the capital goes to Someshwara-I.
  • The notable works of the Chalukyas period are ‘Gadayuddha’ (Sahasa Bheema Vijay1 written by Ranna, ‘Panchatantra’ written by Durgasimha, ‘Vikramankadeva Charita’ composed by Bilhana, ‘Dharmamruta’ composed by Nayasena and the legal work, ‘Mitakshara’, authored by Vignaneshwara. ‘Manasollasa’ written by King Someshwaralll is considered a Sanskrit encyclopaedia.
  • Queen Chandralekha patronised many music scholars and dancers. ‘Manasollasa’ and the workofJagadekamallall ‘SangeetaChudamani’ discuss many topics related to music, dance, art and jewellery.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 11 The Rashtrakutas Of ManyaKheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana

The Rashtrakutas Of ManyaKheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana Exercises

Fill in the blanks :

1. The founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty was Dantidurga.
2. The Chalukya king of Kalyana who was responsible for the defeat of the Rashtrakutas was Tailapa-II.
3. The author of4 Kavirahasya’ is Halyudha.
4. The famous poem written by Ponna is Shanti Parana.
5. The most famous king among the Kalyana Chalukyas was Someshwara-1
6. The person who can be called ‘the pioneer of the social revolution’ is Sri Jagajyoti Basaveshwara

Class 8 History The Rashtrakutas of Manyakheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana KSEEB Notes 

The Rashtrakutas Of ManyaKheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana Answer the following questions:

Question 1. How was the administrative system of the Rashtrakutas?
Answer: The kingship was hereditary. The kingdom was divided into provinces (mandal1 and small provinces (Nadu). There were Campanas (today’s hobli) to enable the smooth functioning of the administration of villages.

Question 2. Write about the educational system under the Rashtrakutas.
Answer: Agraharas and maths were the prominent educational centres in those days. Knowledge was imparted about Sanskrit, the Vedas, astrology, logic and the Puranas. Salotgi in the Hindi taluk of Bijapur district was one of the leading centres of learning.

Question 3. Write about the Ellora temple.
Answer: The Kailashnath temple at Ellora built by Krishna I is a monolithic wonder. This temple has been carved from a rock 100 feet high, 276 feet long and 154 feet wide.

Question 4. How did the Kalyan Chalukyas encourage literature?
Answer: Kannada literature prospered with the support of Jain scholars. The notable works of this period are ‘Gadayuddha’ (Sahasa Bheema Vijay1 written by Ranna, Panchayat antra’ written by Durgasimha, ‘Vikramankadeva Charita’ composed by Bilhana, ‘Dharmamruta’ composed by Nayasena and the legal work, ‘Mitakshara’, authored by Vignaneshwara. ‘Manasollasa’ written by King Someshwara III is considered a Sanskrit encyclopaedia.

The Rashtrakutas Of ManyaKheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The first Kannada work is
1)Kaviraja Marga
2)Nalachampu
3)Kavirahasya
4)Adipurana
Answer: 1) Kaviraja Marga

Question 2. The Arab traveller who praised Amoghavarsha’s kingdom was
1)AbudalRazak
2)Alberuni
3)Sulaiman
4)Abul Faizi
Answer: 3) Sulaiman

Question 3. Mahasandhivigrahi was appointed to look after
1)The foreign affairs
2)The military affairs
3)The marketing affairs
4)The local administration
Answer: 1)The foreign affairs

Question 4. The leader of the grama was called
1)Prabhugavunda
2)Nadagavunda
3)Prajagavunda
4)Rajagavunda
Answer: 1) Prabhugavunda

KSEEB History Chapter 11 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 5.The poet who assumed the title Adikavi was
1)Pampa
2)Ponna
3)Ranna
4)Halyudha
Answer: 1 Pampa

Question 6. The new city called Kalyana was built by
1)Someshwara-I
2)Karka -II
3)Vikramaditya-VI
4)Someshwara-I
Answer: 1) Someshwara-I

Question 7. The king who defeated Rajadhiraja Chola in ‘Koppam’ was
1)Someshwara-I
2)Karka -II
3)Vikramaditya-VI
4)Someshwara-II
Answer: 1) Someshwara-I

The Rashtrakutas Of ManyaKheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana Answer the following questions in a sentence or two sentences:

Question 1. Name the famous kings of the Rashtrakutas.
Answer: The kingdom which began with Dantidurga, continued with Krishna, Govinda II, Dhruva, Govinda III, Amoghavarsha and others, and reached its peak.

Question 2. How did Amoghavarsha get rid of the enmity with the Gangas and the Pallavas?
Answer: Amoghavarsha got rid of the enmity by developing marital relations with the Gangas and the Pallavas.

Question 3. How was the relationship between Amoghavarsha and Arabs?
Answer: The ports of the west coast were busy trading centres and enjoyed great prosperity by developing trade relations with Persia and Arabian.
Arabian.

Question 4. How were the Rashtrakutas rule ended?
Answer: The weakness in administration during the period of Karka II paved the way for the rise of his feudatory ruler Tailapa II of the Kalyana Chalukyas and brought the end of the Rashtrakutarule.

Class 8 History Chapter 11 Guide On The Rashtrakutas Of Manyakheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana KSEEB 

Question 5. What were the sources of Income for the Rashtrakutas?
Answer: Land revenue, the toll on goods, houses, shops, and tax on occupations like operating ferries, formed the income of the kingdom. Foreign trade also brought in lot of taxes

Question 6.Who was ‘Kaditavergade’ ?
Answer: There was an officer called ‘Kaditavergade’ appointed to look after the collection of land revenue.

The Rashtrakutas Of ManyaKheta And The Chalukyas Of Kalyana Answer the following questions in four to six sentences:

Question 1. How was the administrative system of the Rashtrakutas?
Answer: The kingship among the Rashtrakutas was hereditary. There used to be a Council of Ministers to assist the King There would be a prominent person in the Council of Ministers appointed as the Mahasandhivigrahi to look after foreign affairs. For the purpose of administrative convenience, the kingdom was divided into Rashtra (Mandal1, Vishaya, Nadu and Grama. The leader of the grama was called gramapati or prabhugavunda. He was the leader of the village army too. He was assisted by the village accountant. There were grama sabhas also. There used to be an official called nadagavundain the nidus. Similar officials would be there in the vi shay as an ashtray. The vishayapati and the Rashtrapati were the officers for the vaishya or the district and the Rashtra respectively.

Question 2. How was rural administration organised?
Answer: The leader of the grama was called gramapati or prabhugavunda. He was the leader of the village army too. He was assisted by the village accountant. There were grama sabhas also. There used to be an official called nadagavunda in the nidus. Similar officials would be there in the Visayas and rashers.

Question 3. Explain the contribution of the Rashtrakutas to the field of literature.
Answer: The Rashtrakutas encouraged both Kannada and Sanskrit. Excellent works were written in Sanskrit. Trivikrama wrote Nalachampu, the first champu work in Sanskrit literature. Hal yudha wrote ‘Kavirahasya’. Jinasena, mathematician Mahaveeracharya, grammarian Shakatayana, Gunabhadra, and Veerasena were in Amoghavarsha’s court. Pampa, known as Adikavi wrote Adipurana and Vikramarjunavijaya in Kannada. Ubhayakavi Ponna composed ‘Shanti Purana’. Shrivijaya, who was in the court of Amoghavarsha, wrote ‘Kavirajamarga’.

Question 4. How was the education system in the Rashtrakuta period?
Answer: Agraharas and maths were the prominent educational centres in those days. Knowledge was imparted about Sanskrit, the Vedas, astrology, logic and the Puranas. Salotgi inland taluk of Bijapur district was one of the leading centres of learning.

KSEEB Class 8 Rashtrakutas And Chalukyas Study Materials 

Question 5. Explain the contribution of the Rashtrakuta to religion.
Answer: The Rashtrakuta kings were devotees of Shiva and Vishnu, and built many Shiva and Vishnu temples. Jainism had received royal patronage and became a widespread religion.

Question 6. The Kailashnath temple is a monolithic wonder. Justify
Answer: The Kailashnath temple at Ellora built by Krishna I is a monolithic wonder. This temple has been carved from a rock 100 feet high, 276 feet long and 154 feet wide

Question 7. Explain the administrative arrangements of Chalukyas of Kalyana.
Answer: Like the Chalukyas of Badami, the Chalukyas of Kalyana too have made special contributions in various fields. The kingship was hereditary. The kingdom was divided into provinces (mandal1 and small provinces (nadu). There were Campanas (today’s hobli) to enable the smooth functioning of the administration of villages.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 12 The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 History Chapter 12 The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra Points To Remember

  • According to Sangam literature, Karikala Chola is the founder of this dynasty. Vijayalaya Chola revived the kingdom and made Thanjavur as his capital.
  • Rajaraja I was a brave, great warrior and able administrator. As the founder of the Chola empire, he strengthened its foundations and expanded his kingdom.
  • The Brihadeeshwara temple built by Rajaraja Chola I in Thank savior is a very famous one.
  • The Chola empire weakened during the period of Rajendra Chola III, and the Pandyas could overpower them easily.
  • There was a committee of subjects called Ur in every village.
  • The grama sabhas were the first sabhas. Tara- kurram was a village. Every Khurram had a village committee named Mahasabha. This was also called perumguri and its members perumakkal.
  • The Cholas constructed many lakes, and the Bellandur lake near Bangalore is one of these. They built a huge pond in Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
  • The Brihadeeshwara temple in Thanjavur is 500 feet tall and it is in a courtyard 250 feet wide. Its shikhara is 200 feet tall. The Choleshwara temple was built by Raj endurance.
  • Ramayana written by Kamba, Periya Purana composed by Sekkilar, and Thirukkadeva’s Jeevika Chintamani was the important works.
  • The founder of this dynasty, Sala, on the order of a Jain monk, Sudatta, fought with a tiger and, killed it near Sosevuru village (today’s Angadi)in Mudigere taluk of Chikmagalur district Vishnuvardhana was tired important Hoysala king who came after Nrupakama, Ereyanga, and Ballala.
  • Vishnuvardhana won Gangavadi from the Cholas and earned the title ‘Talakadugonda’. In order to commemorate this victory, he built the Kirtinarayan temple in Talakadu and the Chennakeshava (Vijayanarayan1 temple at Belur.
  • Ramanujacharya could not spread the message ofVishishtadvaita sect in the Chola kingdom and come to Bittideva’s (Vishnuvardhan1 court, and under his patronage, spread his faith in the whole of Karnataka.
  • In the villages, there used to be the representatives of the government like the Gowda, senabova, talawaraand others.
  • A unique feature of this society was that the king used to have a special army of guards called; garuda’. When the king died, these guards would also sacrifice their lives.
  • Rudrabhatta wrote ‘JagannathaVijaya’, the great poet Janna wrote ‘Yashodhara Charite’, Harihara composed the Champu poem ‘Girija Kalyana’, Raghavanka authored ‘Harishchandra Kavya’ and Keshiraja wroteShabdamani Darpana’. Even in Sanskrit, memorable works composed were Sreebhasya by Ramanujacharya and Parasharabhatta, composed Sri Guna Ratnakosha.
  • There are beautiful idols of Madanikas (Shilabalikas) on the brackets of the pillars of the Chennakeshava temple at Belur.
  • The military general, Ketamalla, built the Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebidu.
  • The Keshava temple constructed by Somadandanayaka at Somanathapura is famous.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 12 The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra

The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra Exercises

The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra Fill in the blanks:

1. The capital of the Cholas was Thanjavur.
2. The committee of the subjects in every village during the period of the Cholas was Ur
3. The most famous Chola educational center or agrahara was Uttaramerur
4. The temple in Begur near Bangalore built by the Cholas was the Choleshwara temple.
5. The army of bodyguards during the time of the Hoysalas was garuda.
6. The poem written by Raghavanka was Harishchandra Kavya.

The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra Answer, in brief, the following questions.

Question 1. Who was the founder of the Chola kingdom?
Answer: Karikala Chola was the founder of the Chola kingdom.

Class 8 History The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra KSEEB Notes 

Question 2. Write a note on the significant features of the Chola administration.
Answer: The Cholas had set up an able and efficient administrative system. The kingdom had been divided into mandalam, kotwangi, Nadu, Khurram, or community of villages, and tara-Khurram. There was a committee of subjects called Ur in every village.

Question 3. Describe the encouragement given by the Hoysalas to literature.
Answer: Kannada literature flourished immensely. Rudrabhatta wrote ‘JagannathaVijaya’, the great poet Janna wrote4 Yashodhara Charite’, Harihara composed the Champu poem4 Girij a Kalyana’, Raghavanka authored ‘Harishchandra Kavya’ and Keshiraja wrote ‘Shabdamani Darpana’. Even in Sanskrit, memorable works composed were Sreebhasya by Ramanujacharya and Parasharabhatta, composed by Sri Guna Ratnakosha.

The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The Cholas were the subordinates of the
1) Pallavas
2) Chalukyas
3) Hoysalas
4) Pandyas
Answer: 1) Pallavas

Question 2. The founder of the Chola dynasty was
1) Karikala Chola
2) Vijayalaya Chola
3) Raj araj a Chola I
4) Rajendra Chola
Answer: 1) Karikala Chola

Question 3. Ur means a
1)committee
2) village
3) city
4) fort
Answer: 1) committee

Question 4. The Bellandur lake near Bangalore was built by the
1)Pallavas
2)Chalukyas
3)Cholas
4)Pandyas
Answer: 3) Cholas

KSEEB Class 8 History Chapter 12 Questions And Answers 

Question 5. The Choleshwara temple was built by
1 Karikala Chola
2) Vijayalaya Chola
3) Raj araj a Chola I
4) Rajendran Chola
Answer: 4) Rajendran Chola

Question 6.Periya Purana composed by
1) Sekkilar
2) Kamba
3) Thirukkadeva
4) Rudrabhatta
Answer: 1) Sekkilar

Question 7. The important Hoysala king was
1) Ereyanga
2) Nrupakama
3) Ballala
4) Vishnuvardhana
Answer: 4) Vishnuvardhana

The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra Answer the following questions in a sentence each:

Question 1. Which was the capital of the Hoysalas?
Answer: Dwarasamudra was the capital of the Hoysalas

Question 2. Who were garudas?
Answer: A unique feature of this society was that the king used to have a special army of guards called ‘garuda’.

Question 3. How were the Cholas rule ended?
Answer: The Chola empire weakened during the period of Rajendra Chola III, and the Pandyas could overpower them easily.

The Cholas and Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra KSEEB Class 8 Textbook Solutions 

Question 4. Who was the founder of the Chola kingdom?
Answer: Karikala Chola was the founder of the Chola kingdom.

The Cholas And Hoysalas Of Dwarasamudra Answer, in brief, the following questions:

Question 1. How was Cholas’ village administration?
Answer: The gramasabha dealt with the problems of the village. The gramabhojaka looked after the village administration.

Question 2. Write a short note on the Brihadeeshwara temple of Thanjavur.
Answer: The Brihadeeshwara temple in Thanjavur is 500 feet tall and it is in a courtyard 250 feet wide. Its shikhara is 200 feet tail. The Choleshwara temple was built by Rajendran.

Question 3. What were the achievements of Rajaraia Chola 
Answer: Rajaraja I strengthened its foundations and expanded his kingdom. He overpowered the Cheras, Gangas, and Pandyas. He captured Sri Lanka by building a naval force. He built the Brihadeeshwara temple in Thanjavur.

KSEEB Class 8 Cholas And Hoysalas Study Materials 

Question 4. How did the Hoysalas get their name?
Answer: The founder of this dynasty Sala, on the order of a Jain monk, Sudatta, fought with a tiger and, killed it near Sosevuru village (today’s Angadi) in Mudigere taluk of Chikmagalur district. It inspired the people to exclaim Tloysala!’, and he established this empire.

Question 5. What were the achievements of Vishnuvardhana?
Answer: Vishnuvardhana was the important Hoysala king He won Gangavadi from the Cholas and earned the title Talakadugonda’. In order to commemorate this victory, he built the Kirtinarayan temple in Talakadu and the Chennakeshava (Vijayanarayan1 )temple at Belur. He tried to expand his kingdom but was defeated by the Chalukyan king Vikramaditya VI.

Question 6. How did Vishnuvardhana help Ramanujachrya?
Answer: Ramanuj acharya could not spread the message ofVishishtadvaita sect in the Chola kingdom and come to Bittideva’s (Vishnuvardhan1 court, and under his patronage, spread his faith in the whole ofKamataka.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 10 The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 History Chapter 10 The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi Points To Remember

  • The Chalukya dynasty occupies an important position in the history of South India and is one of the most powerful dynasties in India.
  • Raja Jayasimha is the founder of the Chalukya dynasty.
  • The most powerful and noteworthy emperor of this dynasty is Pulakeshi II.
  • When Ilarshavardhana, who was ruling in North India, he advanced up to the banks of river Narmada, Pulakeshi stopped him and earned the titles of’Dakshinapatheshwara’ and ‘Lord of the Peninsula’ for his daring act.
  • Arab historians report that Pulakeshi II had diplomatic relations with the Persian king, Khusru II.
  • The Chalukyas were the ones who gave the name ‘Karnataka’ to this land.
  • The kingdom was divided into districts called vishaya and the vishayadhipati used to look after it
  • The Sanskrit scholars of this time are Ravikirti, Vijjika, and Akalanka. Kaumudi Mahotsav was written by Pulakeshi II’s daughter-in-law, poetess Vijjika, and Hara Parvatiya of Shivabhattaraka are important Sanskrit drama.
  • The evolution of the series of temple architecture has first been experimented with here. This style found its full expression at Pattadakallu.
  • The Pallavas are the first kings of Tamilnadu.
  • The Pallavas and the Kadambas harbored perpetual enmity towards each other. Subsequently, Pulakeshi II of the Chalukya dynasty defeated Mahendravarma of the Pallava dynasty.
  • Narasimhavarma built a city on the sea coast near Kanchi and named it Mahabalipuram.
  • Bharavi (the author of Kirataijuniya) and Dandi (the author of Dashakumar Charita) were the poets in the Pallava court.
  • King Mahendravarma himself wrote a social drama, ‘Matta Vila-sa Prahasana’ and a book Bhagavadujjuka. This age witnessed the rise of the Bhakti movement. It also supported the renaissance of the Vedic religion. Slokas were written in Tamil. These have become tire treasures of Tamil literature.
  • Pancharathas are famous monolithic temples. The carving of ‘Arjuna’s Meditation’ has emerged as an excellent work of art.
  • The temples ofKailasanath, Ekambamath, and Vaikurita Perumal at Kanchi, and the coastal temple at Mahabalipuram are excellent examples of ancient Indian architecture.
  • The Pallavas had a good naval force. Merchants had trade relations with South Asian countries like Malaya, Indonesia, and others.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 10 The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi

The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi Exercises

The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi Fill in the blanks:

1. The Pallava king who was defeated by Pulakeshi is Mahendravarma.
2. The dynasty which gave the name Karnataka is the Chalukyas of Badami.
3. The writer of the Sanskrit drama Hara Parvatiya is Shivabhattaraka.
4. The Pallava king who earned the title Vatapikonda is Narasimhavarma I.
5. The painting The Meditation of Arjuna is in Mahabalipuram.

Class 8 History The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi KSEEB Notes 

The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1. How did Pulakeshi II extend his empire?
Answer: The most powerful and noteworthy emperor of the Chalukya dynasty is Pulakeshi II. Overpowering the Gangas, Kadambas, and /or VI upas, he emended his empire. The Pallavas were at the peak of glory in South Deccan. Since Mahendravarma did not accept the sovereignty of Pulakeshi, Pulakeshi defeated him. When Harshavardhana, who was smiling in North India, he advanced upto the banks of river Narmada, Pulakeshi stopped hint and earned The titles of ‘Dakshinapatheshwara’ and ‘Lord of the Peninsula’ for his daring act.

Question 2. Describe the administrative system of the Chalukyas.
Answer: The king was actively involved in administration. The kingdom was divided into districts called vishaya and the vishayadhipati used to look after it. The village was the smallest unit of the administration. The village leaders looked after the village accounts.

Question 3. The Chalukyas were lovers of literature. Explain with examples.
Answer: The Chalukyas of Badami patronized literature. Kannada and Sanskrit developed very well. The Tripodi form of poetry came into existence. There are many inscriptions written in Kannada. One of the poems in the inscription of Kappe Arabhatta of Badami is in tripod form. Ravikirti, Vi y Oca, and Akalanka were Sanskrit scholars. Kaumudi Mahotsav was written by Vijjika, Hara Parvatiya of Shivabhattaraka are important Sanskrit drama.

Question 4. Name the Pallava kings who ruled from Kanchi.
Answer: Shivaskandavarma, Mahendravarma, and Narasimhavarma J were the Pallava kings

Question 5. How did the Pallavas encourage Sanskrit and Tamil?
Answer: The Pallavas encouraged both Sanskrit and Tamil. Kanchi was the center of Sanskrit literature. Bharavi (the author of Kiratarjuniya) and Dandi (the author of Dashakumar Charita) were the poets in the Pallava court. King Mahendravarma himself wrote a social drama, ‘Matta Vila-sa Prahasana’ and a book Bhagavadujjuka.

The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The founder of the Chalukyas dynasty was
1) Raja Jayasimlia
2) Pulakeshi H
3) PulaTakeshi I
4) Mangalesh
Answer: 1) Raja Jayasimha

Question2. The most powerful and noteworthy emperor of the Chalukyas dynasty is
1) Jayaslmha
2) Pulakesiii II
3) Pulakeshi I
4) Mangalesh
Answer: 2) Pulakesiii II

Question 3. Kaumudi Mahotsav was written by
1) Vijjika
2) Ravikirti
3) Kappe Arabhatta
4) Akalanka
Answer: 1) Vijjika

Question 4. The writer of the Play Hara Parvatiya is
1) Vijjika
2) Ravikirti
3) Shivabhattaraka
4) Akalanka
Answer: 3) Shivabhattaraka

Question 5. The first kings of Tamilnadu was the
1) Pallavas
2) Choias
3)Pandyas
4) Cheras
Answer: 1) Pallavas

KSEEB History Chapter 10 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 6. The first king of the Pallava dynasty was
1) Shivaskandavarma
2) Narasimhavarma I
3) Narasimhavarma II
4) Mahendravarman
Answer: 1) Shivaskandavarma

Question 7. Bhars’Livrote
1) Kiratai Duniya
2) Dash; Kumar Charita.
3) Malta Viiasa Prahasana
4) Rajatarangini
Answer: 1) Kiratarjuniya

Question 8. The author of Dashakumar Charita was
1) Card i
2) Bharavi
3) Mahendravarma
4) Narasimhavarrnan
Answer: 1) Dandi

Question 9. The authorof‘Matta Vila-saPrahasana’was
1) Dandi
2)Bharavi.
3) Mahendravarma
4) Narasimhavarrnan
Answer: 3) Mahendravarma

The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi Answer the following questions in one sentence or two sentences each:

Question 1. Which were the titles assumed by Pulakeshi II?
Answer: Pulakeshi II earned the titles of ‘Dakshinapatheshwara’ and ‘Lord of the Peninsula’ for his daring act.

Question 2. How was the relationship of Pulakeshi II with foreign kings?
Answer: Pulakeshi II was an optimistic emperor. He had friendly relations with foreign kings too. Arab historians report that he had diplomatic relations with the Persian king, Khusru II.

Question 3. How did the Pallavas become independent?
Answer: In the beginning, Pallavas were the officials of the Shatavahanas. When the Shatavahana dynasty declined, the Pallavas declared themselves kings of the territory.

Question 4. Which were the titles assumed by Narasimhavarrnan?
Answer: Mahamalla and Vatapikonda were the titles assumed by Narasimhavarrnan

Question 5. Which was city built by Narasimhavarma?
Answer: Mahabalipuram was city built by Narasimhavarma

Class 8 History Chapter 10 Guide On The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi KSEEB 

Question 6. How was the rule of Pallavas ended?
Answer: During the reign of Aparajita Pallava, Aditya of the Chola dynasty put an end to the Pallava me.

The Chalukyas Of Badami And The Pallavas Of Kanchi Answer the following questions in four to six sentences each:

Question 1. Pulikesh II was the most powerful king of Chalukyas of Badami. Justify.
Answer: The most powerful and noteworthy emperor of the Chalukya dynasty is Pulakeshi n. Overpowering the Gangas, Kadambas, and Alupas, he extended his empire. The Pallavas were at the peak of glory in South Deccan. Since Mahendravarma did not accept the sovereignty of Pulakeshi, Pulakeshi defeated him. When Harshavardhana, who was ruling in North India, he advanced upto the banks of river Narmada, Pulakeshi stopped him and earned the titles of ‘Dakshinapatheshwara’ and ‘Lord of the Peninsula’ for his daring act.

Question 2. How was the relationship of Pulakeshi II with the Pallava Kings?
Answer: Pulakeshi II of the Chalukya dynasty defeated Mahendravarma of the Pallava dynasty. Narasimhavarma I who came later was the most famous of the Pallava kings. He took revenge on the Chalukyas by defeating Pulakeshi II and capturing Vatapi.

Question 3. Explain the contribution of the Chalukyas to the religion.
Answer: The Chalukyas encouraged all traditions and sects like that of the Shaivas, Vaishnavas, and Jains. They supported the construction of Jain temples and Buddhist viharas too.

Question 4. Explain the administrative arrangements of the Pallavas.
Answer: They introduced systematic administration in Tamil Nadu. Their kingdom was strong and organized. There were ministers and provincial officers. The kingdom had been divided into a mandala, Nadu, and grama. The grama sabha dealt with the problems of the village. The gramabhojaka looked after the village administration.

Question 5. Explain the contribution of the Chalukyas to Art and Architecture.
Answer: The Chalukyas of Badami built beautiful temples at Badami, Aihole and Pattadakallu. They developed ‘The Chalukya Style’ in Indian architecture. They built cave temples in the rocks of Badami. The best temples in the Chalukya style are in Aihole and Pattadkallu. Aihole was one of the cradles of temple architecture. Lokeshwara (Virupaksha) and Trilokeshwara (Mallikarjuna) are the famous temples. Sculptures of Vishnu, Varaha, Harihara, and Ardhanarishwara in the caves of Badami are unique. The Aj anta paintings of this period are world-famous.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 South India(From 3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E)

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 History Chapter 9 South India(From 3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E) Points To Remember

The area between the Vindhya mountains and Kanyakumari in the south is called South India or the Deccan region. The Shatavahanas, Kadambas, Gangas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, and Pallavas have been the important dynasties of the Deccan region. The Shathavahanas were the first to have established a dynasty in the Deccan. Simuka became independent and made Srikakulam, his capital.

  • Shalivahana Saka is supposed to have been inaugurated by Gautami Puthra Shatakarni.
  • Shatakarni had titles such as ‘Trisamudratoyapitavahana’ and ‘Shatavahana Kulayashapratishtapanakara’.
  • The Shatavahanas who followed the Vedic tradition encouraged other religions like Buddhism and Jainism and believed in harmony.
  • They promoted art, literature, and education. Literature was created in Prakrit, the language of both scholars and common people. Gathasaptashati written by Hala is an example of this.
  • The Ajanta and the Amaravati paintings were created during the period of the Shatavahanas. Temples, viharas, and chaityalayas were also constructed.
  • A chaityagraha was built in Karle by the Banavasi merchant Bhootapala.
  • The Kadambas is the first dynasty to be established in Karnataka. Their capital was Banavasi which is in today’s North Canara district.
  • Mayurasharma was the founder and a great king of this dynasty.
  • First Prakrit and later Sanskrit became the court language. Kannada was the language of the people.
  • The ancient Halmidi inscription shows the characteristics of the Kannada language which was in use in the 5th century. This has been the first inscription available in Kannada.
  • The Malavalli inscription is in the Prakrit language. The Talagunda inscription is the first Sanskrit inscription to be found in Karnataka.
  • The founders of the Ganga dynasty claimed their descent from the Ikshvaku dynasty. They ruled from Kuvalala, Talakadu, and Manyapura (today’s Manne in Nelamangala, Bangalore Rural district).
  • The Gangawadi kingdom which began with the rule of Dadiga (also known as Kongunivarma), was ruled by 27 kings.
  • Gommateshwara (Bahubali) of Sravanabelagola is a symbol of a life of renunciation. The Statue of Gommateshwara was installed by Chavundaraya, the minister of Rachamalla IV.
  • Madhava II wrote a commentary on Dattaka Sutra. Durvinita wrote the Sanskrit word ‘Shabdavatara’ and translated Gunadhya’s ‘Vaddakathe’ into Sanskrit. Sree Purusha wrote ‘Gajashastra’ and Shivamadhava wrote‘Gajashtaka’, a Kannada work.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 South India From 3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E

South India(From 3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E) Exercises

South India(From 3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E) Complete the following sentences.

  1. Simukha made Srikakulam his capital.
  2. The literary work written by Hala is Gathasaptashati.
  3. The first inscription in Kannada is the Halmidi inscription
  4. Banavasi, the capital of the Kadambas, is in today’s North Canara district.
  5. The prominent king among the Gangas was Durvinita
  6. The literary work written by Chavundaraya is Chavunda Purana.

South India(From 3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E) Answer in brief.

Question 1. Who was the last king of the Shatavahanas? How did their dynasty become weak?
Answer: Yajnashri Shatakarni the last king of the Shatavahanas. On account of continual attacks by the Shakas, the empire stood devastated.

Class 8 History South India (3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E) KSEEB Notes 

Question 2. Write about the art of the Shatavahanas.
Answer: The Ajanta and the Amaravati paintings were created during the period of the Shatavahanas. Temples, viharas, and chaityalayas were also constructed. A satyagraha was built in Karle by the Banavasi merchant Bhootapala.

Question 3. What were the values which influenced the Ganga society?
Answer: Social values like honesty, loyalty, bravery, and patience were prominent among the people.

Question 4. Name four literary works of the period of the Gangas.
Answer: Madhava II wrote a commentary on Dattaka Sutra. Durvinita wrote the Sanskrit word ‘Shabdavatara’, and translated Gunadhya’s ‘Vaddakathe’ into Sanskrit.Sree Purusha wrote ‘Gajashastra’ Shivamadhava wrote ‘Gajashtaka’, a Kannada work.Poet Hemasena wrote ‘Raghava Pandaviya’,Vadibasimha wrote ‘Gadya Chintamani’ and ‘Shatra Chudamani’,Nemichandra wrote ‘Dravyasara Samgraha’ Chavundaraya wrote ‘Chavunda Purana’,

South India(From 3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E) Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1.The mountains that separate North and South India is

  1. Vindhya
  2. Cardamom
  3. Rajamahal
  4. Aravallis

Answer: 1. Vindhya

Question 2. The first dynasty which was established in the Deccan was the

  1. Gangas
  2. Shathavahanas
  3. Kadambas
  4. Chalukyas

Answer: 2. Shathavahanas

Question 3. Shalivahana Saka is supposed to have been inaugurated by

  1. Mayurasharma
  2. Shivaskanda Varma
  3. Mayura Varma
  4. Gautami Puthra Shatakami

Answer: 4. Gautami Puthra Shatakarni

Question 4. The first dynasty to be established in Karnataka was

  1. Shathavahanas
  2. Gangas
  3. Kadambas
  4. Chalukyas

Answer: 3. Kadambas

KSEEB History Chapter 9 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 5. Banavasi was the capital of

  1. Shathavahanas
  2. Gangas
  3. Kadambas
  4. Chalukyas

Answer: 3. Kadambas

Question 6. The founder of the Kadamba dynasty was

  1. Mayurasharma
  2. Shivaskanda Varma
  3. Mayura Varma
  4. Gautami Puthra Shatakarni

Answer: 1. Mayurasharma

Question 7. The ancient Halmidi inscription is in

  1. Prakrit language
  2. Sanskrit language
  3. Kannada language
  4. Tamil language

Answer: 3. Kannada language

Question 8. The Malavalli inscription is in

  1. Prakrit language
  2. Sanskrit language
  3. Kannada language
  4. Tamil language

Answer: 1. Prakrit language

Question 9. The first Sanskrit inscription to be found in Karnataka is the

  1. Talagunda inscription
  2. Halmidi inscription
  3. Malavalli inscription
  4. Aloe Inscription

Answer: 1. Talagunda inscription

Question 10. Madhava II wrote a commentary on

  1. Dattaka Sutra
  2. Shabdavatara
  3. Vaddakathe
  4. Gajashastra

Answer: 1. Dattaka Sutra

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Guide On South India KSEEB 

Complete the following sentences with suitable:

  1. The capital of the Shathavahanas was Srikakulam
  2. The literary work of Hala was Gathasaptashati.
  3. Karle Chaityagraha was built by Bhootapala.
  4. Dadiga was also known as Kongunivarma.
  5. ‘Vaddakatha’ of Gunadya was translated into Sanskrit by Durvinita

1. Match the following words in column ‘A’ with their descriptions in column ‘B’
   A                                    B
Durvinita                   Gajashtaka
Gunadhya                  Shabdavatara
SreePurusha              Vaddakathe
Shivamadhava           Raghava Pandaviya
Hemasena                 Gajashastra

Answer: 
Durvinita           –     Shabdavatara
Gunadhya          –      Vaddakathe
SreePurusha      –     Gajashastra
Shivamadhava   –     Gajashtaka
Hemasena         –     Raghava Pandaviya

South India(From 3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E) Answer the following questions in two sentences each:

Question 1. What is the extension of South India?
Answer: The Vindhya Mountains separate North and South India. The area between the Vindhya mountains and Kanyakumari in the south is called South India or the Deccan region.

Question 2.Name of dynasties that ruled South India.
Answer: The Shatavahanas, Kadambas, Gangas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, and Pallavas have been the important dynasties of this region.

Question 3. Which were the titles assumed by Gautami Puthra Shatakarni?
Answer: Gautami Puthra Shatakarni had Fides such as ‘Trisamudratoyapitavahana’ and ‘Shatavahan Kulayashapratishtapanakara’

Solutions For South India (3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E) KSEEB Class 8 History 

Question 4. Which are the important trading centers of the Shatavahanas?
Answer: Nasik, Kalyan, Broach, and Bhatkal were trade centers.

Question 5. How was the education system of the Kadambas?
Answer: Educational centers like agraharas, brahmapuris, and ghatikas were established. The main agraharas of that time were found in Talagunda and Balligave. The agraharas were like residential schools.

South India(From 3rd Century B.C.E. To 13th Century C.E) Answer the following questions in four to six sentences each:

Question 1. What were the achievements of Gautami Puthra Shatakarni?
Answer: Gautami Puthra Shatakarni was a prominent king of the Shatavahanas dynasty. He had done away with the bitter enemies of the kingdom, the Sakas, beyond the borders of India. Shalivahana Saka is supposed to have been inaugurated by him. He expanded his kingdom to include not only Konkan, Briar, Saurashtra, and Malawi, but also many new areas. He had titles such as ‘Trisamudratoyapitavahana’ and ‘Shatavahana Kulayashapratishtapanakara’.

Question 2. How were the administrative arrangements of Shatavahanas?
Answer: The king was supreme. The kingdom had been divided into provinces called Janapada for the purpose of administration and officers had been appointed to look after them. The cities and villages were looked after by self-governing institutions.

KSEEB Class 8 South India History Study Materials 

Question 3. How was the society of the Shatavahanas organized?
Answer: There was no discrimination on the basis of varna in society. Even women held high offices and had high status in society. There were people of different occupations like farmers, merchants, goldsmiths, fishermen, carpenters, weavers, medicine men, etc. There were occupational associations.

Question 4. Write about the art of the Shatavahanas.
Answer: The Ajanta and the Amaravati paintings were created during the period of the Shatavahanas.Temples, viharas, and chaityalayas were also constructed. A satyagraha was built in Karle by the Banavasi merchant Bhootapala.

Question 5. Explain the administrative arrangements of the Kadambas.
Answer: Royal priests, ministers, and military gene also played a significant role in the administration. For administrative ease, provincial officers had been appointed to look after the provinces.

Question 6. What are the achievements of Durvinita?
Answer: Durvinita was a famous king of the Ganga dynasty. He was a brave warrior and scholar. He ruled for a long period and gained control of Punnata in order to strengthen his Kingdom. The Nallala copper inscription reveals that he constructed many lakes for the purposes of irrigation. He was a lover of Literature and wrote creative works in Sanskrit and Kannada. He even translated the Prakrit work ‘Vaddakatha’ of Gunadya into Sanskrit.

Question 7. Explain the contribution of the Gangas to the field of administration.
Answer: The king had a council of ministers to help him. The ministers supervised different branches of administration. The administration in the villages was very systematic. The village committee looked after land revenue, justice, sanitation, and defense. Agriculture was the main occupation. There were other occupations like weaving and blacksmithy. They had trade relations with other countries.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Sociology Chapter 4 Types Of Society

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Sociology Chapter 4 Types Of Society Points To Remember

Sociology is a science devoted to the study of human society scientifically. Human beings and society are the two faces of the same coin. In Society, many aspects like jobs, lifestyle, culture, thoughts, and rituals differ from one geographical area to another.

If one enters a rural area, numerous cattle, sheep and other domestic animals are visible. A visit to cities like Mumbai and Bengaluru reveals high-rise buildings, crowded human beings, more number vehicles, slums and industries. The word Society originates from the Greek word ‘Socius’ which means companionship or friendship.
The structure that grows out of these interacting people can be called a society.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

“The web of social relationships in society. The complex relationship of social institutions and social groups is Society.” – Maclver and Page Grouping of people is called a community. Society is formed by grouping many communities.Every society has a family, neighbourhood, rural and urban settings, political parties and other communities. Hence, H.M. Johnson says “Communities community is society.”

The following are the types of societies:

  1. Hunting and Gathering society.
  2. Pastoral Society.
  3. Agricultural Society/ Rural Society.
  4. Urban Society.
  5. Industrial Society.
  6. Information Society.

Hunting and Gathering society is the first stage of human evolution.

The process of engaging in animal husbandry of cattle like sheep, goats, cows, and buffalo for general sustenance is called pastoral society.
Anthropologists had opined that only pastoral societies as the nomadic society in the beginning. According to encyclopaedia Britannica, Nomadic life is a type of life.
India is called a land of villages and agriculture. In the ancient literature of India, there are references to villages and their administration. In Rig-Veda, the head of the village is called ‘Gramastha’.

A group of villages was called ‘visa’, Jana’, or ‘Desha’ for administrative purposes.
In Mahabharata, the head of the village is called a ‘gaming’. The chief of a group of villages is called a ‘Dashamuki’, ‘Shatamuki’, or ‘Adhipathi’. Bogardus opines that “The human civilisation evolved in the cradle of Villages’. Though the village is an ancient system, it is not easy to define it. Bogardus says, “Village is a group of families engaged in the simple life of thrift with less population density, and have primary relationships.”

Class 8 Sociology Types of Society KSEEB Notes 

As per S.C. Dube, “A group of families residing in a place is called a village’. In this society, socialisation and social control function efficiently. In Karnataka, the neighbourhood is identified as ‘Keri’ or ‘Oni’. In Maharashtra, it is called a ‘wad’. The jamjar system was the basic nature of the Socioeconomic life of rural society. Zamindar is a Persian word. It means one who has landed. The system Zamindar has its root in the rule of Delhi Sultans.

The titles owned by Rajasthan ‘Roy’ and ‘Rana’ indicated land ownership.

In order to prevent the exploitation of farmers governments brought in “Tenancy Prevention’ acts. This move is called ‘Land Reforms’. A maximum land ceiling limit is put under this act. Urban societies are called ideal societies. They are very complex in their structures. Urban societies have dense populations involved in varieties of jobs and works. The information society helps to attain education, and do commerce and business needed for the future. The studies and theories on information societies focus on two issues related to the hold of knowledge on the economy.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Sociology Chapter 4 Types Of Society

Types Of Society Exercises

Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

  1. The hunting societies use stone tools for hunting.
  2. Plough is used to till the land in an agricultural society.
  3. The distribution of skilled work is called a Division of Labour.
  4. In industrial societies, there is an increase in transport and Communication
  5. Mechanised production takes place in Industrial society.

Types Of Society Answer the following:

Question 1. What are the different types of Societies?
Answer:
The following are the types of societies:

  1. Hunting and Gathering society.
  2. Pastoral Society.
  3. Agricultural Society/ Rural Society.
  4. Urban Society.
  5. Industrial Society.
  6. Information Society.

Question 2. What is a pastoral society?
Answer: The process of engaging in animal husbandry of cattle like sheep, goats, cows, and buffalo for general sustenance is called pastoral society.

Question 3. How does agriculture gain importance in society?
Answer: With the invention of ‘plough’ during 3000 BC, the agricultural revolution started. Villages are the lifeline of this country. There are about six lakh villages in India and they have retained the Indian culture and tradition intact. The majority of the people live in rural India. in rural areas, 59% of men and 75% of women are engaged in agriculture directly for their sustenance.

KSEEB Class 8 Sociology Chapter 4 Questions And Answers 

Question 4. What is an industrial society?
Answer: Utilising scientific production ways and searching for energy sources is called Industrial society.

Question 5. The information society is growing fast. Prove.
Answer: People take help from information technologies to solve their problems and challenges. The information society helps to attain education, and do commerce and business needed for the future.

Types Of Society Answer The Following In Four-Five Lines:

Question 1. Explain the features of hunting and gathering societies.
Answer:

Hunting and Gathering society is the first stage of human evolution.

It is a simple and ancient society.

It is very small in size.

People engaged in fishing, hunting and

The role and status in society were fixed based on age and sex.

There was no desire for the accumulation of wealth.

Sharing the sources is an important trait.

Hunting was done using stone tools.

Question 2. Explain the features of pastoral societies.
Answer:

Pastoral Society is the second stage in the evolution of human societies.

People engaged in animal husbandry.

These consisted of several thousand people.

Cattle herding was the main occupation.

Society was under the leadership of a single leader.

The members were engaged in fishing, hunting and food gathering works.

Question 3. Explain the relationship between land and agriculture.
Answer:

Jajmani System: Jajmani and the caste system were working together once. The serving class provided services related to agriculture and agriculture-related works. And this class received provisions in return for its service.

Zamindari System: Zamindar is a Persian word. It means one who has landed. The system Zamindar has its root in the rule of Delhi Sultans. During the fourteenth century, the word Zamindar indicated the head of a region. The titles owned by Rajasthan ‘Roy’ and ‘Rana’ indicated land ownership. Any person who has the hereditary rights to have a share in the farmer’s corps’ was officially called a ‘Zamindar’. By the seventeenth century, the word Zamindari became prominent.

Ryotwari System: The British government undertook new ways of taxing the farmers in India. When the British government moved to tax farmers, Zamindars started harassing them more. In order to save farmers from this exploitation the court of directors introduced Ryotwari System.

Mahalwari System: When the Zamindari system and Ryotwari system failed to yield desired results, the British thought of another system name the Mahalwari system. Under this system, based on the yield of the estate or Mahal, a tax was fixed on the owners of such Mahal. A few among the Mahal owners were selected and given the roles of supervising and collecting taxes.

Types Of Society KSEEB Class 8 Textbook Solutions 

Tenancy System: Permanent tenants command little ownership over the land they are tilling, whereas temporary tenants have no claim over the land they are tilling. The landlords always had the right to take away land from the temporary tenants and hand it over to others as per their wish. In order to prevent this exploitation, governments brought in ‘Tenancy Prevention’acts.

Question 4. List out the features of industrial society.
Answer: Utilising scientific production ways and searching for energy sources is the feature of this society. The production depends on the automatic technology

The production is in large quantity

This depends on the division of labour.

The production process became mechanised.

Question 5. Write a note to the Information Society.
Answer:

People take help from information technologies to solve their problems and challenges.

The information society helps to attain education, and do commerce and business needed for the future.

The studies and theories on information societies focus on two issues related to the hold of knowledge on the economy

The first issue is the influence of information technology on socio-economical life.

It is no more the property of any individual or an institution.

Knowledge is getting exchanged over new tools.

Computers have become the information.

Types Of Society Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The word Society originates from the

  1. Greek
  2. Latin
  3. English
  4. French

Answer: 1. Greek

Question 2. The word Society originates from the Greek word ‘Socius’ which means

  1. Neighbourhood
  2. Friendship
  3. Social relationship
  4. Village community

Answer: 2. Friendship

Question 3. Grouping of people is called as

  1. Friends
  2. Society
  3. Community
  4. Family

Answer: 3. Community

Question 4.“Communities community is society.” This is stated by

  1. Maclver
  2. Page
  3. H.M.Johnson
  4. August Comte

Answer: 3.H.M.Johnson

KSEEB Sociology Chapter 4 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 5. Maclver and Page defined society as a

  1. Group of social relationships
  2. Web of social relationships
  3. Family of social relationships
  4. Village of social relationships

Answer: 2. Web of social relationships

Question 6. The first stage of human evolution is

  1. Nomadic Society
  2. Semi-nomadic Society
  3. Pastoral Society
  4. Hunting and Gathering Society

Answer: 4. Hunting and Gathering Society

Question 7. In Mahabharata, the head of the village is called as

  1. Pramukh
  2. Gramastha
  3. Mukhya
  4. Gramini

Answer: 4. Gramini

Question 8.“Village is a group of families engaged in the simple life of thrift with less population density, and have primary relationships.” It is stated by

  1. GS Ghurye
  2. Max Weber
  3. Bogardus
  4. S.C.Dube

Answer: 3. Bogardus

Question 9.“A group of families residing in a place is called a village” is stated by

  1. GS Ghurye
  2. Max Weber
  3. Bogardus
  4. S.C.Dube

Answer: 4. S.C.Dube

Question 10. The majority of the Indians live in villages as rightly noted by

  1. GS Ghurye
  2. Max Weber
  3. Bogardus
  4. S.C.Dube

Answer: 2. Max Weber

Types Of Society Fill in The Blanks With Suitable Words:

  1. The word Society originates from the Greek word Socius
  2. Getting together people to work towards a common goal is called Cooperation
  3. Sharing tasks among a group of people is called the Division of labour
  4. The second stage in the evolution of human societies is the Pastoral Society
  5. A group of villages called visa
  6. In Karnataka, the neighbourhood is identified as Keri or Oni
  7. In Maharashtra, the neighbourhood is called a wad.
  8. In Rig-Veda, the head of the village is called Gramastha.

Types Of Society Answer the following questions in a sentence each:

Question 1. What is a society?
Answer: The word Society originates from the Greek word ‘Socius’ which means companionship or friendship. The structure that grows out of these interacting people can be called a society.

Question 2. What is a society according to Maclver and Page?
Answer: “The web of social relationships in society. The complex relationship of social institutions and social groups is Society.” — Maclver and Page

Question 3. How are the Societies divided?
Answer: Societies are divided based on the nature of jobs and work.

Class 8 Sociology Chapter 4 Guide On Types Of Society KSEEB 

Question 4. What is the opinion of Bogarodus regarding the village?
Answer: Bogarodus opines that human civilisation evolved in the cradle of Villages. Bogardus says, “Village is a group of families engaged in the simple life of thrift with less population density, and have primary relationships.”

Types Of Society Answer The Following Questions In Four To Five Sentences Each:

Question 1. Explain the importance of Social.
Answer:
Universal
Necessary for protection and nourishment
Society plays a major role in personality formation
Reinforces life

Question 2. Why society is considered universal?
Answer: Human life and society go hand in hand. Human life is made possible by society. Society was there before the birth of an individual and remains even after his death. Hence society is universal

Question 3. Differentiate between Hunting and Gathering society and Pastoral society.
Answer:
Hunting and Gathering society:

Hunting and Gathering society is the first stage of human evolution.
It is a simple and ancient society.
It is very small in size.
People engaged in fishing, hunting and gathering.
The role and status in society were fixed based on age and sex.
There was no desire for the accumulation of wealth.
Sharing the sources is an important trait.
Hunting was done using stone tools. Pastoral society
Pastoral Society is the second stage in the evolution of human societies.
People engaged in animal husbandry.
These consisted of several thousand people.
Cattle herding was the main occupation.
Society was under the leadership of a single leader.
The members were engaged in fishing, hunting and food gathering works.

Question 4. Differentiate between Jajmani System and Zamindari System.
Answer:

Jajmani System: Jajmani and the caste system were working together once. The serving class provided services related to agriculture and agriculture-related works. And this class received provisions in return for its service.

Zamindari System: Zamindar is a Persian word. It means one who has landed. The system Zamindar has its root in the rule of Delhi Sultans. During the fourteenth century, the word Zamindar indicated the head of a region. The titles owned by Rajasthan ‘Roy’ and ‘Rana’ indicated land ownership. Any person who has the hereditary rights to have a share in the farmer’s corps’ was officially called a ‘Zamindar’. By the seventeenth century, the word Zamindari became prominent.

KSEEB Class 8 Types Of Society Study Materials 

Question 5. Differentiate between Ryotwari System and Mahalwari System.
Answer:

Ryotwari System: The British government undertook new ways of taxing the farmers of India. When the British government moved to tax farmers, Zamindars started harassing them more. In order to save farmers from this exploitation the court of directors introduced Ryotwari System

Mahalwari System: When the Zamindari system and Ryotwari system failed to yield desired results, the British thought of another system name the Mahalwari system. Under this system, based on the yield of the estate or Mahal, the tax was fixed on the owners of the Mahal. A few among the Mahal owners were selected and given the roles of supervising and collecting taxes.

Question 6. What are the features of urban societies?
Answer:

Industry Based Economy
Professional works
Transport and communication
Increase in migration

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Atmosphere

KSEEB Solutions Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Atmosphere Points To Remember

The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases, dust particles, and water vapor surrounding the Earth. The atmosphere traps heat and makes Earth a planet for all living organisms. The atmosphere is a mixture of different gases, dust particles, and water vapor. The atmosphere may be divided into five important layers on the basis of its characteristic features. These are Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere (Ionosphere), and Exosphere. The troposphere has all the atmospheric elements such as temperature, pressure, winds, clouds, rainfall, etc.

Temperature and pressure decrease with the increase in altitude.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science

The stratosphere is the second layer of the atmosphere. Ozone is the most important gas which absorbs the ultraviolet rays of the sun and protects all forms of life on Earth.

The stratosphere is free from clouds and other important weather phenomena and provides ideal flying conditions for jet aircraft.

The mesosphere is the third layer in the Earth’s atmosphere. This layer has the coldest temperature in the atmosphere.

The thermosphere layer lies next to Mesosphere. In this layer, the temperature rises drastically. It is also called the ‘Ionosphere’ as the gaseous atoms are ionized due to very high temperatures. The ions found in this layer help in reflecting radio waves.

The exosphere is the topmost layer of the atmosphere. In this layer elements of the atmosphere are rare and pressure is extremely low.

The weather condition of a place is influenced by various elements such as temperature, pressure, wind, humidity, clouds, rainfall, etc.

The atmospheric condition of a place at a given time is called ‘Weather’. In contrast, the average weather condition of an area over a long period of time is called ‘Climate’.

Insolation means incoming solar radiation from the sun to the Earth. Temperature is recorded by an instrument called a ‘thermometer’. Centigrade and Fahrenheit are important thermometers used to measure atmospheric temperature.

The normal lapse rate is the decreasing rate of temperature with the increase of altitude. The rate of decrease is 10 C for every 165 meters or 6.40 C for every 1000 meters of height (1 km).

The wind is the horizontal movement of the air on the surface of the Earth.

The direction of the wind is shown by an instrument called a ‘wind vane’ or ‘weather cock’. ‘Anemometer’ is used to measure the speed of the wind.

Winds are classified into 4 major types. They are; Planetary winds, Seasonal winds, Local winds, Cyclones, and Anticyclones.

Polar winds are also called Easterlies. These winds blow from polar high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts.

Seasonal winds are also called periodic winds. These winds change their direction periodically or seasonally.

Periodic winds are the result of variations in local temperature, pressure, and humidity which in turn are attributed to the formation of air currents, crossing mountain ranges, valleys, and other relief barriers.

Class 8 Geography Atmosphere KSEEB Notes 

The important periodic and local winds are Land breeze, Sea breeze, Mountain breeze (Katabatic winds), Valley breeze (Anabatic winds) and other few winds are Loo (India), Chinook or Snow eater (USA), Fohn (Alps region), Mistral (France), Sirocco (Sahara region), Brick Fielder (Australia), Blizzard (Antarctica), etc.

Climate is the average condition of the atmosphere over a long period of time in a larger area Example:- Equatorial climate, Tropical monsoon climate, Desert climate, Mediterranean climate, Tundra climate, etc. The scientific study of climate is called ‘Climatology’.

The factors that influence the climate of a place or region are Latitude, altitude, winds, distance from the sea, distribution of land and water bodies, ocean currents, etc.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Atmosphere

Atmosphere Exercises

Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

  1. The two major gases of the atmosphere are Nitrogen and Oxygen.
  2. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is Troposphere.
  3. The average air pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is 1013.25 MB.
  4. Westerlies is also known as Anti-trade Winds
  5. The scientific study of weather is ‘Meteorology’

Answer the following questions:

Question 1. What is the atmosphere?
Answer: The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases, dust particles, and water vapor surrounding the Earth.

Question 2. Name the important layers of the atmosphere.
Answer: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere (Ionosphere), and Exosphere are the important layers of the atmosphere.

Question 3. What is the significance of the ozone layer?
Answer: Ozone is the most important gas which absorbs ‘ultraviolet rays’ of the sun and protects all forms of life on the Earth.

Question 4. What is Doldrum? Where is it found?
Answer: Equatorial low-pressure belt is a calm region with very little wind. So it is known as ‘Doldrum’ means ‘belt of calm’ (equatorial calm). It is found in the Equatorial low-pressure belt.

Question 5. Name the different types of planetary winds.
Answer: Trade winds, Anti-trade winds, and Polar winds are three types of planetary winds.

Question 6. What are local winds? Give any two examples.
Answer: Periodic winds are the result of variations in local temperature, pressure, and humidity which in turn are attributed to the formation of air currents, crossing mountain ranges, valleys, and other relief barriers. Examples: Land breeze, Seabreeze, Mountain breeze

Question 7. Mention the different types of clouds.
Answer: The important types of clouds are the Stratus, the Cumulus, the Cirrus, and the Nimbus clouds.

KSEEB Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Questions And Answers 

Question 8. Distinguish between weather and climate.
Answer: The atmospheric conditions of a smaller area at a particular time are called weather. For example cloudy, sunny, fine weather, etc. The scientific study of weather is called ‘Meteorology’. Climate is the average condition of the atmosphere over a long period of time in a larger area Example:- Equatorial climate, Tropical monsoon climate, Desert climate, Mediterranean climate, Tundra climate, etc. The scientific study of climate is called ‘Climatology’.

Atmosphere Define the following:

  1. Ionosphere: Thermosphere is also called the ‘Ionosphere’ as the gaseous atoms are ionized due to very high temperatures.
  2. Normal lapse rate: Normal lapse rate is the decreasing rate of temperature with the increase of altitude. The rate of decrease is 1 C for every 165 meters or 6.4 C for every 1000 meters of height (1 km).
  3. Torrid zone: Torrid zone is found between 0 or the Equator and Tropic of Cancer in the north (2314 N) and the Equator and Tropic of Capricorn (2314° S) in the south.
  4. Horse latitudes: North sub-tropical high-pressure belt is found between 30 and 35 north latitudes. This region is also popularly called ‘Horse latitudes’.
  5. Orographic rainfall: The rainfall which occurs in mountain areas is called Orographic rainfall also called ‘Mountainrainfall’ or ‘Reliefrainfall’.
  6. Climatology: The scientific study of climate is called ‘Climatology’.

Atmosphere Terms to remember:

  1. Insolation: Insolation means incoming solar radiation from the sun to the Earth.
  2. Inversion of temperature: In some situations, temperature also increases with increasing height. This takes place in mountain valleys during long winter nights with the dear sky, dry air, no wind, and snow-covered surface.
  3. Anemometer: ‘Anemometer’ is used to measure the speed of the wind.
  4. Roaring forties: The westerlies of the southern hemisphere are very strong over the oceans. Hence they are called ‘Roaring forties’ (40 south latitude)
  5. Nimbus: Nimbus clouds are rain clouds that occur at low levels.
  6. Meteorology: The scientific study of weather is called ‘Meteorology’.

Atmosphere Additional Questions And Answers

Choose the correct alternative and Write the complete answer along with its alphabet in the sheet provided:

Question 1. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is

  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere

Answer: 1. Troposphere

Question 2. All weather changes occur in the

  1. Stratosphere
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Thermosphere
  4. Tropo sphere

Answer: 4. Troposphere

Question 3. The ozone layer is present in

  1. Stratosphere
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Thermosphere
  4. Tropo sphere

Answer: 1. Stratosphere

Question 4. The layer which provides ideal flying conditions for jet aircraft is

  1. Troposphere
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Exosphere
  4. Stratosphere

Answer: 4. Stratosphere

Question 5. The coldest temperature is found in

  1. Troposphere
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Exosphere
  4. Stratosphere

Answer: 2. Mesosphere

Question 6. The layer which is also called ‘Ionosphere’ is

  1. Troposphere
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Thermosphere
  4. Stratosphere

Answer: 3. Thermosphere

KSEEB Geography Chapter 3 Class 8 Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 7. The topmost layer of the atmosphere is

  1. Troposphere
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Exosphere
  4. Stratosphere

Answer: 3. Exosphere

Question 8. The rate of decrease is lo C for every

  1. 165 meters
  2. 167 meters
  3. 169 meters
  4. 170 meters

Answer: 1. 165 meters

Question 9. The zone of high temperature is

  1. Temperate zone
  2. Torrid zone
  3. Frigid zone
  4. Isotherms Zone

Answer: 2. Torrid zone

Question 10. The region where the temperature is neither very hot nor cold is

  1. Temperate zone
  2. Torrid zone
  3. Frigid zone
  4. Isotherms Zone

Answer: 1. Temperate zone

Question 11. The place which has been recorded the highest temperature in summer in India is

  1. A1 Aziziya
  2. Verkhoyansk
  3. Ganganagar
  4. Vostok

Answer: 3. Ganganagar

Question 12. The coldest place on the Earth is

  1. A1 Aziziya of Libya
  2. Verkhoyansk of Siberia
  3. Ganganagar of Rajasthan
  4. Vostok of Antarctica

Answer: 4. Vostok of Antarctica

Question 13. The clouds which are associated with fair weather are

  1. Stratus clouds
  2. Cumulus clouds
  3. Cirrus clouds
  4. Nimbus clouds

Answer: 1. Stratus clouds

Question 14. The clouds which are popularly called ‘wool packs’ are

  1. Stratus clouds
  2. Cumulus clouds
  3. Cirrus clouds
  4. Nimbus clouds

Answer: 2. Cumulus clouds

Question 15. The rain-bearing clouds are

  1. Stratus clouds
  2. Cumulus clouds
  3. Cirrus clouds
  4. White clouds

Answer: 2. Cumulus clouds

Question 16. The highest clouds in the atmosphere are

  1. Stratus clouds
  2. Cumulus clouds
  3. Cirrus clouds
  4. Nimbus clouds

Answer: 3. Cirrus clouds

Question 17. The clouds which resemble ‘curls of hair’ are

  1. Stratus clouds
  2. Cumulus clouds
  3. Cirrus clouds
  4. Nimbus clouds

Answer: 3. Cirrus clouds

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Guide On Atmosphere KSEEB 

Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

  1. Air pressure is measured by an instrument called a Barometer
  2. Temperature is recorded by an instrument called a thermometer
  3. The unit used to show the pressure is millibar (Mb)
  4. The direction of the wind is shown by an instrument called ‘weather cock’.
  5. The instrument which is used to measure the speed of the wind is an ‘Anemometer’
  6. Humidity is measured by using an instrument called a Hygrometer or Psychrometer.
  7. The dark grey or black clouds are Nimbus

Atmosphere Match The Following:

1. Match the following words in column A with their descriptions in column ‘B’
        A                                                  B
Mawsynram                      The driest region on the Earth
Agumbe                            The least rainfall region in India
Royal                                 The driest place in Karnataka
Nayakanahatti                  The highest rainfall region in the
                                                world
Atacama                            The highest rainfall region in
                                              Karnataka

Answer:
A                                                B
Mawsynram                   the highest rainfall region in the world
Agumbe                         the highest rainfall region in Karnataka
Royal                              the least rainfall region in India
Nayakanahatti                the driest place in Karnataka
Atacama                         the driest region on the Earth

2. Match the following words in column A with their descriptions in column ‘B’
   A                                   B
Loo                              France
Chinook                      Alps region
Fohn                            Sahara region
Mistral                          India
Sirocco                          USA

Answer:
A                                      B
Loo                             India
Chinook                      USA
Fohn                           Alps region
Mistral                        France
Sirocco                       Sahara region

3. Match the following words in column A with their descriptions in column ‘B’
    A                                                B
Japan                                      Whirlpool
Mexico                                    Typhoon
Australia                                  Cyclone
India                                        Hurricane
Russia                                      Willy willes
Answer:
A                                           B
Japan                               Typhoon
Mexico                             Hurricane
Australia                           Willy willes
India                                  Cyclone
Russia                               Whirlpool

Atmosphere Answer the following questions in a sentence:

Question 1. What are Isotherms?
Answer: Isotherms are lines drawn on the map or globe connecting places having the same temperature.

Question 2. Why does the temperature decrease in Frigid Zone?
Answer: The temperature in this zone is very low due to the slanting rays of the sun. In summer the temperature is slightly high and in winter the temperature is low.

Question 3. What is atmospheric pressure?
Answer: Air has weight and it exerts pressure. This is called atmospheric pressure.

Question 4.The regions which have high-temperature record low pressure. Why?
Answer: The regions which have high-temperature record low pressure due to the expansion of air, while the regions of low temperature have high pressure due to the contraction of air.

Solutions For Atmosphere KSEEB Class 8 Geography 

Question 5. What are isobars?
Answer: Isobars are imaginary lines drawn on the map or globe connecting places having the same pressure.

Question 6. What is wind?
Answer: Wind is the horizontal movement of the air on the surface of the Earth.

Question 7. What is Cloud?
Answer: Cloud is a mass of small water drops or ice crystals, formed by the condensation of the water in the atmosphere, usually at a considerable height above the Earth’s surface.

Question 8. How are the Clouds classified?
Answer: Clouds are classified on the basis of their shapes and heights at which they occur.

Question 9. What is Humidity?
Answer: Humidity is the amount of water vapor or moisture present in the air.

Question 10. What is Absolute humidity?
Answer: Absolute humidity refers to the total amount of water vapor present in a given volume of air.

Question 11. What is Relative humidity?
Answer: Relative humidity is the ratio between the actual amount of water vapor present in the air and the amount of water vapor the air can hold at that temperature.

Question 12. What is Specific humidity?
Answer: Specific humidity is the actual amount of water vapor present in a given mass of air.

Question 13. What is Rainfall?
Answer: Precipitation in the form of water droplets is called rainfall.

Question 14. What is called ‘afternoon rain’?
Answer: In the equatorial region, convectional rainfall is called ‘afternoon rain’, as it occurs mostly in the afternoon.

Question 15. What is the ‘rain shadow region’?
Answer: The windward side of the mountain receives more rainfall, while the leeward side receives less. The leeward side is generally called the ‘rain shadow region’.

Atmosphere Answer the following questions in four to five sentences each:

Question 1. Write the extension of Atmosphere.
Answer: The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases, dust particles, and water vapor surrounding the Earth. This layer of gases forms a protective boundary between outer space and the Earth’s surface. The thickness of the atmosphere is around 1000 km.

Question 2. How does the Atmosphere support life?
Answer: The atmosphere is very important for all forms of life on earth. Different gases in the atmosphere help plants, animals, and human beings. The atmosphere traps heat and makes Earth a planet for all living organisms.

Question 3. Write the composition of the atmosphere.
Answer: The atmosphere is a mixture of different gases, dust particles, and water vapor. The important gases in the atmosphere are Nitrogen – 78.08%, Oxygen- 20.94% and the remaining 1% consists of Argon – 0.93%, Carbon dioxide – 0.03%, Ozone – 0.000005%, etc. The atmosphere also contains dust particles which help us in the formation of water droplets. The water vapor in the atmosphere is the source of clouds and precipitation.

Question 4. Which are the five layers of the Atmosphere?
Answer: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere (Ionosphere), and Exosphere are the five layers of the Atmosphere.

Question 5. Why is Troposphere called a Weather breeder?
Answer: Troposphere has all the atmospheric elements such as temperature, pressure, winds, clouds, rainfall, etc. All weather changes occur in the troposphere. Temperature and pressure decrease with the increase in altitude.

Question 6. Why is Thermosphere also called ‘Ionosphere’?
Answer: In the Thermosphere layer temperature rises drastically. It is also called the ‘Ionosphere’ as the gaseous atoms are ionized due to very high temperatures.

Question 7. Which are the important factors that influence atmospheric temperature?
Answer: The important factors that influence atmospheric temperature are latitude, altitude or height, distance from the sea, wind, ocean currents, relief, clouds, rainfall, etc.

Question 8. Name major pressure belts of the Earth.
Answer:
The major pressure belts of the Earth are:

  1. The Equatorial low-pressure belt
  2. North Sub- tropical high-pressure belt
  3. South Sub-tropical high-pressure belt
  4. North -Sub- Polar low-pressure belt
  5. South Sub-polar low-pressure belt
  6. North Polar high-pressure belt
  7. South Polar High-pressure belt

Question 9. Why is the Equatorial low-pressure belt also called Inter- Tropical Convergence Zone?
Answer: Equatorial low-pressure belt is also called Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) where the trade winds converge.

Question 10. Name the different types of wind.
Answer: Winds are classified into 4 major types. They are; Planetary winds, Seasonal winds, Local winds, Cyclones, and Anticyclones.

Question 11. Name the three types of planetary winds.
Answer: Trade winds, Anti-trade winds, and Polar winds are three types of planetary winds.

KSEEB Class 8 Atmosphere Study Materials 

Question 12. Differentiate between Cyclonoes and AntiCyclones.
Answer:

A cyclone is a small low-pressure area in the center surrounded by high pressure. The winds blow spirally toward the low-pressure area

In the northern hemisphere, the direction of cyclonic winds is anti-clockwise or counterclockwise and in the southern hemisphere, it is clockwise.

An anti-cycling is a high-pressure area in the center with winds blowing outwards, towards the low-pressure areas.

In the northern hemisphere, the direction of the anti-cyclone wind is clockwise and in the southern hemisphere, it is anti-clockwise.

Question 13. Differentiate between Cumulus clouds and Nimbus clouds.
Answer:

Cumulus clouds are cauliflower-shaped clouds of great vertical extent. The base of cumulus clouds is nearly horizontal, while the top has a dome-shaped appearance. These are popularly called ‘wool packs’. Cumulus clouds are rain-bearing clouds.

Nimbus clouds are rain clouds that occur at low levels. These clouds have the shape of a stratus or cumulus. They are dark grey or black in appearance. They cause heavy rainfall or snowfall. The Nimbostratus are thick, heavy, rain-bearing clouds.

Question 14. Differentiate between Stratus clouds and Cirrus clouds.
Answer:

Stratus clouds are usually low clouds occurring at less than 2 km in height. They appear as thin sheets or layers of large extent. Stratus clouds are associated with fair weather.

Cirrus clouds are the highest clouds in the atmosphere. These clouds resemble curls of hair and have a feathery or fibrous appearance. They indicate fair weather and often give a brilliant sunset. They look like patches of cotton fibers floating in the air. Their popular name is ‘mare’s tail’ or ‘witch’s broom’.

Question 15. Name the different types of Humidity.
Answer: Absolute humidity, Relative humidity, and Specific humidity are the different types of Humidity.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work And Energy

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work And Energy Important Concepts

Work: Work is said to be done if a body is displaced by a force. Mathematically, W= Force x displacement. Work is a scalar quantity.
S.I unit of work: newton-meter or joule
Positive and Negative work: If the angle between the directions of displacement and force is an acute angle(< 90°), then the work is said to be positive. If the angle between the directions of displacement and force is an obtuse angle (> 90), then the work is said to be a negative obtuse angle (> 90), then the work is said to be negative.
Zero work: Work is said to be zero if
1) The angle between the directions of displacement and force is 90° or displace is zero or no force acts on the body
Energy: Energy is defined as the capacity of a body to do work. It is a scalar quantity and its S.I unit is the joule.

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Science 

Types of energy: Mechanical energy (kinetic energy and potential energy), heat energy, chemical energy, electrical energy, nuclear energy, light energy etc.
Kinetic energy: It is the energy of a body by the virtue of its motion
Potential energy: It is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position or configuration
Law of conservation of energy: Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
Power: Power is defined as the rate of doing work. It is a scalar quantity and the S.I unit is a watt.
Commercial unit of power: Commercial unit of power is a kilowatt hour (kWh). It is electrical energy used by a device of power 1000W in one hour, kilowatt hour (kWh) 1 kWh = 3.6 x 106 J

Class 9 Social ScienceClass 9 ScienceClass 9 Maths

 

Work And Energy Exercises

Question 1. A force of 7N acts on an object. The displacement is 8m along the direction of a force. What is work done?
Answer: Work = Force x displacement = 7 x 8 = 56 J

Question 2. When do we say that work is done?
Answer: Work is said to be done when a force displaces a body.

Question 3. Write an expression for the work done when a force is acting on an object in the direction of its displacement
Answer: Work = Force x displacement

Question 4. Define 1J of work
Answer: One joule is defined as work done by a force of IN in displacing a body through lm in its direction

Work And Energy KSEEB Class 9 Question Answers 

Question 5. A pair of bullocks exerts a force of HON on a plough. The field being ploughed is I5m long. How much work is done in ploughing the length of the field.
Answer: Work done = Force x displacement = 140 x 15 = 2100J

Question 6. What is the kinetic energy of an object?
Answer: The energy of an object by virtue of its motion is called kinetic energy.

Question 7. Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object
Answer: K.E = 1/mv2 where m = mass of the object and v = velocity of the object

Question 8. The kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving with a velocity of 5m/s is 25J. What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is increased 3 times?
Answer:
Initial kinetic energy=25J Since K.E is proportional to (velocity)2 when velocity is doubled, then
K.E =(2)2x Initial K.E = 4 x 100 = 400J
When the velocity is trebled, then K.E =(3)2x 25 = 225J.

Question 9. What is power?
Answer: Power is defined as the rate of doing work

Question 10.Define 1 watt of power
Answer: One watt is the power when the one-joule work is done in one second

Question 11. A lamp consumes 1000J of electrical energy in 10s. What is its power?
Answer: Power of he lamp = energy consumed / time = 1000/10= 100W

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work And Energy

Work And Energy Textual Questions

Question 1. Look at the activities listed below. Reason out whether or not work is done in the light of your understanding of the term ‘work’.
1)Suma is swimming in a pond.
2)A donkey is carrying a load on its back.
3)A windmill is lifting water from a well.
4)A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.
5)An engine is pulling a train.
6)Food grains are getting dried in the sun.
7)A sailboat is moving due to wind energy.
Answer:
1)Yes. Work is done by suma become she is moving forward by pushing water backward
2)No. Work is not done by the donkey. This is because the weight (Force) of the load acts perpendicular to its displacement
3)Yes. Work is done by the windmill by lifting water against the earth’s gravity
4)Yes. Work is not done by the green plant because neither a force nor a displacement is observed during the photosynthesis by leaves
5)Yes. The force exerted by the engine and the displacement of the train are in the same direction
6)No work is done since neither a force nor displacement is seen
7)Yes. Work is done by the wind in pushing the sailboat in the direction of the wind

Question 2. An object was thrown at a certain angle to the ground moves in a curved path and falls back to the ground. The initial and the final points of the path of the object lie on the same horizontal line. What is the work done by the force of gravity on the object?
Answer: Zero because the force of gravity and the displacement are perpendicular

Question 3.A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.
Answer: First chemical energy is converted into electrical energy and then electrical energy is converted into heat and light energy.

Question 4. A certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5m/s to 2 m/s. Calculate the work done by the force.
Answer:
Work done by the force = Change in the kinetic energy
= Initial kinetic energy – final kinetic energy
= 1/2 mu2– 1/2 mv2= 1/2 m(v2 – u2)
= 1/2 (20) (52-22) = 10 (25 – 4) = 210J

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 KSEEB Textbook Solutions 

Question 5. A mass of 10kg is at point A on a table. It is moved to point B. If the line joining A and B is horizontal, what is the work done on the object by the gravitational force? Explain your answer.
Answer: Zero because the force of gravity and the displacement are perpendicular

Question 6. The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively. Does this violate the law of conservation of energy? Why?
Answer: No. This is because the loss in potential energy is equal to the gain of its kinetic energy such that the total energy of the object remains constant.

Question 7. What are the various energy transformations that occur when you are riding a bicycle?
Answer: Muscular energy is converted into mechanical energy (kinetic energy) of the bicycle and a part of the kinetic energy of the bicycle is converted into heat energy due to friction between the tires and the road.

Question 8. Does the transfer of energy take place when you push a huge rock with all your might and fail to move it? Where is the energy you spend going?
Answer: Yes. Muscular energy is used to overcome the friction between the rock and the ground

Question 9. A certain household has consumed 250 units of energy during a month. How much energy is this in joules?
Answer: 1 unit = 1kwh = 3.6 x106J.
250 units = 250 x 3.6 x106J. = 9×106J.

Question 10. An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its potential energy? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is halfway down.
Answer:
Potential energy of the object = mgh
= 40 x 9.8 x 5 = 1960 J
Let v be the velocity of the object a the halfway mark ie when s = 2.5 m
We have  v2= u2+2gs =  02 + 2 x 9.8 x 2.5 = 49 => v = 7m/s
The kinetic energy of the object = 1/2 mv2 = 1/2 x 40 x49 = 980J

Question 11. What is the work done by the force of gravity on a satellite moving around the earth? Justify your answer.
Answer: Zero. Because the force of gravity acts as the dentripetal force which is perpendicular to the displacement.

Question 12. Can there be displacement of an object in the absence of any force acting on it? Think. Discuss this question with your friends and teacher.
Answer: The net force acting on the falling raindrops is zero ie rain drops are displaced with no force acting on them.

Question 13. A person holds a bundle of hay over his head for 30 minutes and gets tired. Has he done some work or not? Justify your answer.
Answer: No work was done because the displacement of the bundle of hay is zero.

Question 14. An electric heater is rated 1500 W. How much energy does it use in 10 hours?
Answer: Energy used = Power x time =1.5 kW x 10 hour =15 kWh

Question 15. Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by discussing the energy changes which occur when we draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it to oscillate. Why does bob eventually come to rest? What happens to its energy eventually? Is it a violation of the law of conservation of energy?
Answer: When we draw a pendulum bob to one side, the work done against gravity is stored as potential energy in the bob. When the bob is released, this potential energy is gradually converted into kinetic energy such that at any position, the sum of kinetic and potential energies is always constant. When the bob is at the mean position, its potential becomes zero and kinetic energy will be maximum. As the bob reaches another extreme position the total energy will only be potential energy. Thus total energy is conserved. Du-friction, the energy of the bob is lost gradually in the form heat and the motion of the pendulum decreases with time and comes to rest after some time.

Question 16. An object of mass, m is moving with a constant velocity, v. How much work should be done on the object in order to bring the object to rest?
Answer: Work done = kinetic energy of the object = 1/2 mv2

Question 17. Calculate the work required to be done to stop a car of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of 60 km/h.
Answer:
Given mass(m) = 1500kg and velocity(v)
= 60km/h = 60 x 5/18 = 50/3 m/s
Work to be done = kintic energy of the car = 1/2 mv2 = 14 x 1500 x (50/3)2= 208,333.33J

Question 18. In each of the following a force, F is acting on an object of mass, m. The direction of displacement is from west to east shown by the longer arrow. Observe the diagrams carefully and state whether the work done by the force is negative, positive, or zero.

Work And Energy chapter 11Answer:
(1) Since the force(F) is perpendicular to the displacement(s), work done is zero
(2)Since the force(F) and displacement(s) are in the same direction, work done = Fs joule and positive
(3)Since the force(F) and displacement(s) are opposite directions, work done = – Fs joule and negative.

Question 19. Soni says that the acceleration in an object could be zero even when several forces are acting on it. Do you agree with her? Why?
Answer: Yes. I do agree with her. Acceleration can be zero if the resultant of several forces acting on the object is zero.

KSEEB Solutions for Work And Energy Short Notes 

Question 20. Find the energy in kW h consumed in 10 hours by four devices of power 500 W each.
Answer: The power of each device = 500W = 0.5kW
Therefore, Energy consumed by the 4 devices = 4xPxt = 4x 0.5 x 10 = 20kWh

Question 21. A freely falling object eventually stops on reaching the ground. What happens to its kinetic energy?
Answer: On reaching the ground, the kinetic energy of the falling body is converted into heat energy and sound energy.

Work And Energy Additional Questions

One Mark Questions

Question 1. Write an expression for the work when force and displacement are inclined with an angle Q.
Answer:
W = FS cos Q
where F = force
S = displacement

Question 2.Define the term energy
Answer: The energy of a body is defined as the capacity of the body to do the work.

Question 3. Name the largest natural sources of energy
Answer: The sun is the largest natural source of energy.

Question 4. Both work and energy has the same unit joule. Why
Answer: The energy possessed by an object is measured in terms of the capacity of doing work. Hence energy and work have the same unit joule.

Question 5. Give an account for the kinetic energy of a flying arrow.
Answer: The work done in stretching the string is stored as P.E. in the string. When the string is released the P.E. is converted into K.E. of the flying arrow.

Question 6. How do plants produce food?
Answer: Plants produce food through a process called photosynthesis with the help of solar energy.

Question 7. How are fuels such as coal and petroleum formed?
Answer: Millions of years ago plants and animals were buried deep inside the crust of the earth under temperature and pressure. They got converted into coal and petroleum.

Question 8. Calculate the speed of a body of mass 1kg having a kinetic energy of 1J
Answer:  1/2 mv2 = kinetic energy => 1/2  x 1 x v2 = 1 =>v2= 2 and v = \(\sqrt{2} \)m/s

Question 9. What happened to the potential energy and kinetic energy of a stone on reaching at the highest position?
Answer: Potential energy will be maximum and kinetic energy will be zero.

KSEEB Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Important Questions 

Question 10. How much work is done by a weight lifter when he holds a weight of 80kg on his shoulders for 2 minutes?
Answer: zero

Two Marks Questions

Question 11. Identify the energy possed by
(1)A running horse
(2)A raised hammer
(3)Compressed spring
(4)Water stored in a dam
(5)Book kept on a table
(6)A man climbing a hill
(7)A flying bird
Answer:
(1) Kinetic energy
(2) Potential energy
(3) Potential energy
(4) Potential energy
(5) Potential energy
(6) Both kinetic and potential energies
(7) Both K.E and P.E

Question 12. Write the energy transformation at
(1) Thermal power station
(2) Nuclear Power plant
(3) Hydroelectric power station
Answer:
(1) Chemical energy of coal —> heat —> kinetic energy —> electrical energy
(2)nuclear energy —> heat —> mechanical energy —> electrical energy
(3)kinetic energy of water —> electrical energy

Question 13. If the speed of a car is increased 3 times, what is the increase in kinetic energy?
Answer: Since K.E ∞ v2, the kinetic energy of the car increases 9 times

Question 14. A stone is thrown vertically upwards. The kinetic energy of the stone decreases gradually. Is the law of conservation of momentum violated? Justify your answer.
Answer: No. The law of conservation of energy is not violated because the decrease in the kinetic of the stone will be equal to the increase in its potential energy.

Question 15. What will be the power of a body when a force ION moves it with a constant velocity of 2m/s?
Answer: Power = Force x velocity =10 x 2 = 20W

Question 16.Mention the two conditions that need to be satisfied for work to be done
Answer:
1) A force should act on the object
2) The object must be displaced

Question 17. We apply a force to lift an object upwards against the gravity of the earth. Mention which force does positive work and which force does negative work.
Answer: The applied force does positive work since force and displacement are in the same direction. The force of gravity does negative work since the displacement is opposite to the force.

Question 18.
1) How is kinetic energy related to

  • Mass of the body
  • the velocity of the body

Answer:
1) Kinetic energy is directly proportional to the mass of the body.
2) Kinetic energy is directly proportional to the square of velocity.

Question 19. A bullet of mass 5g is fired with a velocity of lOOm/s. What is its kinetic energy?
Answer:
M = 5g = 5 x 10-3kg
v= 100 m/s
K.E. = 1/2 Mv2
= 1/2  x 5  x  10-3  x (100)2 =  25J

KSEEB Solutions Chapter 11 Energy Transformation Class 9 

Question 20. An object of mass 5kg is dropped from a height of 10m. What will be the kinetic energy? When it is 5m from the ground (g = 10m/s)
Answer: W.K.T.
v2=u2 + 2gh
= ( 0 )+ 2 x 10×5
v2= 100
v = \(\sqrt{100}=10 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

K.E. = 1/2 Mv2= 1/2  x  5  x  100 = 250 J

Question 21. Does a stretched rubber possess energy from where does it set energy?
Answer: Work done to stretch the rubber is converted into the potential energy of the rubber band.

Question 22. What kinds of energy conversions sustain the water cycle?
Answer: Solar energy converts water from water bodies into water varpus which get cooled and pour as rains. When the rainwater flows with K.E. and reaches the water bodies and its K.E. is converted into P.E.

Question 23. Define mechanical energy. Mention two forms of mechanical energy. State the law of conservation of energy
Answer: Energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position of motion is called mechanical energy. The two forms of mechanical energy are potential energy and kinetic energy. The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed

Question 24. Name the following devices which convert
1)Chemical energy into electrical energy
2)Electrical energy into mechanical energy
3)Mechanical energy into electrical energy
4)Light energy into electrical energy
5)Nuclear energy into electrical energy
6)Heat energy into mechanical energy
7)Wind energy into electrical energy
Answer:
1) Electric cell
2) Electric motor
3) Generator
4) Photocell
5) Nuclear power reactor
6) Turbine
7) Wind-mill

Question 25. Define work. When the work is said to be
(1) positive and
(2) negative
Answer:
Work is said to be done if a body moves under the action of a force
(1)If the force and displacement of a body are in the same direction, then work is said to be positive
(2)If the force and displacement of the body are in opposite directions, then work is said to be negative

Question 26. Write an expression for the work when force and displacement are
(1) in the same direction
(2) opposite directions
Answer:
(1) Fs
(2) – Fs where F = force and s = displacement

Question 27. Sharma tried to push a heavy rock of mass 120kg for 2 minutes with a force of 50N but could not move it. What will be the work done by Sharma at the end of 2 minutes?
Answer: Zero because there is no displacement of rock

Three Marks Questions

Question 28. What is kinetic energy? Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of a body
Answer:
Kinetic energy:
The energy of an object by virtue of its motion is called as its kinetic energy. Consider an object of mass ‘m’ moving with uniform velocity ‘u’. Let a constant force F acts on the object and displaces it through a distance ‘s’

Work done by the force W = Fs

Let ‘v’ be the final velocity of the object and ‘a’ be the acceleration of the object.

Using the equation v2=  u2 + 2as, we get

\(\mathrm{s}=\frac{v^2-u^2}{2 a}\)

According to Newton’s 2nd law of motion F = ma

Hence W = mas =ma x ( v2– u2 )/2a                          

\(=1 / 2 m\left(v^2-u^2\right)\)

If the object were at rest before the application of the force, then u = 0, and kinetic energy Ek = 1/2 m(v2 – u2)

Work And Energy KSEEB Class 9 Detailed Solutions 

Question 29.
1) Define gravitational potential energy.
2)Derive an expression for the gravitational potential energy of an object of mass ‘m’ kept a height ‘h from the ground
3)Find the energy possessed by an object of mass 10kg when it is at a height of 6m above the ground (given g = 9.8m/s2)
Answer:
1) The gravitational potential energy of an object at a point above the ground is defined as the work done in raising it from the ground to that point against gravity.
2)      Chapter 11 Gravitational potential energy

Consider an object of mass ‘nT is raised through a height ‘h’ from the ground. The force required to do this is F = mg where g = acceleration due to gravity
Thus work done (W) = F x h = mgh
This work is stored as the gravitational potential energy of the object. Thus gravitational potential energy (Ep) = mgh
3) Given m= 10kg, h = 6m and g = 9.8m/ s2 Potential energy of the body = mgh
= 10 x 9.8 x 6 = 588 joule

Question 30.
1) Define power. What is its S.I. unit?
2) Two girls A and B each of weight 400N climb up a rope through a height of 8m. Girl A takes the 20s while B takes the 50s to accomplish this task. What is the power expended by each girl?
Answer: Power is defined as the time rate of doing work.
ie P = work/time.
S.I unit power is a watt
Power extended by the girl A=mgh /1 = 400 x 8/20= 160W
Power extended by the girl B = 400 x 8 / 50 = 64W Self-test

Question 31. Define K.E. of a body. Prove that the change in K.E. of the body is equal to work done on it.
Answer:
K.E. of a body is defined as energy possessed by the body by virtue of its motion.

Consider an object of mass ‘m’ moving with uniform acceleration ‘a’.
u = initial velocity
v = final velocity
s = displacement, then we have v2= u2+ 2as => s =  \( \frac{\left(v^2-u^2\right)}{2 a}\)

\(\mathrm{w}=\frac{1}{2} m\left(v^2-u^2\right)\)

If the object moves from rest, then u = o.
Hence w = 1/2 M V2

Thus work done = change in K.E. of the body.

Question 32.
1)An expression for K.E. of a body.
2)How much work has to be done by the engine of the car to increase the velocity of car from 30kmh-1 to  60kmh-1 Most of car is 1500kg.
Answer:
1)K.E. = 1/2 M V2
Where m = mass of the body v = velocity of the body
2) Mass of the car (m) = 1500kg Initial velocity of the car (u) = 30 x

\(\frac{5}{18}=\frac{25}{3} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\) \(1 \mathrm{kmh}^{-1}=\frac{5}{18} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

Final velocity of the car (v) = \(60 \times \frac{5}{18}=\frac{50}{3} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

work done by the engine [/latex]=\frac{1}{2} m\left(v^2-u^2\right)[/latex]

\( =1 / 2 \times 1500\left(\frac{50}{3}\right)^2-\left(\frac{25}{3}\right)^2\) \( =750 \times\left(\frac{2500}{9}-\frac{625}{9}\right)\) \(=\frac{750 \times 1875}{9}=156250 \mathrm{~J}\)

 

Work And Energy KSEEB Class 9 Solutions 

Question 33. The gravitational potential energy of a body does not depend on the path on which the body is moved. Illustrate your answer with the example.
Answer:

Chapter 11 Gravitational potential energyCase (1):
consider a block is taken from initial position A to B along the path -1 work done (W1) = Force x displacement
= mg x AB
ie Gravitation P.E. = mg x h

Case (2):
Now consider the block is taken along path 2 ie APQRSB
work done to raise from A to P = mg * AP work done to move from P to Q = 0 (since the displacement is perpendicular to the force of gravity)

work done to move from Q to R = mg x QR

work done to move from R to S=0 work done to move from S to B=mg x SB

thus total work done to raise the block along path 2 = mg (AP + QR + SB)
=mg x AB
Gravitational P.E. = mgh

Thus gravitational potential energy does not de- pend on the path through which the body is raised.

Work And Energy Application Questions

Question 1. A man pushes a wall but fails to displace it. Is work done? Justify your answer.
Answer: No work is done because there is no displacement of the wall.

Question 2. How much work done in moving an object around a circular path of radius 5m by a force of 10N?
Answer: zero. No work is done because the displacement and the centripetal force are perpendicular to each other.

Question 3. A 35kg boy runs along a circular path of radius 10m with uniform speed 5m/s. How much word is done by the in completing one circle. Justify your answer.
Answer: Zero. The displacement of the boy after one circle is zero. Hence work done is zero.

Question 4.
1) When does an object

  • Lose energy
  • gain energy

Answer:
1) When work is done by the object, the body loss energy
2) When work is done on the object, the body gains energy

Question 5. Can kinetic energy be negative?
Answer: because K.E. = 1/2 mv2
where mass (m) = positive quantity
and V2=positive quantity

Question 6. Why does the air move from place to place?
Answer: Due to solar energy the air is heated and becomes light. Hence it moves up and cooler air reaches its place.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound Important Concepts

Sound: It is a form of energy produced by a vibrating body and travels in the form of longitudinal waves
Vibration or oscillation: The to and fro motion of a body about its mean position Amplitude: Maximum displacement of a particle in vibration
Time – period: Time is taken by a particle to complete one vibration
Frequency(f): The number of vibrations executed by a particle of a medium or the number of waves produced by a source. It is measured in hertz (Hz)
Wave: A disturbance set up in a medium due to vibrations of the particles of the medium Wave velocity(v): Distance travelled by the wave in one second
Transverse wave: The wave iu which the particles vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion.
Examples: Light waves, X- rays, waves on the surface of water etc

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Science 

Class 9 Social ScienceClass 9 ScienceClass 9 Maths

 

Longitudinal wave: The wave in which the particles vibrate along the direction of the wave motion. Examples: Sound waves, waves produced by the vibrating prongs of a tuning fork.
Crest: The maximum displacement of a transverse wave in the positive cycle
Trough: The maximum displacement of a transverse wave in the negative cycle
Compression: The part of the longitudinal wave in which the particles come closer to each other. Density and pressure will be maximum
Rarefaction: It is the part of the longitudinal wave in which particles move apart from their normal positions
Wavelength: For a transverse wave, the wavelength is the distance between two consecutive crests or troughs. For a longitudinal wave, it is the distance between two consecutive compressions or troughs. In general, it is the distance travelled by a wave in one period
Relation between wave velocity, frequency and wavelength: v= f λ
Mechanical waves: The waves which need a material medium for their propagation Example: Sound waves
Electromagnetic waves: The waves which can propagate through a vacuum also Example: Light waves
Echo: The repetition of sound reflection of original sound from the surface of large and hard obstacles. For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of the sound must be 17.2 m.
Law of reflection of sound: The directions in which the sound is incident and reflected make equal angles with the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence and the three lie in the same plane.
Reverberation: The persistence of sound in a hall or an auditorium due to multiple reflections of sound
Musical sound: It is the sound which produces a sensation of pleasure.
Noise: It is the sound which is not pleasing
Pitch: It is a property of sound which enables a person to differentiate between a high and flat sound. Higher is the frequency, the greater will be the pitch of the sound
Loudness: It is a physiological response of the ear to the intensity of the sound
Quality(Timbre): It is the property of the sound which enables a person to differentiate between two sounds of the same pitch and loudness.
Audible sound: It is the sound whose frequency range is 20Hz to 20kHz
Infrasonic waves: The sound waves whose frequency is less than 20Hz
Ultrasonic waves: The soundwaves with frequencies greater than 20kHz
SONAR(Sound Navigation and Ranging): It is a technique used to detect the direction and distance of underwater objects by using ultrasonic sound waves.
Megaphone: A device used to send sound in a particular direction
Stethoscope: A medical instrument used for listening to sounds produced within the body mainly in the heart and lungs.

Sound KSEEB Class 9 Question Answers 

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound

Sound Exercises

Question 1. How does the sound produce by a vibrating object in a medium reach your ear?
Answer: The vibrating object sets neighbouring air particles into periodic motion. This leads to the formation of compressions and rarefactions which through the medium and reach the tympanum of the ear. The tympanum membrane vibrates which leads to the sensation of hearing.

Question 2. Explain how sound is produced by your school bell.
Answer: When the bell is hit by a hammer, it begins to vibrate. The vibrations disturb the air particles which transfer the sound energy through he medium by periodic vibrations

Question 3. Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?
Answer: Since sound waves require a material medium for their propagation, they are called as mechanical waves

Question 4. Suppose you ad your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any sound produced by your friend?
Answer: Since the moon is a barren place ie no atmosphere or a material medium, sound can’t travel in the moon. Hence friend cannot hear the sound

Question 5. What are the wavelength, frequency, time period ad amplitude of the sound wave?
Answer:
Wavelength(λ): For a transverse wave, the wavelength is the distance between two consecutive crests or troughs. For a longitudinal wave, it is the distance between two consecutive compressions or troughs. In general, it is the distance travelled by a wave in one period

Frequency(v): The number of vibrations executed by a particle of a medium or the number of waves produced by a source. It is measured in hertz (Hz)

Time — period (T): Time is taken by a particle to complete one vibration

Amplitude: Maximum displacement of a particle in vibration

Question 6. How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound wave related to its speed?
Answer: v = v λ where v = speed, v = frequency and λ = wavelength of sound waves

Question 7. Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220Hz and speed is 440m/s in a given medium.
Answer: λ= v/v = 440/220 2m

Question 8. A person is listening to a tone of 500Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source of the sound. What is the time interval between successive compressions from the source?
Answer: Time interval between two successive compressions = 1/ f= 1/500 = m0.002sec.

Question 9. Which wave property determines
1) loudness
2) pitch
Answer: Intensity determines loudness and frequency determines the pitch

Question 10. Guess which sound has a higher pitch: guitar or car horn?
Answer: Guitar sound has a higher pitch than a car horn

Question 11. Distinguish between loudness and intensity of sound.
Answer:
Intensity:
1. It is the amount of sound energy incident per unit area per second
2. It is independent of the condition of the human ear

Loudness:
1. It is a physiological response of ear to the sound.
2. It depends on the intensity and condition of a human ear

Question 12. In which of the three media: air, water or iron does sound travel the fastest at a particular temperature?
Answer: Iron

Question 13. An echo returned in 3s. What is the distance sensation fo hearing? The sound produced by of the reflecting surface from the source, vibrations of objects given that the speed of sound is 342m/s?
Answer:
Speed of the sound = 342m/s
Total time take by the sound from the source to air near a source of a listener and the listener to source =3s
Total distance travelled = speed x time
= 342x 3 = 1026m
Distance of the reflecting surface from the source
= 1/2 x Half the total distance travelled
= 1026/2 = 513 m

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 KSEEB Textbook Solutions 

Question 14. Why are the ceilings of concert halls of high curved?
Answer: It is done so to make sound after multiple object reflections reach all parts of the hall.

Question 15. What is the audible range of frequency of the average human ear?
Answer: 20Hz to 20kHz

Question 16. What is the range of frequencies associated with
1)Infrasonic sound and
2)ultrasonic sound?
Answer: For Infrasonic sound < 20Hz and for ultrasonic sound >20kHz

Question 17. A submarine emits a SONAR pulse, which returns from an obstacle underwater cliffin 1.02s. If the speed of sound in sla water is 1531m m/s, how far away is he cliff?
Answer: Total distance travelled by sound = velocity x time
2x ==. 153 x 1.02 m
x = 1531 x 1.02/2 = 780.81m
Thus distance of the cliffis 789.8m

Question 18. What is sound and how is it produced?
Answer: A sound is a form of energy which produces the sensation fo hearing. The sound produced by vibrations of objects

Question 19. Describe with the help of a diagram, how compressions rarefactions are produced in air near a source of the sound.
Answer:

Source of Sound Chapter 12

When a tuning fork vibrates, It pushes and compresses the air in front of it creating a region of high density and pressure called compression. This compression moves away from the vibrating object. When the vibrating prongs move backwards, it creates a region of lower density and low pressure called rarefaction as shown in the figure. As the prongs move back and forth rapidly, a series of compressions and rarefactions is created in the air. Thus the sound wave moves through the medium in the form of a series of compressions and rarefactions.

Question 20. Cite an experiment to show that sound needs a material medium for its propagation.
Answer: An electric bell is suspended inside an air-tight glass bell jar as shown in the figure. The bell jar is connected to a vacuum pump. When a switch is pressed, we will be able to hear the sound of the bell. Now the air from the jar is pumped out gradually. The sound of the bell becomes fainter. When the air is completely removed, we hear no sound from the jar. The experiment clearly indicates that sound requires a material medium for its propagation.

Question 21. Why is a sound wave called a longitudinal wave?
Answer: When the sound wave travels through a medium, the particles vibrate to and fro along the direction of the wave motion. Hence the sound is called a longitudinal wave

Question 22. Which characteristic of the sound helps you to identify your friend by his voice while sitting with others in a dark room?
Answer: Quality or timbre

Question 23. Flash and thunder are produced simultaneously. But thunder is heard a few seconds after the flash is seen, why?
Answer: It is because the speed of sound is much less than that of light

KSEEB Solutions For Sound Short Notes 

Question 24. A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths of sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air as 344m/s
Answer: Wavelength corresponding to 20 Hz = 344/20 = 17.2 m Wavelength corresponding to 20kHz = 344/ 20,000 = 0.0172m

Question 25. Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminium rod. One strikes the end of the rod with a stone. Find the ratio of times taken by the sound wave in air and in aluminium to reach the second child. Speed of sound in air = 346m/s and that in aluminium = 6420m/s)
Answer:
Time is taken by the sound in air=distance /velocity
= x /346 second
Time taken by the sound in Afuminium=x/6420
Ratio of times = (x/346) / (x/6420) = 6420/346 = 18.55

Question 26. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?
Answer:
Frequency = number of vibrations in 1 sec = 100
Hence the number of vibrations in 1 minute
ie 60 sec = 60 x 100 = 6000

Question 27. Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? Explain.
Answer: Yes. Like light, the sound gets reflected from the surface of a solid or liquid and follows the same law of reflection. As in the case of light, the direction in which the is incident and reflected make equal angles with the normal to the reflecting surface and three lie in the same plane

Question 28. When a sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound production remains the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day?
Answer: No. This is because, during hotter days, the speed of sound decreases and the reflected sound returns to the listener in less than 0.1 s (The minimum time required to hear the reflection of sound)

Question 29. Give two practical applications of the reflection of sound waves.
Answer:
(1) Stethoscope is used to hear the sounds produced in the lungs and heart
(2) Megaphones which is used to send sound in a particular direction

Question 30. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Given, g= 10 m/s2 and speed of sound = 340 m Is?
Answer:
Let s = 500m, g = 10m/s2, u = 0 and t = time taken by the stone to reach the base of the tower
Now we have s = ut + Vz gt2 => 500 = Vz (10) t2 => t2 = 100
Thus t = V100 = 10 sec
Time is taken by the sound to reach the top of the tower from the base = 500.340 = 1.47s
Thus splash of the sound is heard after 10 + 1.47
= 11. 47 sec

Question 31. A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 m/s. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, what is the frequency of the wave? Will it be audible?
Answer:
Frequency = speed/ wavelength = 33 9/.015 = 22,600Hz (Ultrasonic sound) Hence the sound is not audible because the range of frequency of audible sound is 20Hz to 20,000Hz.

Question 32. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?
Answer:
The persistence of sound in a large hall due to multiple reflections of sound is called reverberation. It can be reduced by
(1)By covering the roof and the wall of the auditorium by sound absorbing materials
(2)Using heavy curtains

Question 33. What is the loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?
Answer: It is a physiological response of the ear to the intensity of the sound. It depends on
(1) Intensity of the sound
(2) Sensitivity of the human ear

Question 34. Explain how bats use ultrasound to catch prey.
Answer: During its flight, a bat emits ultrasonic waves. After receiving the reflected waves, the bat understands the nature of the object and its size before preying on it.

KSEEB Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Important Questions 

Question 35. How is ultrasound used for cleaning?
Answer: The objects to be cleaned are placed in a
cleaning solution and ultrasonic waves are sent into the solution. Due to high frequency, the particles of dust, grease and dirt get detached and drop out. Thus the objects are cleaned.

Question 36. Explain the working and application of a sonar.
Answer: Sonar is a device that uses ultrasonic waves to measure the distance, direction and speed of underwater objects. Sonar consists of a transmitter and a detector and is installed in a boat or a ship.

Sound Chapter 12

The transmitter produces and transmits ultrasonic waves. These waves travel through water and after striking the object on the seabed, get reflected back and are sensed by the detector. The detector converts the ultrasonic waves into electrical signals which are appropriately interpreted. The distance of the object that reflected the sound wave can be calculated by knowing the speed of sound in water and the time interval between transmission and reception of the ultrasound. Let the time interval between transmission and reception of ultrasound signal be t and the speed of sound through seawater be v. The total distance, 2d travelled by the ultrasound is then, 2d = v x t.

Question 37. A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 s later. Calculate the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine is 3625 m.
Answer:
Given t = 5s and total distance travelled (2d)
3625 + 3625 = 7250m
Velocity of the sound in water = 2d /1 = 7250/5
= 1450m/s

Question 38. Explain how defects in a metal block can be detected using ultrasound.
Answer: Ultrasonic waves are allowed to pass through the metal block and detectors are used to detect the transmitted waves. If there is even a small defect, the ultrasound gets reflected back indicating the presence of the flaw or defect.Ultra Sound Chapter 12

Question 39. Explain how the human ear works.
Answer: The outer ear is called ‘pinna’. It collects the sound from the surroundings. The collected sound passes through the auditory canal. At the end of the auditory canal, there is a thin membrane called the ear drum or tympanic membrane. When compression of the medium reaches the eardrum the pressure on the outside of the membrane increases and forces the eardrum inward. Similarly, the eardrum moves outward when a rarefaction reaches it. In this way the eardrum vibrates.

The vibrations are amplified several times by three bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) in the middle ear. The middle ear transmits the amplified pressure variations received from the sound wave to the inner ear. In the inner ear, the pressure variations are turned into electrical signals by the cochlea. These electrical signals are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve, and the brain interprets them as sound.

Sound Additional Questions

One Mark Questions

Question 1. What is the principle of a stethoscope?
Answer: Multiple reflections of sound

Question 2. Name two animals that can produce ultra¬sound.
Answer: Dolphins and bats

Question 3. What is the abbreviation of SONAR?
Answer: Sound navigation and ranging

Question 4. What is the nature of sound waves in the air?
Answer: Longitudinal nature.

Question 5. Can a motion be periodic but not oscillatory?
Answer: Yes. Uniform circular motion of an object

Question 6. What does that move in wave motion?
Answer: Energy

Two Marks Questions

Question 7. What is Sonic boom?
Answer: A very sharp and loud sound produced by the shock waves produced by a source of sound moving with a speed greater than sound is called a sonic boom.

KSEEB Solutions Chapter 12 Properties Of Sound Class 9 

Question 8. What is a periodic motion? Give an example
Answer: The motion of an object which is repeated itself regularly in a fixed interval of time is called periodic motion.
Example: Motion of earth around the sun

Question 9. What is an oscillatory motion? Give an example
Answer: The to and fro motion of an object about a fixed position(mean position) is called an oscillatory motion. Example: Motion of bob of a pendulum

Question 10.Differentiate between mechanical waves and non-mechanical waves
Answer:
Mechanical waves:
1. Require a material medium for their propagation
2. Maybe longitudinal or transverse
3. Ex: Sound waves, Seismic waves
Non-Mechanical waves:
1. Do not require any material medium for propagation only transverse
Ex: Light waves, radio waves

Question 11.Mention the types of waves produced in the following cases
(1) When a stone is dropped into still pond water
(2) The weight attached to a spring is slightly pulled and released
(3) The string of Veena is plucked
Answer:
(1) Transverse waves
(2) longiudinal waves
(3) Transverse waves

Question 12. What is an echo? What should be the mini¬mum distance between the source of sound and the obstacle?
Answer: The phenomenon of repetition of sound due to reflection from a large rigid surface is called echo. The minimum distance between the source of sound and the obstacle must be 17.2m.

Question 13. Distinguish between echo and reverbera¬tion.
Answer: The repetition of sound due to reflection from an obstacle is called echo. The original sound and echo can be heard separately. Reverberation is the persistence of sound due to multiple re¬flections from many obstacles.

Question 14. What is ultrasonic or ultrasound? What are their special characteristics?
Answer: The sound whose frequencies are > 20,000 Hz are called ultrasound. They can travel along well-defined paths even through obstacles.

Question 15. How is ultrasound used to clean electronic equipment?
Answer: Objects are kept in a cleaning solution and ul¬trasonic waves are sent into the solution due to high frequency, the particles of dust, grease and dirt get detached and drop out.

Three Marks Questions

Question 16. What is echocardiography (ECG)?
Answer: The technique in which ultrasonic waves are reflected from various parts of the heart and an image of the heart is obtained on a screen is called echocardiography.

Question 17.Differentiate between Longitudinal and transverse waves
Answer:
Longitudinal waves:
1. The particles in the wave vibrate along the direction of the propagation of the wave motion.
2. The waves propagate in the form of alternate crests and troughs
3. Ex: Lightwaves
Transverse waves:
1. The particles vibrate in the direction perpendicular to the direction of the Wave motion.
2. The waves propagate in the form of compressions and rarefactions.
3. Ex: Sound waves

Question 18.Differentiate between Sound waves and light waves
Answer:
Soundwaves
1. Longitudinal in nature
2. Requires a material medium for propagation
Light waves
1. Longitudinal in nature
2. Does not require a material medium for propagation.

Sound KSEEB Class 9 Detailed Solutions 

Question 19. Give a graphical representation of a transverse wave and longitudinal wave
Answer:
Transverse waves:

Sound Transverse waves

Longitudinal Waves:

Sound Longitudinal Waves

Question 20. Ocean waves of time interval period 0.01s have a speed of 15m/s. What is the distance between a wave crest and the adjoining wave trough?
Answer:
Distance between a crest and the adjoining trough = 1/2 x  wavelength
= 1/2  x  velocity / frequency = 1/2 x 15/0.01
= 0. 075 m or 7.5cm

Question 21.Mention important medical applications of ultrasound sound
Answer: Electrocardiograph (ECG), Ultra scanning and breaking of small stones in the kidneys

Question 22. Draw a neat diagram to show the auditory parts of the human ear. Mention the functions of small bones present in the middle ear
Answer:

Sound Ear Chapter 12

The small bones present in the middle ear amplify the vibrations several times

Four Marks Questions

Question 23. Explain briefly the propagation of sound in air.
Answer: When a source produces sound, it compresses air in front of it creating a region of high pressure. This region is called compression.

Propagation of sound

This compression starts to move away from the vibrating source. This leads a region of low pres¬sure called rarefaction as shown in fig. Due to elasticity and inertia, the compressions and rarefactions are transformed to neighbouring air particles. Thus a series of compressions and air particles help sound energy to propagate through air.

Question 24. Describe Bell jar experiment to show sound requires a material medium for its propagation (OR) Describe the Bell jar experiment to show that sound cannot travel in a vacuum.
Answer:

Sound vacuum

An electric bell is suspended inside an airtight glass bell jar as shown in the figure. The bell jar is connected to a vacuum pump. The electric bell is switched and the sound is heard clearly. Start the vacuum pump and remove the air in the jar gradually, the sound becomes fainter and fainter and finally stops when the air is completely removed. Even though the same current is flowing through the electric bell, we hear no sound. This experiment clearly demonstrates that sound waves cannot travel in a vacuum.

Question 25. What are called longitudinal waves? Mention their characteristics. Give an example.
Answer: The waves in which particles of the medium vibrate in the direction of wave motion are called longitudinal waves.
Characteristics:
1. They constitute alternate compression and rarefaction
2. They propagate through solids, gases and liquids.
3. They produce pressure changes in different parts of the medium
Examples:
1. sound waves
2. Waves inside the water

Question 26. What are called transverse waves? Mention their characteristics. Given examples.
Answer: The waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate in the direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the medium are called transverse waves.
Characteristics:
1. The wave contains alternate crests and troughs
2. They propagate through solids and on the surface of liquids
3. They involve changes in the shape of the medium
Examples:
1. light waves
2. waves in the stretched string

Question 27. What are called mechanical waves and non-mechanical waves? How are they produced? Given examples.
Answer:
Mechanical waves: The waves which require a material medium for their propagation are called Mechanical waves.
Mechanical waves are produced due to vibrations of particles of the medium
Example:
1. sound waves
2. water waves

Non – Mechanical waves: The waves which do not require any material medium or which can propagate through a vacuum are called non-mechanical waves.
Non – mechanical waves are produced due to electric and magnetic vibrations
Example:
1. light waves
2. Radio waves.

Sound KSEEB Class 9 Question Answers 

Question 28. Define the frequency and wavelength of a sound wave. Hence derive the relation V = +ve with the usual notation.
Answer:
Frequency: The number of oscillations completed by a particle of the medium in the wave motion.
Wavelength: It is the distance travelled by the wave in one period.
Relation V = +ve
The speed of sound is defined as the distance travelled by the wave in one second Speed (v) = distance/time
t / T
Here t is the distance (wavelength) travelled by the sound wave in one period (T) of the wave
Thus V = +ve

where v = frequency =  \(\frac{1}{\text { period(T) }}\)

Question 29.
1) What is a hearing aid? How does it work?
2)Ordinary sound cannot be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks why?
Answer:
1) Hearing aid is a battery-operated electronic device used by people with hearing loss
working of hearing aid:
A microphone in the aid receives sound and converts it to electrical signals. These signals are amplified by an amplifier. The amplified sound is fell into a speaker. The speaker converts electrical signals to the original sound and sends to the ear.
2) Ordinary sound waves have longer wavelengths and bend around the comers of the defective parts. Hence we cannot detect the flaws.

Sound Application Questions

Question 1. Megaphones or horn has a conical opening at the end. Why
Answer: It is designed to so to send most of the sound waves in the forward direction ie towards the audience.

Question 2. Why do some animals like dogs get disturbed before an earthquake?
Answer: Dogs can sense out the low-frequency infrasound before earth square.

Question 3. What happens to the speed of sound when the temperature is increased?
Answer: The speed of the sound increases.

Question 4. Name a phenomenon exhibited by the transverse wave but not a longitudinal wave
Answer: Polarisation

Question 5. Ultrasonic waves are used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks. Why.
Answer: Due to their short wave, they do not bend away from cracks.

Question 6. We can hear the sound of humming bees but cannot hear the oscillation of the pendulum.
Answer: The sound of humming bees has an audible frequency ( >20 Hz)whereas the oscillation of a pendulum has a frequency of < 30 Hz.

Question 7. Sound waves are longitudinal waves. Why
Answer:
In sound waves, the particles of the medium vibrate back and forth about their mean position. Light waves consist of an oscillating electric field and magnetic field and therefore do not require any material medium for their propagation.

Question 8. Why do we call light waves electromagnetic waves?
Answer: Light waves consists of an oscillating electric field and magnetic field and therefore do not require any material medium for their propagation.

Question 9. What type of waves are produced by prongs of a tuning force?
Answer: Longitudinal waves

Question 10. What do you mean by the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8ms’2?
Answer: It means the velocity of anybody falling freely a minute. Calculate its frequency under earth’s gravity changes by 9.8 m/s.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources

KSEEB Solutions Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources Important Concepts

  • Resources – Air, water, soil
  • Pollution – Air, water, soil
  • Bio-geo chemical cycles, water cycle, Nitrogen cycle
  • Carbon cycle, Oxygen Cycle, Greenhouse ef-feet, and the Ozone layer.

Natural Resources: The materials present in a natural environment and useful to living organisms are called natural resources.
Examples: Air, water, soil, minerals, plants & animals.
Biosphere: It is the life-supporting zone of the earth where the atmosphere, the hydrosphere and the lithosphere interact and make life possible.
Importance of atmosphere
1)Role of atmosphere in climate control.
2)The movement of air.
3)Rain
Air pollution: It is an undesirable change in the physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air.
Effects of Air pollution: Air pollution affects the respiratory system causing breathing difficulties and diseases such as asthma, lung cancer, tuberculosis and pneumonia.

Class 9 Social ScienceClass 9 ScienceClass 9 Maths

 

Read and Learn More KSEEB Solutions for Class 9 Science 

Acid Rain: The rainwater contains a mixture of sulphuric acid and Nitric acid with a pH of less than 5.6.
Water-A wonder liquid: The oceans, rivers, streams, lakes, ponds, pools, polar ice caps, water vapour etc., collectively form the hydrosphere.
Water pollution: An undesirable change in the physical, biological or chemical qualities of water that adversely affects the aquatic life, and makes water less fit or unfit for use.
Harmful effects of water pollution: The substances like fertilizers and pesticides used in farming, and toxic metals used by industries could be poisonous. Industrial and household waste reduce the dissolved oxygen in water bodies, thereby affecting aquatic life.
Soil: It forms the upper surface of the land and supports plant growth. Soil is the layer of unconsolidated particles derived from weathered rock, organic matter, water and air.
Soil pollution: The contamination of soil (or land) with solid waste, chemicals, fertilizers and pesticides, reducing its fertility is called soil pollution.
Harmful effects of soil pollution: Excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides pollute the soil, affect its fertility, the soil thus, maybe- come acidic or alkaline.
Biogeochemical cycles: The eye he flows of nutrients between non-living environments and living organisms is known as biogeochemical cycles. It is the process of transfer and circulation of essential chemical nutrients such as carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen in a biosphere.
Water cycle: It is the whole process in which water evaporates and falls on the land as rain and later flows back into the sea via rivers. Plants also release water to the atmosphere through transpiration. Water is also released into the atmosphere from rivers and oceans by evaporation.
Nitrogen cycle: The source of nitrogen is an atmosphere which contains 78% of the nitrogen in the form of gas. Nitrogen is an essential nutrient for all life forms. The nitrogen cycle in the biosphere involves the following important steps.
1)Nitrogen fixation
2)Ammonification
3)Nitrification
4)Denitrification
Carbon cycle: Carbon is found in various forms on the earth.
1)As carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
2)As carbonates in various minerals.
3)As fossil fuels like coal, petroleum and natural gas. Plants utilise atmospheric carbon dioxide in photosynthesis to produce carbohydrates, which are taken by herbivores and then pass through carnivores.
Oxygen cycle: Oxygen forms about 21 per cent of the atmospheric gases. It is also present in dissolved form in water bodies and helps in the survival of aquatic life. The oxygen cycle maintains the level of oxygen in the atmosphere. Oxygen from the atmosphere is used up in three processes namely combustion, respiration and in the formation of oxides of nitrogen. Green plants are the major source of oxygen in the atmosphere.
The greenhouse effect: It is an effect occurring in the atmosphere because of the presence of greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone etc., that absorb infrared radiation, thereby increasing the global temperature.
Ozone layer: This is a layer of ozone (03) surrounding the earth. It protects the earth from harmful radiation like U. V. radiation. The (CFCs) are released into the air it accumulates in the upper atmosphere and reacts with ozone resulting in the reduction of the ozone layer by forming a hole.

KSEEB Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources

Natural Resources Exercises

Question 1. Why is the atmosphere essential for life?
Answer: The atmosphere acts as a protective blanket for organisms to exist. It keeps the average temperature of the earth fairly steady during the day and even during the course of whole year. The atmosphere contains all the important gases which are required for sustaining life on earth.

Question 2. Why is water essential for life?
Answer: Organisms need water because it plays a vital role in the metabolic reactions taking place within an organism’s body. It acts as a universal solvent, providing a medium for chemical reactions to occur.

Natural Resources KSEEB Class 9 Question Answers 

Question 3. How are living organisms dependent on the soil? Are organisms that live in water totally independent of soil as a resource?
Answer: Soil is a complex mixture comprising of minerals, organic matter, water, air and living organisms. Soil provides a natural habitat for different organisms and also provides nutrients to the plants for their growth and development. Aquatic organisms dependent on the soil as a resource because decomposers present in the bottom sediments of water bodies decompose dead, decaying organic matter into simple, in organic substances.

Question 4. You have seen weather reports on television and in newspapers. How do you think we are able to predict the weather?
Answer: Weather report can be recorded by information such as direction and speed of wind, temperature, humidity and patterns of cloud formation.

Question 5. We know that many human activities lead to increasing levels of pollution of the air, water-bodies and soil -• Do you think that isolating these activities to specific and limited areas would help in reducing pollution?
Answer: Human activities lead to increasing the levels of pollution of the air, water bodies and soil. Isolating such activities to specific and limited areas may help in reducing pollution of the air, water bodies and soil. Isolating sub-activities to specific and limited areas may help in reducing pollution.If we follow the safety measures we can check or stop the pollution.

Question 6. Write a note on how forests influence the quality of air, soil and water resources.
Answer: Forests influence the quality of air, soil and water resources in the following ways.
Air:
Forests help in minimising the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Plants maintain the oxygen balance in the atmosphere.
Soil:
The roots of trees prevent erosion of topsoil by holding the soil particles tightly.
Water:
Forests help in maintaining the water cycle as well as the water resources of the earth.

Natural Resources Textual Questions

Question 1. How is our atmosphere different from the atmosphere on venus and mars?
Answer: On planets Venus and mars, carbon dioxide is the major constitute but nitrogen, oxygen and water vapour are absent, so life does not exist. On our planet earth, the atmosphere contains a mixture of many gases like oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapour hence life exist.

Question 2. How does the atmosphere act as a blanket?
Answer: The atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the earth fairly steady during the day and even during the course of the whole year.

Question 3.What cause winds?
Answer: The movement of air from one region to another creates winds when the solar radiations fall on the earth, some are absorbed and a majority of these are reflected back or re-radiated by the land and water bodies. These reflected or re-radiated solar radiations heat up the atmosphere from below. As a result convection currents are set up in the air. But since land gets heated faster than the water, the air above the land gets heated faster then the air over water bodies. During the day, the air over land gets heated faster and starts rising, creating a low pressure below. As a result the air over the sea moves into this region of low pressure.

Question 4. How are clouds formed?
Answer: The water evaporates due to the Heating up of water bodies and other biological activities. The air also heats and rises, on rising, it expands and cools to form tiny droplets. These droplets grow bigger, expand and form clouds, and they fall down in the form of rain.

Question 5. List any three human activities that you think would lead to air pollution.
Answer:
The human activities that leads to air pollution are,
1)Burning of fossil fuels.
2)Smoke from automobiles.
3)Forest fires, excessive use of chloroform carbons and industrialisation.

Question 6. Why do organisms need water?
Answer:
Organisms need water for the following reasons.
1)It plays a vital role in the metabolic reactions taking place in the organisms.
2)It transports the substances from one part of the body to the other in the dissolved form.
3)It helps in the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients in the blood.

Question 7. What is the major source of fresh water in the city/town/village where you live?
Answer: The major source of fresh water in the city/village/town were we live is underground water.

Question 8. Do you know of any activity which may be polluting this water source?
Answer: Sewage and industrial wastes are the major sources of water pollution.

Class 9 Science Chapter 14 KSEEB Textbook Solutions 

Question 9. How is soil formed?
Answer: The rocks are broken down by various physical, chemical and biological processes. The breakdown of bigger rocks into small, file soil particles is called weathering. Even the sun, wind, water also helps in soil formation.

Question 10. What is soil erosion?
Answer: The removal of topsoil which is rich in humus and nutrients by flowing water or wind is called soil erosion.

Question 11. What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion?
Answer:
Soil erosion can be prevented by.
1)Afforestation
2)Sowing grasses
3)Terrace forming
4)Preventing overgrazing.

Question 12. What are the different states in which water is found during the water cycle?
Answer:
Water exists in all three states of matter during the water cycle.
1)Gaseous state “Evaporation of water from the water bodies in the form of water vapour.
2)liquid state – Water vapour condenses and forms rain.
3)Solid state – Sometimes the freezing of liquid droplets in the snow.

Question 13. Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and Nitrogen.
Answer:
1)Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA)
2)Proteins

Question 14. List any three human activities which would lead to an increase in the carbon dioxide content of air.
Answer:
1)Burning of fossil fuels.
2)Industries and automobiles
3)Deforestation.

Question 15. What is the greenhouse effect?
Answer: Some greenhouse gases like co2 prevent the escape of heat from the earth. An increase in the atmosphere would cause the average temperatures to increase worldwide and this is called the greenhouse effect.

Question 16. What are the two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere?
Answer:
1) oxygen (o2)
2) Ozone (o3)
The other sources are oxides and biological molecules.

Natural Resources Additional Questions

Question 1. What are biodegradable pollutants?
Answer: Pollutants which can be decomposed by microbial activity.
Example: Organic wastes like traits of vegetables.

Question 2. Write any two uses of carbon dioxide gas
Answer:
1)Carbon dioxide is fixed by plants to prepare food by photosynthesis.
2)Carbon dioxide can trap heat and prevent its escape from the atmosphere of the earth, maintaining temperature.

Question 3. Name two types of biogeochemical cycles.
Answer:
1)Gaseous cycle.
Example: Oxygen
2)Sedimentary cycle.
Example: Phosphorous

Question 4. What is biomagnification?
Answer: The phenomenon of an increase in the concentration of harmful non-biodegradable substances in the body of living organisms at each tropic level of the food chain is called biomagnification.

Question 5. What is eutrophication?
Answer: It is the process in which excessive growth of algal (algal bloom) occurs as a result of a high content of nutrients (nitrates and phosphates) in the water body. Eutrophication leads to the depletion of dissolved oxygen in water resulting in the killing of aquatic organisms.

Question 6. Name two acids that are usually present in acid rain.
Answer: Sulphuric acid and Nitric acid

Question 7. How are CFCS harmful for the environment and living beings?
Answer: The CFCs are not degraded by any biological process. It reacts with the ozone layer and causes hole in the ozone layer.

Question 8. What causes the movement of air?
Answer: The movement of air is caused by the uneven heating of the atmosphere in different regions of the earth.

KSEEB Solutions For Natural Resources Short Notes 

Question 9. Write the biotic and abiotic components of our environment.
Answer: Biotic components are plants, Animals and microorganisms Abiotic components are land, air, water etc.

Question 10. What is the atmosphere? List its four concentric layers.
Answer: The envelope of air that surrounds our planet earth is called the atmosphere. The four main concentric layers of the atmosphere are the troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere and thermosphere.

Question 11. What is smog? Mention its harmful effect.
Answer: Smoke containing fog particles result in smog. It causes breathing problems.

Natural Resources High-Order Thinking Questions

Question 1. Why do not lichens occur in Bengaluru whereas they commonly grow in Darjeeling?
Answer: Lichens act as bioindicators o fair pollution and are sensitive to sulphur dioxide. Bengaluru has the maximum number of vehicles vehicular exhaust has increased concentrations of sulphur dioxide and it kills lichens.

Question 2. State reasons for the following:
1)Excess burning of coal causes the greenhouse effect.
2)Temperature ranges from – 190°C to 110°C on the surface of the moon.
Answer:
1) Excess burning of coal produces greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide methane etc. These gases have a tendency to trap the beat of the sun thereby causing the greenhouse effect,
2)The moon has no atmosphere. The atmosphere helps to regulate the temperature. In absence of an atmosphere, the temperature on the surface of the moon ranges from 190°C – 110°C

Question 3. What is nitrogen fixation? Why do plants need to fix nitrogen?
Answer: The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into oxides of nitrogen is called nitrogen fixation, plants cannot absorb atmospheric nitrogen directly so they need to fix nitrogen. Rhizobium and blue-green algae fix nitrogen.

Question 4. There is mass mortality of fish in a pond. What may be the reasons?
Answer:
1)Thermal pollution
2)Addition of toxic compound in water.
3)Addition of pollution.

Question 5. Justify “Dust is a pollutant”?
Answer: Dust particles remain suspended in the air and can cause allergies and other respiratory diseases.

Question 6. Why do people love to fly kites near the seashore?
Answer: Due to the differential heating of land and water during the day there is a movement of air from sea to land. It helps in flying the kite high and the air provides relief near the seashore.

Question 7. Why are root nodules useful for plants?
Answer: Root nodules of leguminous plants have nitrogen-fixing bacteria Rhizobium.

Natural Resources Unit Test

Question 1. When we breathe in air, nitrogen also goes inside along with oxygen. What is the fate of this nitrogen______
1)It moves along with oxygen into the cells.
2)It comes out with the carbon dioxide during exhalation
3)It is absorbed only by the nasal cells.
4)Nitrogen concentration is already more in the cells so it is not at all absorbed.
Answer:  (2) It comes out with the carbon dioxide during exhalation

Question 2. Air is a mixture of gases with the following gas in maximum percentage_______
1)Nitrogen
2)Oxygen
3)Hydrogen
4)Carbon dioxide
Answer: (1) Nitrogen

Question 3. When water mixes with carbon dioxide in the air it forms______
1)sulphuric acid
2)carbonic acid
3)Hydrochloric acid
4)Ozone
Answer: (2) carbonic acid

Question 4. In which layer of atmospheric ozone is maximumly concentrated________
1)Troposphere
2)Stratosphere
3)Ionosphere
4)Mesosphere
Answer: (2) Stratosphere

Natural Resources Answer the following Questions

One Mark

Question 1. What keeps the temperature on earth steady?
Answer: Air prevents sudden increases in temperature during day and slows down the loss of heat at night.

Question 2. What is global warming?
Answer: Increase in atmospheric temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide.

Question 3. What is rainwater harvesting?
Answer: The method used to store rainwater by making special water harvesting structures.

KSEEB Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Important Questions 

Question 4. List the name of chemicals whose biomagnification result in the following diseases in human.
1)Minamata disease
2)Itai Itai disease
Answer:
1)Mercury
2)Cadmium

Question 5. Name any two climatic events that take place in the atmosphere
Answer:
1)Cloud formation
2)Convection currents – Winds

Question 6. Name the winds which bring rain in India.
Answer:
1)South-west monsoon
2) North-east monsoon.

Two Marks

Question 1. State any two harmful effects each of
1)Air pollution
2)Water pollution
Answer:
1)Harmful effects of air pollution are respiratory problems, Global warming and acid rain.
2)Harmful effects of water pollution are waterborne diseases such as typhoid cholera, and Eutrophication.

Question 2. State the harmful effects of ozone depletion.
Answer: Ozone prevents the harmful radiation of sun from reaching the surface of the earth. Depletion of this layer may harm many life forms by causing skin cancer, cataract in the eyes and cause global warming.

Question 3. What are the various forms in which oxygen is available?
Answer:
1) In the atmosphere, oxygen is found in its elemental form.
2) In combined form, it occurs as carbon dioxide.
3) It is also found in carbohydrates, proteins of Organic Molecule fats.

Question 4. Define humus and state its function.
Answer: The dark-coloured, partially decayed organic matter found in the top layer of soil is called humus. Humus makes the soil porous which helps the soil to increase its water-holding capacity and the content of the air.

Natural Resources Schematic Representation

1. Nitrogen cycle in nature.

Nitrogen cycle in nature Chapter 14

2. Carbon cycle in nature

 

 

 

 

3. Oxygen cycle in nature

Chapter 14 Oxygen cycle in nature